Sri Guru Raghavendra
Estd. : 1989
Lalitha Nagar
N.G.O. Colony
Date : 02-11-2013
Morning
No. of Questions : 40
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Ph.: 08514 - 246044 (O), 248424 (R), Cell : 98495 46044
NANDYAL - 518 502
WWW.SSGRBCC.COM
Kurnool Dist. A.P.
Marks - 200
CLERKS EXAM - 122/2013
Time - 120 min.
(IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
GENERAL AWARENESS
Max. Marks : 40
The International Kite festival is one of the most colorful events of which state of India ?
(1) Bihar
(2) UP
(3) Gujarat
(4) Rajasthan
(5) None of these
What is Basel II norms
(1) The Global Capital norms for Banks
(2) The Global Pollution Norms for Auto Manufacturer
(3) The global Norms for Cyber World
(4) The Global Pollution Norms for Heav Industries
(5) None of these
Which of the following countries has become first to pass Climate Act ?
(1) Australia
(2) Germany
(3) Canada
(4) USA
(5) None of these
NAFED is connected with
(1) Animal husbandry (2) Conservation of fuel
(3) Agricultural marketing
(4) Agricultual implements
(5) None of these
The first war of independence (1857) started from
(1) Calcutta
(2) Delhi
(3) Jhansi
(4) Meerut
(5) None of these
In India a minister who is not a mber of either Houses of Parliament will cease to be a minister after
(1) Six months
(2) one year
(3) two years
(4) three years
(5) None of these
First Muslim President of Indian National Congress was
(1) Abdul Kalam Azad
(2) Rafi Ahmad Kidwai
(3) M A Ansari
(4) Babruddin Tyabji
(5) None of these
The best source of Vitamin D is
(1) Apple
(2) Mango
(3) Sunlight
(4) Milk
(5) None of these
Which of the follwing is deducted from GNP to arrive at NNP ?
(1) Depreciation
(2) Interest
(3) Tax
(4) Subsidy
(5) None of these
‘Satyameva Jayate’, engraved on the Indian emblem is taken from
(1) Rig Veda
(2) Matsyapurana
(3) Bhagavadgita (4) Mundakopanishad (5) None of these
The famous ruler of ancient India who, towards the end of his life, is said to have converted to Jainishm, was
(1) Samudragupta (2) Bindusara
(3) Chandragupta
(4) Ashoka
(5) None of these
The yellow colour of urine is ude to presence of
(1) Bile
(2) Lymph
(3) Cholesterol
(4) Urochrome
(5) None of these
A crop grown in zaid season is
(1) watermelon
(2) soyabean
(3) maize
(4) jute
(5) None of these
One carat of diamond is equal to
(1) 100 mg
(2) 150 mg
(3) 200 mg
(4) 250 mg
(5) None of these
Madumalai Sanctuary is famous for
(1) Tigers
(2) Bisons
(3) Birds
(4) Elephants
(5) None of these
Article 25 of the Indian constitution refers to
(1) right to equality
(2) right to property
(3) freedom of religion
(4) protection of minorities
(5) None of these
‘Sishu’ is the literary work of
(1) Vikram Seth
(2) J L Nehru
(3) Rabindranath Tagore (4) M K Gandhi (5) None of these
Who is the King of wealth ?
(1) Agni
(2) Vayu
(3) Indra
(4) Kubera
(5) None of these
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
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Sri Guru Raghavendra
19. The ‘Hirakud Hydroelectric Power Project’ is in
(1) MP
(2) Odisha
(3) UP
(4) Punjab
(5) None of these
20. Who invented the ball point pen ?
(1) Waterman
(2) Oscar
(3) Wilson
(4) Lazlo Biro
(5) None of these
21. The ‘Pulitzer Prize’ is associated with which one of the following ?
(1) Medicine
(2) Olympic games (3) Journalism
(4) Civil aviation
(5) None of these
22. Who is credited with having invented the ‘Sitar’ ?
(1) Amir Khusrau
(2) Sadi
(3) Ziauddin Barani (4) Malik Muhammad Jaisi (5) None of these
23. ‘Jhabua’ are tribals from
(1) Gujarat
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Maharashtra
(4) MP
(5) None of these
24. The term ‘double fault’ is associated with
(1) Baseball
(2) Golf
(3) Tennis
(4) Bridge
(5) None of these
25. Who wrote the book “Rama Charita Manas” ?
(1) Tulsi Das
(2) Bhakta Kabir
(3) Bhakta Ramdev (4) Valmiki
(5) None of these
26. 15th August is the Independence Day of India and
(1) South Korea
(2) Indonesia
(3) China
(4) Pakistan
(5) None of these
27. ‘Dengue’ is transmitted by
(1) Culey
(2) Male anopheles (3) Genus Aedes
(4) Female anopheles (5) None of these
28. Indian railway is divided into
(1) 6 zones
(2) 9 zones
(3) 12 zones
(4) 17 zones
(5) None of these
29. ‘Gandhi Sagar Dam’ is a part of which one of the following
(1) Chambal Project (2) Kosi Project
(3) Damodar Valley (4) Bhakra Nagal Dam (5) None of these
30. Census of population in India is done after every
(1) 2 years
(2) 5 years
(3) 7 years
(4) 10 years
(5) None of these
31. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was set up on the recommendations of
1) Narasimham Committee
2) Hilton-Young Commission
3) Mahalanobis Commission
4) Fazal Ali Commission
5) None of these
32. Consider the following statements about Infrastructure Debt Funds (IDFs) in India
A) IDFs can be established in India as a trust, not as a company.
B) IDFs are regulated by SEBI.
C) IDFs are aimed at providing long-term, low-cost debt for infrastructure projects.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only C
4) All A,B & C
5) None of these
33. Consider the following statements about the Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)?
A) SDRs are an attempt by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to increase international liquidity
B) SDRs form the part of various countries’ foreign reserves along with gold.
C) SDRs are also called Paper Gold.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
1) Only A
2) Only B and C
3) Only B
4) All A,B & C
5) None of these
34. Regional Rural Banks are classified as
1) Scheduled commercial banks
2) Subsidiaries of the sponser banks
3) Subsidiaries of NABARD
4) All the above
5) None of these
35. Which of the following in India can use “Repo Bonds” to raise short-term money from markets?
A) Commercial Banks
B) Coporates
C) Governments
Choose the correct answer
1) Only A
2) Only A and B
3) Only A and C
4) All A,B& C
5) None of these
36. Which of the following is not an objective of SIDBI?
1) To initiate the process of modernisation and technical upgradation of the present units
2) To facilitate the marketing of the products of the small scale sector in India and abroad
3) To give loans both to the private as well as public sector undertakings int he field of commodity production, mining and servcies such as hotels and transport
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Sri Guru Raghavendra
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4) To provide special aid to labour-intensive industries to enable them to provide more employment
5) To provide refinancing, factoring, leasing services to the small sector
Which of the following is the reason for the success of mutual funds?
1) Mutual fund schemes offer to every investor security steady growth, regular income and easy liquidity
2) A small investor gets the professional expertise of the fund managers of the Mutual Fund
3) It carries tax breaks and this benefit is passed on to the investor
4) All the above
5) None of these
Which of the following instruments of credit control adopted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does not fall
within ‘general’ or ‘quantitative’ methods of credit control?
1) Stipulation of certain minimum margin with respect to advance against specified commodities
2) Open Market operations
3) Bank rate
4) Variable reserve requirements
5) None of these
Which day has been declared as “Balika Diwas” (Girls’Day) by the Ministry of Women and Children Development?
1) April 5
2) July 9
3) October 9
4) December 9
5) November 26
A Banking Ombudsman will not entertain Credit Card complaints which are more than___________old?
1) 3 months
2) 6 months
3) 9 months
4) 12 months
5) 2 years
No. of Questions : 40
TEST OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Max. Marks : 40
Directions (Q. 41-55): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below
it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.
Long ago there was a poor Brahmin named Krishnan. He could not find enough work to do. Sometimes,
he and his family had to go without food. At last Krishnan decided to leave his village in search of work. Early
next morning, he left the house. He walked the whole day until he came to a thick jungle. He was tired, thirsty
and hungry. While looking around for water to drink, he found a well. He went to the well and looked in.
There he saw a jaguar, a monkey, a snake and a man. They had all fallen into the well. “0, noble Brahmin,” the
jaguar called out to him, “Please help me out, so that I can go back to my family.” “But you are a jaguar.” said
Krishnan. ”How do I know you will not kill me?” “Don’t be afraid of me. I promise I will not do you any
harm,” replied the jaguar. Krishnan reached into the well and pulled out the jaguar. The jaguar thanked him
and said, “I’m Shersingh. I live in a cave in the mountains. I shall be most delighted if I can repay my debt to
you someday.” Krishnan then heard the monkey calling out to him from the well. The Brahmin at once pulled
the monkey out. The monkey thanked the Brahmin. “ If you are ever in need of food, just drop in at my place
below that big mountain. Bali is my name.” Now the snake called out to him for help. “Help you !” exclaimed
Krishnan. “You are a snake. What if you bite me?” “I shall never bite you,” said the snake. So Krishnan pulled
the snake out of the well. The snake said. ”Remember, if you are ever in any difficulty, just call out my name
Naagesh, and wherever you are, I shall find you.” The jaguar, the monkey and the snake took leave of the
Brahmin. But before they left, they spoke to him about the man in the well. “Please do not help him,” said
Shersingh. “If you do,” said Naagesh, “you will be in trouble yourself.” As soon as they left, the man in the well
began to call out for help. Krishnan felt sorry for the man and pulled him out of the well. “Thank you for your
kindness,” said the man. “I am Seth Ghanshyamdas. I am a goldsmith. If you ever need my help, don’t hesitate
to visit my humble house near the city.” The goldsmith then left for home.
After some time, the Brahmin continued his journey. But he could not find any work. He then remembered Shersingh, Bali, Naagesh and Seth Ghanshyamdas. He thought it was time to seek their help. He first
went to Bali. The monkey was overjoyed to see him. He gave him a warm welcome and offered him some
really delicious fruits. The Brahmin told him how grateful he was. Now Krishnan went to see Shersingh, the
jaguar. As soon as Shersingh saw Krishnan coming, he ran out to welcome him. He gave Krishnan a beautiful
gold necklace and other precious jewellery. Krishnan thanked Shersingh for the jewellery and parted. His
journey had at last brought him luck, he thought. He would be able to sell the ornaments for a good price. But
who could help him to sell the ornaments? He then remembered Seth Ghanshyamdas. He went to him. The
goldsmith was glad to see Krishnan. I have come to ask for your help,” said Krishnan. “Here are some
ornaments. Please give me a good price for them.” Seth Ghanshyamdas took the jewellery :and examined it
carefully. ”I shall certainly help you,” he said. “But let me show them to another goldsmith. Please wait here.
I will be right back.” He then went out with the ornaments. Seth at once rushed to the Palace of the King. He
said. “A man brought these ornaments to me and asked me to sell them. But they are the ornaments I made for
the Prince who is missing.” “Who is this man? Where is he ?” thundered the King. “This rogue must have
murdered my little Prince and robbed his jewels!” “He is a Brahmin named Krishnan, Your Majesty,” replied
the goldsmith, “and he is there, in my house,” The King called for his most dreaded soldiers. “Arrest the
Brahmin who is in the goldsmith’s house and throw him into the darkest dungeons of the kingdom!” roared the
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Sri Guru Raghavendra
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King. The King’s guard stormed into the goldsmith’s house and seized Krishnan. Krishnan was thrown into a
dark dungeon to await his execution. He then remembered the words of Naagesh, the snake. So he called out
to him. Suddenly, almost like magic, Naagesh slithered his way down a narrow window into the dingy cell.
“O, Lord !” hissed Naagesh, “how did you manage to get yourself arrested? Krishnan cried and then told the
snake what had happened. “I have a plan.” hissed Naagesh. “I shall creep into the Queen’s room and bite
her,” said Naagesh, “She will faint. No matter what they do, she will remain asleep. The poison will remain in
her body until you place your hand on her, forehead,” explained Naagesh. He then left Krishnan and went to
the palace. He crept into the Queen’s room and bit her. The Queen fainted. The sad news that the Queen had
been bitten by a snake spread all over the Kingdom. Vaidyas came from far and near, but their medicines had
no effect. No one could revive the Queen. Finally, the King declared that anyone who could cure the Queen
would be handsomely rewarded. Many people went to the palace but all of them failed. “I can cure the
Queen,” Krishnan told the guards. At once they took him to the palace and the King took him to the Queen.
Krishnan sat beside the Queen and placed his hand on her forehead. Soon, she opened her eyes and sat up.
The King was overjoyed and shed tears of happiness. He embraced Krishnan and thanked him. “Your
Majesty,” said Krishnan, “I Was sent to prison for a crime I did not commit.” Krishnan told the King the
whole story. The King was fuming with rage when he heard what the goldsmith had done. He at once had the
goldsmith arrested. The King then presented Krishnan with a large house and a thousand pieces of gold.
Krishnan sent for his family and they all lived happily ever after.
Why was Krishnan afraid to save Naagesh from the well?
1) As Naagesh had threatened him with dire consequences.
2) As he thought Naagesh would eat him.
3) As he thought Naagesh would bite him once he was out of the well,
4) As he thought that Naagesh would capture him as soon as he got out of the well.
5) None of these
What did the King do to save the Queen after even the Vaidyas failed to revive her?
1) He punished the snake for having harmed the Queen
2) He announced a reward to anyone who could cure the Queen
3) He immediately called for Krishnan to cure the Queen
4) He asked his guards to immediately look for someone who could cure the Queen
5) None of these
What did Seth Ghanshyamdas tell the King about Krishnan?
1) That Krishnan had brought fake ornaments for selling
2) That Krishnan was an honest Brahmin who had left his village 3) That Krishnan had killed the Prince
4) That Krishnan had brought those ornaments for selling which had been made for the missing Prince
5) None of these
What did the King do on learning the truth about Krishnan and Seth Ghanshyamdas?
1) He put Krishnan back in the dungeon as he still held Krishnan responsible for the Prince’s death
2) He called for Krishnan’s wife and family
3) He presented gold to Krishnan and also a house to live in
4) He congratulated the snake on his efforts to save Krishnan
5) None of these
What plan did Naagesh have to save Krishnan from the dungeon?
1) That he would sneak Krishnan out of the dungeon without anyone noticing.
2) That he would bite the King and make him unconscious.
3) That he would bite Krishnan and make everyone believe that he was dead.
4) That he would enter the Queen’s chamber and scare her.
5) None of these
What
did
Bali
do
after
seeing
Krishnan
at
his
house?
(A) He gave Krishnan directions to Shersingh’s house.
(B) He welcomed Krishnan to his house.
(C) He offered tasty fruits to Krishnan.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
4) Only (B) & (C) 5) Only (A) & (C)
Why did the jaguar, the monkey and the snake tell Krishnan not to save the man in the well ?
1) As the man in the well was a goldsmith
2) As the man in the well had cheated the snake, the monkey and the jaguar
3) As the man in the well was a thief
4) As the snake, the monkey and the jaguar hated the man as they had known him for a very long time
Why did Krishnan go to meet Seth Ghanshyamdas?
1) As he thought that Seth Ghanshamdas could help him in selling the ornaments gifted to him by Shersingh
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Sri Guru Raghavendra
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2) As he knew that Seth Ghanshyamda had contact with the King which could prove to be beneficial
3) As Seth Ghanshyamdas had requested Krishan to sell ornaments only to him
4) As Krishnan was extremely fond of Ghanshyamdas
5) None of these
Why did Krishnan decide to leave his village?
1) As he could not find much work in his own village and his family had to starve sometimes because of it.
2) As his family had requested him to do so.
3) As his village people had asked him to leave their village and look for work somewhere else.
4) As he wanted to search for food in a village different from his own.
5) None of these
What can possibly be the moral of the story?
1) Trust oneself before trusting others
2) A good deed never goes un-rewarded
3) You cannot change people but you can change yourself
4) Try and try until you succeed
5) One must be the change one wishes to see in this world
Directions (Q. 51-53): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the
word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
Humble
1) elegant
2) polite
3) modest
4) real
5) vast
SEEK
1) hunt for
2) watch for
3) mention
4) ask for
5) force
GO
1) report
2) live
3) send
4) leave
5) depart
Directions (Q. 54-60): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the
word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
HANDSOMELY
1) meagerly
2) tidily
3) ugly
4) raggedly
5) plenty
CONTINUED
1) remanded
2) presented
3) rested
4) carried on
5) stopped
Directions (Q. 56-60): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) On touring the whole world and finding no couple who was perfectly happy, the young couple understood
that it is very difficult to find perfect happiness anywhere in the world.
(B) There was a young couple who led a very happy life together.
(C) One day, they heard that a wise old man had come to town; he could solve all kinds of problems and
guide people.
(D) The wise old man told them; “Travel around the world and seek a man and a woman who are perfectly
happy as a couple.”
(E) So the couple decided to visit the wise old man and ell him their worry.
(F) The only thing that they worried about was, whether their happiness would last forever or would they too
have to face problems.
Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after arrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) E
5) F
Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) B
2) C
3) D
4) E
5) F
Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) F
Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Directions (Q. 61-65): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below each sentence should
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
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Sri Guru Raghavendra
replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence
is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5) as the answer.
61. He told his employer of his plans to leave the business to lead a more leisure life.
1) more leisurely life 2) many leisurely life 3) many leisured life 4) more leisurely live 5) No correction required
62. All she could think about was the beautiful dress and how she could earn enough money to buy it.
1) All she can think
2) All she could thought
3) All she can thought
4) All she can thinking
5) No correction required
63. A young and successful executive was travelling down a neighbourhood street, going a bit to fast in his new car.
1) a bit too fastly
2) a bit as fast
3) a bit to fastly 4) a bit too fast 5) No correction required
64. Padma could convince anyone with her talks as she had the gift of the gabbing.
1) gifting of the gabbing
2) gift of the gab
3) gifting of the gab
4) gift off the gab
5) No correction required
65. For countries undergoing a recession, large cuts in public spending seem to be the ordering of the day.
1) be the ordering of days
2) being the order of the day
3) be the order of the day
4) being the ordering of days 5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 66-70): In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is
given. These are numbered as 1), 2), 3) and 4). One of these four words printed in bold may be
either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is
wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer, if all the words
printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark 5) i.e.
‘All correct’ as your answer.
66. When the young artist returned (1) / to his village, his family held a festive (2) / dinner on it’s lawn to
celebrate his triumpant (3) / homecoming. (4) / All correct (5)
67. She trusted Mira with all her heart (1) / and thus handled (2) / over her life’s (3) / savings to her instantly.
(4) / All correct (5)
68. It is difficult (1) / to see the picture (2) / when you are inside (3) / the frame. (4) / All correct (5)
69. Had she not suppressed (1) / all the details of her Company’s project, (2) / her Company would have
bagged (3) / the contract. (4) / All correct (5)
70. The whole (1) / time she walked with her child in her arms the only thing (2) / that worried (3) / her was her
son’s feature. (4) / All correct (5)
Directions (Q. 71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of
which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
One day a father of a very wealthy family (71) his son on a trip to the country with the purpose of (72) his
son how the poor people live so he could be thankful for his wealth. They spent a (73) of days and nights on
the farm of what would be considered a (74) poor family. On their (75) from their trip, the father asked his
son, “How was the trip? “It was great, Dad.” “Did you see how poor people can be ?” the father asked. “Oh
yeah” said the son. “So what did you (76) from the trip ?” asked the father. The son answered, “I saw that we
have one dog and they had four. We have a pool that (77) to the middle of our garden and they have a creek
that has no end.” “We have imported lanterns in our garden and they have the stars at night.” “Our patio
reaches to the front yard and they have the (78) horizon.” “We have a small piece of land to live on and they
have fields that go beyond our sight.” “We have (79) who serve us, but they serve others.” “We buy our food,
but they grow theirs.” “We have walls around our (80) to protect us; they have friends to protect them.” With
this the boy’s father was speechless. Then his son added, “Thanks dad for showing me how poor we are.”
71. 1) mould
2) showed
3) took
4) beat
5) drag
72. 1) trusting
2) showing
3) presenting
4) requesting
5) tell
73. 1) few
2) many
3) two
4) couple
5) much
74. 1) very
2) astutely
3) major
4) some
5) sorrow
75. 1) return
2) walking
3) lane
4) journey
5) leave
76. 1) believe
2) learn
3) reveal
4) think
5) saw
77. 1) leak
2) watery
3) stands
3) reaches
5) swims
78. 1) last
2) lucky
3) more
4) since
5) whole
79. 1) relatives
2) man
3) servants
4) mother
5) computers
80. 1) pillars
2) country
3) minds
4) selves
5) property
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Sri Guru Raghavendra
No. of Questions : 40
81. (84)2 – (67)2 +
TEST OF NUMERICAL ABILITY
? = 2588
1)361
2)529
82. 668 ÷ 167 x 284 = ?
1) 1156
2) 1136
83.
3
3)441
4)625
5) None of these
3) 1096
4) 1116
5) None of these
3)432
4)576
5) None of these
3)4880
4)4500
5) None of these
3) 95.50
4) 91.875
5) None of these
3)35.06 .
4)24.48
5) None of these
3) 4581.5
4)4114
5) None of these
10648 x 3 5832 = ?
1)396
84. 60% of 25% of
2)216
5
th of ? = 630
6
1)5060
2)5200
85. (85410 + 36885 + 24705) ÷ 1600 = ?
1) 90.25
2) 94.386
86. 4.5 + 23.50 + 14.58 - 17.68 x 0.5 =?
1)33.74
2)21.29
87. (3675 ÷ 75) x (7480 ÷ 80) =?
1)4394.5
2)4301
88.
Max. Marks : 40
7744 x 66
=?
203 + 149
1) 15
2) 18.5
3) 20
4) 16.5
5) None of these
89. 87146 – 66425 – 15693 = ?
1) 5038
2) 5028
3) 5040
4) 5015
5) None of these
90. (786 x 74) ÷ ? = 1211.75
1) 42
2) 36
3) 56
4)54
5) None of these
Directions (91-95): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series
91. 36
20
?
8
6
5
1) 10
2) 12
3) 14
4) 16
5) None of these
92. 668
656
632
584
?
296
1) 392
2) 438
3) 488
4) 536
5) None of these
93. 1 121
441
961
1681
?
1)2701
2) 2511
3) 2611
4) 2801
5) None of these
94. 9
49
201
1009
?
20209
80841
1)4054
2)4049
3)4050
4)4041
5) None of these
95. 31
35
44
60
85
?
1) 121
2) 111
3) 109
4) 97
5) None of these
96. The average of five positive numbers is 308. The average of first two numbers is 482.5 and the average of
last two numbers is 258.5. What is the third number?
1)224
2)58
3) 121
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
97. Sophia invests 25% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 15% of her monthly salary in
shopping and 35% of her salary on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs 9,050. What
is Sophia’s annual income?
1) Rs 84,500
2) Rs 5,30,000
3) Rs 3,25,200
4) Rs 4,34,400
5) None of these
98. The ratio of roses and lilies in a garden is 3 : 2 respectively. The average number of roses and lilies is 180.
What is the number of lilies in the garden?
1) 144
2) 182
3)216
4)360
5) None of these
99. The number of employees in Companies A, Band Care in a ratio of 3 : 2: 4 respectively. If the number of
employees in the three Companies is increased by 20%, 30% and 15% respectively, what will be the new
ratio of employees working in Companies A, Band C respectively?
1) 18 : 13 : 24
2) 13 : 18 : 23
3) 17 : 13 : 23
4) 18: 11 : 23
5) None of these
100. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘HAPPY’ be arranged?
1) 120
2) 140
3)60
4)70
5) None of these
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
¾ 7
Sri Guru Raghavendra
Directions (Q. 101-105): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions given below it.
Total Residents and Percentage of Women out of those Living in Various Societies Over the Years
101. What is the respective ratio of the number of women to the total residents in society C over the years?
1)47: 108
2)91 :215
3) 93 :215
4)47: 109
5) None of these
102. What is the approximate average number of women living in all the societies together in the year 2002?
1)98
2)105
3)107
4)101
5)111
103. What is the difference between the total residents living in all the societies together in the year 2003 and the
total residents living in all the societies together in the year 2004?
1) 60
2)45
3) 30
4)50
5) None of these
104. What is the respective ratio of men living in Society E in the year 2006 to the year 2007?
1)17:18
2)18:17
3) 16 : 17
4) 17: 16
5) None of these
105. What is the total number of men living in all the societies together in the year 2004?
1)710
2)736
3)680
4) 742
5) None of these
106. What amount of compound interest can be obtained on an amount of Rs 8,840 at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. at the
end of 3 years?
1) Rs 1,393.405
2) Rs. 1326
3) Rs 1,384.50
4) Rs. 1340
5) None of these
107. A trader sells 150 metres of cloth for Rs 6,600 and he sells 300 metres of cloth for Rs 12,750. How much
concession does the trader give per metre of cloth, when he sells 300 metres of cloth?
1) Rs 3
2) Rs 2.5
3) Rs 1.5
4) Rs 2
5) None of these
108. When 3888 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained is multiplied by 21, the final
answer obtained is 252. What is the number?
1) 324
2) 16
3) 256
4) 144
5) None of these
109. The sum of the two digits of a two-digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second
digit of the two-digit number is 4. What is the two digit number?
1)86
2) 95
3) 59 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
110. A car runs at the speed of 40 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 65 kms/hr when serviced. After
servicing the car covers a certain distance in 5 hours. How much approximate time will the car take to cover
the same distance when not serviced?
1) 10
2)7
3) 12
4)8
5)6
Directions (Q.111-115): Study the following graph and answer the questions given below it.
Number of Children pursuing various Hobby Classes in various States (Number in thousands)
111. What is the average number of children pursuing painting classes from all the States together?
1) 19375
2) 17395
3) 19725
4) 18385
5) None of these
112. The children pursuing singing classes in State A are what per cent of the total number of children pursuing all
the three classes from the same State?
1)30
2)35
3)40
4)45
5) None of these
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
¾ 8
Sri Guru Raghavendra
113. What is the difference between the total number of children pursuing dancing and the total number of children
pursuing painting from all the States together?
1) 2000
2) 15000
3) 25000
4) 10000
5) None of these
114. What is the respective ratio of the number of children pursuing dancing from State B to the number of children
pursuing dancing from State D?
1) 7: 9
2) 11 : 9
3) 11 : 7
4)9: 11
5) None of these
115. What is the average number of children pursuing singing, dancing and painting from State C? (Rounded off to
the nearest integer)
1)28859
2)29167
3) 291216
4)28765
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 116-120): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in
the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
116. [(1.3)2 x (4.2)2] + 2.7 = ?
1) 7
2) 21
3) 18
4) 11
5) 16
117. 746 ÷ 32 x 15 = ?
1)350
2)345
3)355
4) 340
5)335
118.
834 x 349 = ?
1) 525
2) 556
119. (3986 + 2416 + 3897) + 754=?
1)18
2)14
120. 41.25 + 11.085 x 2.75 =?
1)63
2)67
No. of Questions : 40
3) 534
4) 550
5) 540
3)11
4)9
5)21
3)76
4)72
5)80
REASONING ABILITY
Max. Marks : 40s
121. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BRIGHTEN each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
122. In a certain code FIGHT is written as ‘39%@4’ and TEARS is written as ‘458&*’. How is STAGE written
in that code?
1)*4835
2)*48%5
3)*84%5
4)*48@5
5) None of these
123. Among A, B, C, D and E each reaching school at a different time, C reaches before D and A and only after
B. E is not the last to reach school. Who among them reached school last?
1) D
2) A
3) C
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
124. What should come next in the number series? 1 8 3 6 5 4 7 2 9 1 8 3 6 5 4 7 2 1 8 3 6 5 4 7 1 8 3 6 5 4
1) 1
2)2
3) 4
4) 8
5) None of these
125. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) Jug
2) Cup
3) Mug
4) Pitcher
5) Container
126. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) 93
2) 57
3) 69
4) 65
5) 87
127. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘x’ means ‘–’, ‘÷’ means ‘x’ and ‘-’ means ‘+’, then - 16 x 8 + 4 – 6 ÷ 3 = ?
1) 130
2) 14
3) 32
4) 18
5) None of these
128. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ERDU using each letter only once in each word
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
129. In a column of 20 boys, D is fourteenth from the front and F is ninth from the bottom. How many boy are
there between D and F?
1)2
2) 3
3)4
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
l30. In a certain code BROADEN is written as NQABOFE. How is DESKTOP written in that code?
1) RDCLQPU
2) TFELQPU
3) RDCJQPU
4) EFTLONS
5) None of these
131. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 27651489 each of which has as many digits, between
them in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number.
1) None
2) Three
3) Two
4) One
5) More than three
Directions (132- 137): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
¾ 9
Sri Guru Raghavendra
M, P, D, Q, T, R, B and W are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D is second to the left of M who
is third to the right of P. W is third to the right of Q who is second to the left of B. R is third to the right of T.
132. Who is third to the left of M?
1) D
2)W
3) P
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
133. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of R?
1) BM
2) QW
3) WM
4) BT
5) None of these
134. Who is fourth to the right of W?
1)T
2)M
3)Q
4) D
5) Data inadequate
135. Who is second to the right of M?
1) B
2) W
3)P
4) R
5) Data inadequate
136. Who is second to the right of P?
1)T
2) B
3) W
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
137. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
1) PD
2) WP
3) BW
4) RQ
5) MQ
Directions (138-143): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
R @ F ^ 3 1 # M D U P 4 H © T 8 W N * A Q 5 E B I $ J % Y 2 7
138. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) MD1
2) 4HP
3) 8WT
4) Q5A
5) J%$
139. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a
number and immediately followed by a letter?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
140. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the eleventh from
the left end?
1) P
2) Q
3)N
4) ©
5) None of these
141. What should come next in the following series based on the above arrangement? F31 DP4 TWN
1)5BI
2)QEI
3)QEB
4)Q5B
5) None of these
142. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by
a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
143. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the seventeenth from the right end of the above arrangement
1)E
2) D
3) #
4)1
5) None of these
Directions (Q.144-149): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by
three conclusions numbered I, II and m. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
144. Statements:
All telephones are wires.
All wires are tents.
All tents are cans.
Conclusions:
I. Some cans are wires. II. Some tents are telephones. III. Some cans are telephones.
1) Only 1 and II follow
2) Only II and III follow
3) Only 1 and III follow
4) All I, II and III follow
5) None of these
145. Statements:
Some cards are pictures. All pictures are paints. Some paints are nails.
Conclusions:
I. Some paints are cards. II. Some nails are cards. III. Some nails are pictures.
1) None follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows 5) Only I & II follow
146. Statements:
All walls are glasses.
No glass is table.
Some tables are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are walls. II. Some tables are walls. III. Some windows are glasses.
1) None follows
2) Only 1 follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows 5) Only I & II follow
147. Statements:
All baskets are poles. Some poles are lamps.
All lamps are roads.
Conclusions:
I. Some lamps are baskets. II. Some roads are poles. III. Some lamps are poles.
I) Only I and II follow
2) Only I and III follow
3) Only II and III follow
4) All I, II and III follow
5) None of these
148. Statements:
Some leaves are baskets. Some baskets are flowers. Some flowers are lakes.
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
¾1 0
Sri Guru Raghavendra
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
Conclusions:
I. Some lakes are baskets. II. Some flowers are lakes. III. No lake is basket.
1) Only I follows
2) Only II follows 3) Only III follows 4) Only either I or III follows 5) None of these
Statements:
All pictures are bands.
Some bands are chairs.
Some chairs are tables.
Conclusions:
I. Some tables are bands. II. Some chairs are pictures. III. Some tables are pictures.
1) None follows
2) Only J follows
3) Only II follows 4) Only I & II follow 5) Only III follows
Directions (Q. 150-155): In the following questions, the symbols @, *, $ and % are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’ .
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three
conclusions t, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
Statements:
B % N,
N # F,
F* H
Conclusions:
I. H $ N
II. F%B
III. B%H
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) None is true
5) All I, II and III are true
Statements:
W # F,
F % K,
K$M
Conclusions:
I. M % F
II. M # F
III. W $ K
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only either I or II is true 4) Only III is true 5) None of these
Statements:
W $ B,
B @ M,
M*R
Conclusions:
I. R$ B
II. R@B
III. M%W
1) Only either I or II is true2) Only either I or II and III are true
3) Only III is true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these
Statements:
M * D,
D $ K,
K@T
Conclusions:
I. T % D
II. K%M
III. M%T
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only III is true
4) Only I &III are true 5) None of these
Statements:
K @ F,
F $ M,
M#T
Conclusions:
I. T % F
II. M%K
III. K$T
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these
Statements:
N * A,
A % B,
B#D
Conclusions:
I. D % A
II. B $ N
III. N % D
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true 4) Only III is true 5) Only I & II are true
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
¾1 1
Sri Guru Raghavendra
No. of Questions : 40
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
Max. Marks : 40
161. Programs from the same developer sold bundled together, that provide better integration and share common
features, toolbars and menus are known as
1) software suites
2) integrated software packages
3) software processing packages
4) personal information managers
5) None of these
162. Which of the following is the characteristic of a data warehouse?
1) Can be updated by the end users
2) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
3) Organised around important subject areas 4) Contains only current data.
5) None of these
163. _____ servers store and manage files for network users.
1) Authentication
2) Main
3) Web
4) File
5) None of these
164. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks except
1) hackers
2) spam
3) viruses
4) identify theft
5) None of these
165. The hardware device that acts as both a switching and connecting unit is called
1) RS-232C Port
2) Concentrator 3) Multiplexer 4) Communication processor 5) None of these
166. The OSI model is divided into ______ processes called layers.
1) five
2) six
3) seven
4) eight
5) None of these
167. System software is a set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and ____ software to
work together.
1) management
2) processing
3) utility
4) application
5) None of these
168. _______ are specially designed computer chips which reside inside other devices such as your car or your
electronic thermostat.
1) Servers
2) Embedded computers
3) Robotic computers
4) Mainframes
5) None of these
169. All the following are mobile computing devices, except
1) notebook computers
2) cellular telephones
3) digital scanners
4) personal digital assistants
5) None of these
170. In a ring topology, the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data.
1) packet
2) data
3) Script
4) token
5) None of these
171. The part of operating system that manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen, disk
drives, and parallel and serial ports, is
1) basic input/output system
2) secondary input/output system
3) peripheral input/output system
4) marginal input/output system
5) None of these
172. ______ viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive.
1) Trojan horse
2) Boot sector
3) Script
4) Logic bomb
5) None of these
173. ________ controls the way in which a computer system functions and provides name by which users can
interact with the computer.
1) The platform
2) Application software
3) Operating system
4) The mother board
5) None of these
174. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a
1) mainframe
2) network
3) Super computer 4) client
5) None of these
175. The goal of data mining includes which of the following?
1) To explain some observed event or condition
2) To confirm that data exist
3) To analyse data for expected relationships
4) To create a new data warehouse
5) None of these
176. The device that assembles groups of characters into complete messages prior to their entering the CPU is
called
1) An Interpreter
2) A Compiler
3) A Communication processor
4) An Editor
5) A Translator
177. A Database Management System (DBMS) is a
1) hardware system used to create, maintain and provide controlled access to a database.
2) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
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Sri Guru Raghavendra
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
3) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
4) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database. 5) None of these
Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system?
1) Capture, process and store transactions.
2) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities.
3) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions.
4) Produce standard reports used for management decision-making.
5) None of these
A proxy server is used for which of the following?
1) To provide security against unauthorised users 2) To process client requests for web pages
3) To process client requests for database access 4) To provide TCP/IP
5) None of these
When data change in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes
1) data redundancy 2) information overload
3) duplicate data
4) data inconsistency
5) None of these
______ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
1) Control words
2) Reserved words 3) Control structure 4) Reserved keys
5) None of these
What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?
1) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user’s computer to other computers.
2) A worm is usually written by a cracker. Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program.
3) A virus is very harmful to the computer it infects: a worm is not a serious a problem.
4) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting against viruses but not worms.
5) None of these
______ describe what database fields are.
1) Structures
2) Field markers
3) Field definitions 4) Field names
5) None of these
You must instal a(n) _________ on a network if you want to share a Broadband Internet connection.
1) router
2) modem
3) node
4) cable
5) None of these
A goal of normalisation is to
1) minimise the number of relationships
2) minimise the number of entities
3) minimise the number of tables
4) minimise the number, of redundancies 5) None of these
Granting an outside organisation access to Internet web pages is often implemented using a(n)
1) extranet
2) intranet
3) internet
4) hacker
5) None of these
Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site?
1) URL
2) Website address 3) Hyperlink
4) Domain name
5) None of these
The code ‘that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as
1) QBE
2) SQL
3)OLAP
4) Sequel Server
5) None of these
This can be another word for program 1) software
2) disk
3) floppy
4) hardware
5) None of these
The purpose of the primary key in a database is to
1) unlock the database
2) provide a map of the data
3) uniquely identify a record 4) establish constraints on database operations
5) None of these
A ______ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
1) programming language
2) syntax
3) programming structure
4) logic chart
5) None of these
The design of a network is called the network
1) architecture
2) server
3) transmission
4) type
5) None of these
The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from
1) the hard disk
2) cache memory
3) RAM
4) registers
5) None of these
The ____ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
1) data dictionary
2) data table
3) data record
4) data field
5) None of these
Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as
1) Iistservs
2) Webcasts
3) blogs
4) subject directories 5) None of these
A(n) _____ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the com-
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
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Sri Guru Raghavendra
197.
198.
199.
200.
puter system.
1) command-based user interface
2) GUI
3) system utility
4) API
5) None of these
The ______ manual tells you how to use a software program.
1) documentation
2) programming
3) technical
4) user
5) None of these
Which of the following is NOT a type of Broadband Internet connection?
1) Cable
2) DSL
3) Dial up
4) Satellite
5) None of these
Softwares such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses that have a malicious intent, are known as
1) spyware
2) adware
(3) spam
4) malware
5) None of these
Making a field ______ means that it cannot be left blank.
1) numeric
2) required
3) calculated
4) validated
5) None of these
SSC Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerk Exam (01-07-2012)
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
101. A completes a piece of work in 4 days and B completes it in 6 days. If they both work on it together, then the
number of days required to complete the same work is
(1) 3 5/2 days
(2) 2 5/2 days
(3) 2 2/5days
(4) 3 2/5days,
102. The length of the side of a square is 14cm. Find out the ratio of the radii of the inscribed anti circumscribed
circle of the square.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 2 : 1
A buys an article listed at ` 1200 and gets successive discounts of 10% and 20%. He spends 10% of his cost
price on transport. At what price should he sell the article to earn a profit of 15%?
(1) ` 1130.75
(2) ` 1092.96
(3) ` 1125
(4) ` 1100
The ratio of milk and water is 55 kg of a mixture is 7 : 4. The quantity of water that must be added to make
the ratio 7 : 6 is
(1) 15 kg
(2) 10 kg
(3) 5 kg
(4) 12 kg
The next term of the series 1, 2, 6, 24, 120 .... .is ‘
(1) 600
(2) 216
(3) 720
(4) 810
The greatest number of 5 digits to be added to 8321, so that the sum will be exactly divisible by 15, 20, 24,
27, 32 and 36 is
(1) 99360
(2) 99679
(3)99779
(4)99879
A and B invest in a business in the ratio 5 : 4. If 10% of the total profit goes to charity and A’s profit share is
` 7500, then the total profit is
(1) ` 7500
(2) ` 10000
(3) ` 12000
(4) ` 15000
3+ 6
=?
5 3 − 2 12 − 32 + 50
(1) 4.899
(2) 2.551
(3) 1.414
(4) 1.732
37
37
109. The remainder, when 17 +29 is divided by 23, is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 17
(4)29
110. A motor car goes to a place at a speed of 20 km/hr and returns from there at a speed of 30 km/hr. The
average speed (in km/hr) of the car in the entire journey is
(1) 26
(2) 25
(3) 24
(4) 24.5
111. A man invests an amount of ` 15860 in the names of his three sons A, B and C in such a way that they get the
same amount after 2, 3 and 4 years respectively. If the rate of simple interest is 5%, then the ratio of amounts
invested in the name of A, B and C is
(1) 4 : 3 : 6
(2) 4 : 6 : 3
(3) 6 : 4 : 3
(4)6 : 3 : 4
108. If 3 = 1.732. the value of
⎛ 3 1
⎞
112. If 2a - (2/a) + 3 = 0 the value of ⎜ a − 3 + 2 ⎟ is
a
⎝
⎠
(1) 5
(2) –35/8
(3) –40/7
(4) –47/8
113. If x = 3 /2 then the value of 1 + x + 1 − x will be
(1) 1/ 3
(2) 2 3
(3) 3
(4) 2
114. The average age of a group of 30 boys is 12 years. When 2 new boys join them, the average increases by
1/4 year. What is the average age (in years) of the two new boys?
(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 14
(4) 16
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
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Sri Guru Raghavendra
115. Average of two numbers is 7.5 and square root of their product is 6. What are the numbers?
(1) 13 and 2
(2) 9 and 6
(3) 10 and 5
(4) 12 and 3
116. The profit earned by a shopkeeper by selling an article at a gain of 8% is ` 28 more than when he sells it at
a loss of 8%. The cost price of the article is
(1) ` 170
(2) ` 190
(3) ` 175
(4) ` 165
117. Krishna has 12 oranges with him. He sells x of them at a profit of 10% and remaining at a loss of 10%. He
gains 5% on the whole outlay. The value of x is
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 10
⎛1 1⎞
118. If x 3 + y 3 = 35 and x + y = 5, the value of ⎜⎜ + ⎟⎟ is
⎝x y⎠
(1) 4/7
(2) 3/8
(3) 5/6
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
a
b
c
x2
y2
z2
+
+
=
=
I
= 1, then the value of
is
a+ x b+ y c+ z
by + cz cz + ax ax + by
(1) -l
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4)-2
3
2
The values of a and b (a> 0, b < 0) for which 8x - ax + 54x + b be a perfect cube are
(1) a= 12, b=-9
(2) a = 36, b = -27
(3)a = 18, 13=-27
(4) a = 16, b = -9
If G is the centroid and AD be a median with length 12 cm of Δ ABC, then the value of AG is
(1) 4cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 10cm
(4) 6cm
ABC is a right-angled triangle, AD is perpendicular to the hypotenuse BC. If AC = 2AB, then the value of
BD is
(1) BC/2
(2) BC/3
(3) BC/4
(4) BC/5
The length of the portion of the straight line 8x + 15y = 120 intercepted between the axes is
(1) 14 units
(2) 15 units
(3) 16 units
(4) 17 units
If (x + 1) and (x - 2) be the factors of x3 + (a + 1)x2 - (b- 2)x - 6. then the values of a and b will be
(1) 2 and 8
(2) 1 and 7
(3) 5 and 3
(4) 3 and 7
125. If x is real and
(1) ± 4
126. If a =
2 + 1, b =
(1) 9
127.
128.
129.
130.
(4) 3/5
1⎞
⎛
= 119 then the value of ⎜ x − ⎟ is
x⎠
⎝
(7) ± 9
(3)
±
Δcos
θ∠
cosec
θ1θ3 cos θ
=4
x 43+ 4 +
1 1+
− sin
cotx1θ 1 + sin θ
2 - 1, then the value of a + 1 + b + 1 is
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) ± 2
(4) 2
a6 + a4 + a2 +1
If a = 3 + 2 2 , then the value of
is
a3
(1) 192
(2) 240
(3) 204
(4) 212
The perimeter of a rhombus is 146 cm and one of its diagonals is 55 cm. The other diagonal is
(1) 92 cm
(2) 73 cm
(3) 48 cm
(4) 72 cm
ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. Sides AB and DC. when produced meet at the point P and sides AD and BC.
when produced meet at the point Q. If ∠ ADC = 85° and BPC = 40°, then CQP is equal to
(1) 30°
(2) 40°
(3) 55°
(4) 85°
In a right-angled triangle ABC, AB = 2.5 cm, cos B = 0.5, ACB = 90°. The length of side AC, in cm, is
(1) 5
(2)
5
3
2
(3)
5
3
4
(4)
5
3
16
131. If cos θ = 4/5 then the value of
(1) 7/5
132. The value of θ [0° <
(2) 2/7
< 90°] for which
(3) 5/7
(4) 4/7
is
(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) None of these
2
133. In ABC, AD is drawn perpendicular from A on BC. If AD = BD. CD, then BAC is
(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°
134. ABC is a triangle. The internal bisector of the angles A, B and C intersect the circumcircle at X, Y
and Z respectively. If A = 50°, CZY = 30°, then BYZ, will be
(1) 45°
(2) 55°
(3) 35°
(4) 30°
135. If a circle with radius of 10 cm has two parallel chords 16 cm and 12 ern and they are on the same side of the
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
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Sri Guru Raghavendra
centre of the circle, then the distance between the two parallel chords is
(1) 2 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 8 cm
136. Two circles of radii 8 cm and 2 cm respectively touch each other externally at the point A. PQ is the direct
common tangent of those two circles of centres O1 and O2 respectively. Then length of PQ is equal to
(1) 2cm
(2) 3cm
(3) 4cm
(4) 8cm
137. O is the ortho centre of the triangle ABC. If BOC = 120°, then BAC is
(1) 150°
(2) 60°
(3) 135°
(4) 90°
138. Circumcenter of ABC is O. If BAC = 85°, BCA = 80°, then OAC is
(1) 80°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°
139. If cos
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
+ sec
=
then the value of cos3 θ + sec3
is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) -1
(4)
2
2
If for-all real values of α , x = cos + sin , then the range in which x lies is
(1) 3/4 < x < 1
(2) 3/4 < x < 13/15
(3) 13/16 < x < 1
(4) 1/2 < x < 2
The maximum value of 24sin + 7 cos is
(1) 7
(2) 17
(3) 24
(4) 25
In ABC, A is a right angle and AD is perpendicular to BC. If AD = 4cm, BC = 12 cm, then the value
of (cot B + cot C) is
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 3/2
If sec + tan = 2, then sec is equal to
(1) 7/4
(2) 7/2
(3) 5/2
(4) 5/4
If tan 20, tan 40 = 1 then the value of tan 30 is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 1/2
(4) 2
A pole broken by the storm of wind and its top struck the ground at an angle of 30° and at a distance of 20m
from the foot of the pole, the height of the pole before it was broken was
40 3
100 3
(3) 60 3 m
(4)
m
3
3
Directions (146 - 150) : Study the graph and answer questions given below,
Percentage of the candidates enrolled in sevenα
different schools for the CBSE 10th examination
Δ3
θ∠
and candidates who passed the examination
is given by the following pie-graph.
Candidates Enrolled = 8550
Candidates Passed = 5700
(1) 20
(2)
146. What is the ratio of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled from the school A ?
(1)6: 11
(2) 11:6
(3) 6 : 7
(4) 7 : 6
147. What percentage of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled for the schools B and C together?
(1) 60
(2) 72
(3) 76
(4) 80
148. Which school has the highest percentage of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) F
149. The number of candidates passed from the schools D and A together exceeds the number of candidates
enrolled from the schools E and C together by
(1) 299
(2) 379
(3) 399
(4) 439
150. What percentage of candidates passed in the examination from school E out of total number of candidates
enrolled from the same school? (1) 60
(2) 65
(3) 75
(4) 80
Clerks Exam - 122/2013 (IBPS CLERKS PATTERN)
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