C208/SQP227
Geography
Intermediate 2
NATIONAL
QUALIFICATIONS
Contents
Page
Course Assessment Specification
2
Specimen Question Paper
5
Specimen Marking Instructions
23
Analysis grid
32
[C208/SQP227] 1
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Course Assessment Specification
Geography Intermediate 2
The purpose of this document is to provide:
♦ details of the structure of the Question Paper in this Course
♦ guidance to centres on how to use information gathered from the Question Paper
in this Course to estimate candidate performance
PART 1
This part of the Course Assessment Specification details the structure of the
Question Paper in this Course.
♦ The Question Paper has a time allocation of two hours.
♦ The total marks available are 80.
♦ The paper will consist of two sections, A and B.
Section A – total marks 50
This section will include the use of an Ordnance Survey map of the British Isles at
either 1:25000 or 1:50000 scale.
Candidates answer two compulsory questions.
Question 1 based on the topics in the Unit Geography: Physical Environments.
Question 2 based on the topics in the Unit Geography: Human Environments.
Each question is worth 25 marks
Questions in this section of the paper are the same length as those within the Unit
assessment. The added value for the Course assessment is on the retention of
knowledge and skills.
Section B – total marks 30
Candidates answer two questions from a choice of five.
There is one question on each of the topics in the Geography: Environmental
Interactions Unit.
Question 3 – Rural Land Degradation
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Page 2
Question 4 – River Basin Management
Question 5 – European Environmental Inequalities
Question 6 – Development and Health
Question 7 – Environmental Hazards
Each question is worth 15 marks.
Questions in this section provide the opportunity to integrate knowledge about
human and physical environments and evaluate strategies and policies, in more than
one context, for the management of issues. The added value of the Course
assessment is the increased breadth of knowledge which has to be shown; two topics
assessed but only one in Unit assessment.
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PART 2
This part of the Course Assessment Specification provides guidance on how to
use assessment information gathered from the Question Paper to estimate
candidate performance
The Course award is based on the total mark gained in the Question Paper.
In National Qualifications cut-off scores should be set at approximately 70% for
Grade A and 50% for Grade C with Grade B falling midway.
The cut-off scores may be lowered if the Question Paper turns out to be more
demanding or raised if less demanding than intended.
For a total mark range of 0 - 80, the table gives an indication of the cut-off scores that
may apply.
Grade
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
NA
NA
Band
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
Mark Range
68 - 80
56 - 67
52 - 55
48 - 51
44 - 47
40 - 43
36 - 39
32 - 35
0 - 31
In estimating performance for a candidate who scored 49/80 in the centre’s own
assessment, the following considerations would apply.
♦ The centre’s view is that their assessment is less demanding than SQA Question
Paper.
♦ Using the table a more realistic estimate may be band 5.
[C208/SQP227] 4
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C208/SQP227
Intermediate 2
Geography
NATIONAL
QUALIFICATIONS
Time: 2 hours
Specimen Question Paper
for use in and after 2005
Candidates should answer four questions:
Section A
AND
Section B
Candidates should read the questions carefully.
relevant.
Question 1
and
Question 2
any two questions from
Questions 3 to 7
Answers should be clearly expressed and
Credit will always be given for appropriate sketch-maps and diagrams.
Write legibly and neatly, and leave a space of about one cm between the lines.
Marks may be deducted for bad spelling and bad punctuation, and for writing that is difficult to
read.
All maps and diagrams in this paper have been printed in black only: no other colours have been
used.
NB The Ordnance Survey Map used in this Specimen Question Paper was used in the
Standard Grade General examination in 2000 (map extract no 1174/41).
[C208/SQP227]
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Marks
SECTION A
IN THIS SECTION YOU MUST ANSWER QUESTION 1 AND QUESTION 2.
Question 1: Physical Environments
Reference Diagram Q1A: Selected Glaciated Uplands in the United Kingdom
(a) Study Reference Diagram Q1A.
Name the three areas of glaciated upland shown in Reference Map Q1A.
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Page two
[Turn over
3
Marks
1.
(continued)
(b) Study the Ordnance Survey Map of the Fort William area (map extract no 1174/41).
(i) Match the following physical features with the correct 6-figure grid reference.
Features:
Corrie
Grid References:
Meander
146708
185713
Beach
Waterfall
090767
133708
3
(ii) Look at grid squares 1873 and 1276.
Compare the physical features of the rivers and their valleys.
4
Reference Diagram Q1B: An Upland Limestone Landscape
(c) Study Reference Diagram Q1B.
Choose one surface feature and one underground feature.
Explain how each was formed.
You may wish to use diagrams in your answer.
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Page three
6
Marks
1.
(continued)
Reference Diagram Q1C: Popular Tourist Areas in the British Isles
(d) Reference Diagram Q1C shows three areas in the British Isles which attract tourists.
(i) With reference to any one of the areas shown or an area in the British Isles you
have studied, describe the environmental problems created by increased
tourism.
(ii) Explain the measures taken to minimise the long term impact of tourism.
5
Reference Diagram Q1D
Forestry
Tourism
Farming
Upland Limestone Area
Military
Training
Communications
Industry
(e) “Areas of upland limestone scenery are under pressure from various conflicting land uses.”
Choose two land uses from those shown in Reference Diagram Q1D and explain
why they may be in conflict.
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Page four
4
(25)
Marks
Question 2: Human Environments
Reference Diagram Q2A: World Population Distribution
(a) Study Reference Diagram Q2A.
Explain how physical factors such as relief and climate affect the distribution of
world population.
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Page five
4
Marks
2.
(continued)
Reference Diagram Q2B: Population Pyramid for Japan
Age
85+
80-84
75-79
70-74
65-69
60-64
55-59
50-54
45-49
40-44
35-39
30-34
25-29
20-24
15-19
10-14
5-9
0-4
6000
5000
4000
3000 2000
1000
0
0
Male (000s)
1000
2000 3000
4000
5000 6000
Female (000s)
(b) Study Reference Diagram Q2B.
Describe the population pyramid and explain the implications of this population
structure for the future of the country.
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Page six
[Turn over
5
Marks
2.
(continued)
Reference Diagram Q2C: Population Growth in Mexico City
22
20
Population (millions)
18
16
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
1900
1920
1940 1960
Year
1980
2000
(c) Study Reference Diagram Q2C.
For Mexico City, or a named city in an Economically Less Developed Country
(ELDC) you have studied,
(i) give reasons for its rapid growth, and
(ii) describe the environmental problems which have resulted from this growth.
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Page seven
[Turn over
6
Marks
2.
(continued)
Reference Diagram Q2D: Rural Landscape in an ELDC
(d) Study Reference Diagram Q2D.
(i) Describe the main features of this or any other rural landscape in an ELDC
you have studied.
5
(ii) Explain any recent changes which may have occurred.
(e) Study the OS map of Fort William (map extract no 1174/41).
There is a large paper mill shown in grid square 0876.
Explain why this is a suitable site for the paper mill.
evidence in your answer.
You must refer to map
5
(25)
[END OF SECTION A]
NOW TURN TO SECTION B AND ANSWER TWO QUESTIONS
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Page eight
[Turn over
SECTION B
Environmental Interactions
Answer any two questions from this section.
Choose from
Question 3
Rural Land Degradation
(Pages 10 to 12)
Question 4
River Basin Management
(Page 13)
Question 5
European Environmental Inequalities
(Page 14)
Question 6
Development and Health
(Pages 15 to 17)
Question 7
Environmental Hazards
(Page 18)
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Page nine
Marks
SECTION B
Question 3: Rural Land Degradation
Reference Diagram Q3A: Climate Graph of Tropical Rainforest
32
28
20
500
16
400
12
300
8
200
4
100
0
J F M A M J
J A S O N D
Rainfall (mm)
Temperature (oC)
24
0
(a) Look at Reference Diagram Q3A.
Describe in detail the climate of the Equatorial Rainforest.
(b) Explain why so many Economically Less Developed Countries (ELDCs)continue
to cut down rainforest.
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Page ten
3
4
Marks
3.
(continued)
Reference Diagram Q3B: Effects of Desertification
(c) Look at Reference Diagram Q3B.
4
Explain in detail the effects of desertification.
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Page eleven
[Turn over
Marks
3.
(continued)
Reference Diagram Q3C: A North African Landscape
(d) Reference Diagram Q3C above shows some possible methods of slowing down the
spread of deserts.
Explain in detail the measures that have been taken to try to prevent desertification.
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Page twelve
[Turn over
4
(15)
Marks
Question 4: River Basin Management
Reference Diagram Q4A: Factors which influence Water Movements
in a River Basin
Relief and Vegetation
Size and share of
catchment area
RIVER BASIN
Rainfall distribution
and reliability
Rock type
Human land uses
Study Reference Diagram Q4A.
(a) Select two factors from the diagram above and describe in detail the impact they
have on river channel run off.
6
(b) Give reasons why a water control project was necessary in an area you have studied.
4
(c) For a named water control project you have studied, describe either the economic
or the environmental advantages and disadvantages.
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Page thirteen
[Turn over
5
(15)
Marks
Question 5: European Environmental Inequalities
Reference Diagram Q5A: Pollution in the Mediterranean Sea
Main sea currents
Beach
Selected oil refinery
Selected major city
Urban/industrial region
Number of tankers in Mediterranean per day
ALGERIA (2130) Selected country (GNP $ per capita)
(a) Look at Reference Diagram Q5A above.
Describe the location of the main sources of pollution throughout the
Mediterranean Sea area.
(b) What are the main causes of pollution throughout the Mediterranean Sea area?
(c)
(i) For any two rivers you have studied, describe and explain the differences in
environmental quality between them. (At least one of your chosen rivers
should be in Mainland Europe.)
(ii) Describe the national policies used to improve or maintain the environmental
quality of the two rivers you have studied.
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Page fourteen
3
4
5
3
(15)
Marks
Question 6: Development and Health
Reference Diagram Q6A: The Economically Less Developed Countries’ Share
of Resources
The Economically Less Developed Countries have:
75% of the world’s people
S
15% of
world energy
consumption
17% of the world’s GNP
11% of the
world education
spending
30% of the world’s food grains
5% of world
science and
technology
18% of world
export earnings
6% of the world health
expenditure
8% of world industry
(a) Study Reference Diagram Q6A.
Explain why some countries are more developed than others.
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Page fifteen
4
Marks
6.
(continued)
Reference Diagram Q6B: The World Distribution of Heart Disease and Malaria
23½ °N
0°
23½ °S
Heart Disease Common
23½ °N
0°
23½ °S
Areas at risk from Malaria
(b) Look at Reference Diagram Q6B.
4
Describe the distribution of heart disease and malaria.
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Page sixteen
[Turn over
Marks
6.
(continued)
Answer either part (c) or part (d).
(c) Choose one of the following diseases common in Economically Less Developed
Countries (ELDCs).
Malaria
AIDS
4
(i) Explain in detail the main cause of the disease.
(ii) Describe the methods (including the involvement of relevant organisations)
which have been used to control or reduce the disease.
OR
3
(15)
(d) Choose one of the following diseases common in Economically Less Developed
Countries (ELDCs).
Malaria
AIDS
(i) Describe the methods (including the involvement of relevant organisations)
which have been used to control or reduce the disease.
3
(15)
(ii) Indicate how effective these measures have been.
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Page seventeen
4
[Turn over
Marks
Question 7: Environmental Hazards
Reference Map Q7A: The Distribution of Tropical Storms
(a) Study Reference Map Q7A.
Describe and explain the distribution of tropical storms.
6
(b) For either an earthquake or a volcano which you have studied,
(i) explain its causes, and
(ii) describe its effects on the landscape and people.
(c) Describe the role of aid agencies in dealing with the consequences of earthquakes.
[END OF SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER]
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6
3
(15)
C208/SQP227
Intermediate 2
Geography
NATIONAL
QUALIFICATIONS
Specimen Marking Instructions
in and after 2005
At this level, for full marks, answers should be in the form of extended writing, unless otherwise
stated. If not in this form normally one mark should be deducted from the total marks available for
the answer. Only use half marks where specifically indicated in marking guidelines.
[C208/SQP227]
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©
SECTION A
Question 1: Physical Environments
(a)
(b)
3 marks
A Grampian Mountains or Cairngorms
(i)
(ii)
(c)
(d)
(e)
3 marks
Corrie:
Meander:
185713
133708
B Lake District/Cumbria
Beach:
Waterfall:
090767
146708
C Snowdonia
4 correct
3 marks
2 or 3 correct 2 marks
1 correct
1 mark
4 marks
For full marks, candidate must make comparative statements and reference must
be made to both river and its valley. Do not credit human features.
In square 1873 the river is in its upper course and is narrow, straight and fast
flowing in a NW/NNW direction. The valley is deep, straight and V-shaped
with extremely steep sides. The river in square 1276 is much wider (1) and
slower (1), is in its lower course (1) and is flowing generally S (1). It has also
formed a large meander (1). The valley in this square is much wider (1) with
gentler slopes (1) and a large flood plain (1).
6 marks (Mark 2/4, 3/3 or 4/2)
Surface features: pavement, swallow hole/pothole, clints/grykes, gorge, eg limestone
pavement-top surface scraped by ice sheets during ice-age (1) exposing bare rock (1).
Acidic rainwater falls on alkaline limestone (1) dissolving the rock (1) and widening
the joints (1).
Underground features: cavern, stalactite/stalagmite/pillar, underground river, eg
stalactite—rainwater containing calcium carbonate (1) drips from the roof of caverns
(1). As it evaporates it leaves behind a small deposit of calcite (1). These deposits
grow downwards over a long period of time forming a stalactite (1).
Note—credit reference to river features.
5 marks (Mark 3:2 or 2:3)
Norfolk Coast—local roads unsuitable for heavy traffic (1). Coastal footpath and
beach erosion caused by large numbers of day trippers (1). Increased pollution from
fuel and sewage on inland waterways (1). Wildlife and vegetation at risk (1).
Peak District/NW Highlands—more walkers cause footpath erosion (1). Increased
traffic in “honeypot” areas (1), narrow roads unsuitable for heavy traffic (1). Farming
activities (eg sheep farming) disrupted by large numbers of visitors (1). Scenery
destroyed by campsites and car parks (1). Measures taken—land protected by SNH or
National Trust (1). Use of countryside rangers/wardens (1) educating the public
about the countryside (1), cordon off eroded areas, renovation of paths, coastal
protection schemes (1).
4 marks
Candidates must explain why two land uses are in conflict with each other, eg
Tourism and Industry—visual impact of factories on scenery (1), increased quarrying
activities cause noise and dust (1) heavy industrial traffic causes delays at peak periods (1).
Reduced numbers of tourists leads to loss of income for local businesses (2).
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Page two
SECTION A
Question 2: Human Environments
(a)
4 marks
Mountainous areas are less likely to support a population due to poor soils for farming (1),
poor communications due to steepness of land (1) and remoteness (1).
Flatter land tends to be more fertile (1), easier to build and farm on (1) and so is
attractive to people (1).
Higher land and higher latitudes tend to be very cold (1) and unable to support much
life (1). Also very expensive to heat homes (1).
Accept reference to any other physical factors.
(b)
5 marks (2:3 or 3:2)
Uniform pyramid (1), gradually tapers inwards 65 and over (1).
Low percentage of young people = 20% (1). Any relevant statistic (1).
Small working age population (1) low birth rate (1) high life expectancy (1).
Large old age dependent population which may cause pressure on resources
(1)—pensions and the building of old folks homes (1).
Fewer young people means fewer people of working age (1) which could lead to a
shortage of workers (1) and a shortage of income for the country (1).
Any other valid point.
(c)
6 marks (Mark 2:3, 3:3 or 3:2)
If no case study city referred to, mark out of 5.
If reference to Developed city, mark out of 5.
Cities grow rapidly due to large numbers of people migrating in to them (1) in search
of a better quality of life (1)—entertainments, education, better paid jobs (1).
Industry may be expanding attracting more people into the area (1). Problems might
include a shortage of affordable housing (1) and the establishment of “shanty towns”
as a result (1). Visual as well as water and soil pollution would result (1) as there
would be no sewage facilities (1). Rapid industrial growth might lead to pollution
from factories (1) and a loss of farmland/countryside (1).
(or any other valid point).
(d)
5 marks (Mark 3:2 or 2:3)
Bunds to hold soil and water in at right level for rice growth (1). Low technology (1)
—man and cattle for ploughing (1), fields are small (1) and people too poor (1).
Terraced to allow maximum use of steep slopes. Rice seedlings transplanted from
nursery by hand (1)—labour intensive but low cost (1). Explanation may include
reference to Green Revolution (1). Increased use of machinery due to amalgamation (1).
(or any other relevant point from study area).
(e)
5 marks (Max 1 mark for grid refs)
Water supply for making paper (1)
Road network—good access for transporting timber (1) in and paper out (1)
Railway line for easy transport of finished product (1)
Pier for transporting by boat (1)
Forestry—timber supplies/raw materials (1)
Fort William close by for a labour supply (1)
Flat land for building on (1)
[C208/SQP227]
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Page three
SECTION B
Question 3: Rural Land Degradation
(a)
3 marks
In order to gain full marks the candidate must write about temperature and
precipitation.
Temperature: minimum temperature 25 °C in Jan, Feb and December (1).
Maximum temperature 29 °C in May (1).
Temperature range = 4 °C
Temperature generally high all year round with several fluctuations (1).
Precipitation: maximum precipitation in September 350 mm (1), minimum in May
150 mm (1), rainfall all year (1).
(b)
4 marks
Answers could include: land is needed for settlement (1), land is used for ranching (1),
rainforest is cut down in order to improve infrastructure (1), land is used for mining (1),
many ELDCs have debt problems therefore cut down rainforest in order to raise
money to pay off debts (1), use money to raise the standard of living (1).
(c)
4 marks
Answers could include: as desertification increases this results in less grazing land for
animals, especially those at the areas closest to the spread of the desert (1) and this
could result in a decline in the number of herds and hence a lack of food (1).
Waterholes dry up which means that a valuable source of water is lost to animals,
which could result in a decline in this source of food (1). As there is less land available
to farmers, overgrazing means that the vegetation has no time to regrow and will in the
long-term mean less food for the animals.
Fertile soil can be eroded which means less soil available for farmers to grow crops
resulting in less food for the expanding population (1). Over cultivation of the land
due to desertification means that the valuable nutrients the soil needs to regenerate
from fallow periods do not occur therefore the soil becomes less fertile and will not be
able to grow as many crops (1).
(d)
4 marks
Education of locals will help them improve their farming technique and thus
hopefully help prevent desertification (1).
Trees become protected in order to prevent desertification due to the loss of roots,
which help to bind the soil together (1).
Plant grass on the sand dunes as the roots will help prevent the sand being blown away
by the wind (1).
Set aside certain areas of land where grazing is not permitted in order to let the land
regenerate and thus prevent desertification (1).
Trees shelter soil from high temperatures and prevent sand moving (1).
Irrigation supplies water to land which helps to bind the soil together (1).
[C208/SQP227]
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Page four
Question 4: River Basin Management
(a)
6 marks (Mark 2:4, 3:3, 4:2)
Vegetation cover will reduce water available for channel through interception and
absorption (2).
Rock type—permeable will reduce water available as more will infiltrate into rock and
become groundwater (2).
Built up areas with a lot of concrete and drainage channels will increase overland flow
and increase the quantity of water into the channel (2). Flooding more likely to occur
particularly if floodplain is built on (1).
(b)
4 marks
Reasons might include: need to produce HEP for industry to help develop industry (1).
Need for water storage throughout the year in areas where rainfall is seasonal (1).
Need for water for increased domestic use (1) or irrigation (1).
(or any other valid point)
(c)
5 marks
If no specific case study referred to, mark out of 4.
Economic Advantages and Disadvantages (Mark 3:2, 2:3)
Advantages: improved farming outputs—surplus for sale (1), HEP—industrial
development creating job opportunities (1), water for industry (1), navigation
opportunities (1).
Disadvantages: huge cost of new schemes (1), dependence on foreign aid/finance in
the case of ELDCs (1)—consequent debts (1).
Environmental Advantages and Disadvantages (Mark 3:2, 2:3)
Advantages: increased fresh water supply improves sanitation (1) and health (1),
scenic improvement (1).
Disadvantages: silting up of reservoirs (1), health may suffer if stagnant water areas
result in mosquito breeding sites (1), flooding of archaeological/historical sites (1).
[C208/SQP227]
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Page five
Question 5: European Environmental Inequalities
(a)
3 marks
On the coast of Spain, SE Turkey, etc, there is a concentration of tourism (1).
Oil refineries are located on the coast of Algeria, Libya and the South of France (1).
Over 300 tankers sail the Mediterranean every day (1).
In North Italy there is an area of intensive faming in the Po valley (1).
Urban/industrial areas South and East of Spain, S France, around the Po River, etc (1).
(b)
4 marks
Causes of pollution might include:
large influx of tourists in summer to coasts increase in sewage (1)
industrial waste from factories near coasts (1)
oil spills from shipping (accidental and deliberate) (1)
densely populated areas along coast—domestic pollution (1)
pollutants from agriculture (1)
oil spills from oil refineries (1)
(c)
5 marks
(i) Answers could relate to any two rivers, one of which could be more polluted than
the other or they could both be polluted but for different reasons.
eg The Rhine—pollution increases from the source of the river in the Swiss
Alps to the mouth in the Netherlands (1), a very long river therefore due to so
many different uses of the river itself or the surrounding land there is more
pollution than other selected rivers (1)—urban pollution—sewage (1), water
pollution from landfill sites (1), waste dumped from industries such as paper
making, brewing (1), thermal pollution from power stations (1).
and then describe and explain the differences compared to another river studied;
eg River Spey—water quality within the River Spey generally very good, main
sources of pollution are domestic (sewage discharge) but much lower than Rhine
due to lack of large urban concentrations (1) and agricultural run-off, again not
as significant due to smaller area (1). Not as much industry in this river
catchment area—no coal mines, etc—distilleries (thirty in the area) can increase
temperature of water by discharge of cooling water into river (1).
3 marks
(ii) The Rhine—EU countries bordering the Rhine formed the International
Commission for the Protection of The Rhine (ICPR)—strict laws to reduce
pollution and treat waste before dumping it (1), laws forcing local authorities to
build more sewage treatment plants and improve their sewers (1), Rhine Action
Programme financed by the countries which the River Rhine flows through—it
pays for officials to check the pollution levels in the River (1).
River Spey—The Scottish Environment Protection Agency (SEPA) is
responsible for making sure Scotland’s water is clean and healthy and meets with
national and European standards (1). Anyone who wants to discharge trade or
sewage effluent into the River Spey must obtain SEPA’s consent (1). This
consent will include conditions to protect the environment, and SEPA will then
measure the discharge to make sure that standards are being met, and take action
in cases where the river is being polluted (1).
EU Freshwater Fisheries Directive—guidelines established to limit rise in
temperature of water from industrial discharge (1).
Control of Pollution regulations to limit farm discharge, etc (1).
[C208/SQP227]
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Page six
Question 6: Development and Health
Note: The answer could refer to either ELDCs or EMDCs
(a)
4 marks
Countries can become more developed if they have a higher living standard (1). This
is likely to be the case if they can spend a lot on education (1) to improve the quality
and level of technology of their industry (1). Countries, which produce a lot of their
own food, do not have to pay to import it from other countries (1) so have more to
spend on developing which will help increase their wealth (1).
A country with a healthy population will produce more (1) as the workforce will spend
less time absent from work (1), or any other relevant points.
(b)
4 marks
Candidates must write about the distribution of both diseases to gain full marks,
otherwise mark out of 3.
Heart disease: mainly in the richer areas of the world (1) such as N America,
Europe, South Africa, etc (1). Answers, which refer to places where the distribution of
heart disease is low, are also acceptable.
Malaria: mainly in the poorer areas of the world (1), mainly between the Tropics (1),
places such as Central America, India, etc (1). Answers, which refer to places where
the distribution of malaria is low, are also acceptable.
4 marks
(i) Malaria: insect breeds in stagnant water (1) reasons may be human, eg bomb
craters in Vietnam (1). Requires high temps (1). Requires human population for
blood meal (1). Prefers shady areas to rest and digest meal (1), poverty and
malnourishment may make people more susceptible (1), lack of health care
facilities/education (1).
AIDS: is caused by a virus and is transmitted through contact with infected
blood (1) or blood products (eg blood transfusions) (1) and through sexual
contact involving the exchange of bodily fluids (1), sharing of needles by
intravenous drug users (1), AIDS can be congenital and congenital transmission
can occur both through the uterus and breast milk (1).
3 marks
For full marks the candidate must write about at least one organisation.
(ii) Malaria: DDT to kill mosquitoes (1), drain breeding sites (1), immunisation
programmes (1), spraying oil on breeding sites (1), egg white on walls (1),
introduce larvae eating fish to padi fields (1), sterilisation of male mosquitoes (1).
WHO—eradication programmes in the 1970s (1), credit references to specific
details of programmes, eg in Sri Lanka the World Health Organisation has taken
over a major role in tackling malaria (1), liaison with the Government to set up
primary health care programmes in all villages (1) so that the population can
receive advice about the disease. Role of aid agencies in promoting primary
health care and details of particular schemes should be credited.
AIDS: blood screening to remove danger of acquiring the virus through
transfusions (1), education campaigns aimed at “safer sex” (1), promotion of
limited sexual contacts (1), disposal of syringes after one use both by drug
addicts and in hospitals (1), screening of high risk groups (1), WHO introducing
the “3 by 5” initiative to provide appropriate medicines to three million people
living with HIV/AIDS by the end of 2005 (1), the main strategy of WHO is
prevention and care (1).
[C208/SQP227] 29
Page seven
(c)
Question 6 (continued)
(d)
4 marks
For full marks the candidate must write about at least one organisation.
(i) Malaria: DDT to kill mosquitoes (1), drain breeding sites (1), immunisation
programmes (1), spraying oil on breeding sites (1), egg white on walls (1),
introduce larvae eating fish to padi fields (1), sterilisation of male mosquitoes (1).
WHO—eradication programmes in the 1970s (1), credit references to specific
details of programmes, eg in Sri Lanka the World Health Organisation has taken
over a major role in tackling malaria (1), liaison with the Government to set up
primary health care programmes in all villages (1) so that the population can
receive advice about the disease. Role of aid agencies in promoting primary
health care and details of particular schemes should be credited, eg The Red Cross.
AIDS: blood screening to remove danger of acquiring the virus through
transfusions (1), education campaigns aimed at “safer sex” (1), promotion of
limited sexual contacts (1), disposal of syringes after one use both by drug
addicts and in hospitals (1), screening of high risk groups (1), WHO introducing
the “3 by 5” initiative to provide appropriate medicines to three million people
living with HIV/Aids by the end of 2005 (1), the main strategy of WHO is
prevention and care (1).
3 marks
(ii) Malaria: initially, attempts to prevent malaria were successful in the 1970s
through the use of DDT and anti-malarial drugs in places such as Sri Lanka and
much of South America. However, malaria returned in the 1980s (1). Many
mosquitoes gradually began to become resistant to various insecticides (1). Lack
of public investment has encouraged the re-advance of the disease (1).
Construction of HEP schemes has encouraged re-infestation of mosquitoes in
many areas which were malaria free (1). Some methods very expensive therefore
not sustainable by certain governments (1). The role of local health services and
Primary Health Care will hopefully help to make a difference as it is on a more
local level (1).
AIDS: few developing countries are able to afford the effective screening
programmes hence infected blood transmission still a high risk (1), many African
hospitals under-funded therefore needles and syringes re-used spreading the
disease (1), use of any drugs which are currently available is very expensive to
developing countries who have other diseases to cope with as well, eg cholera,
malaria, etc, (1), education partially successful but due to under-funding still a
huge problem (1).
[C208/SQP227]
30
Page eight
Question 7: Environmental Hazards
(a)
6 marks (Mark 2+4 or 3+3, ie max 3 marks for description)
Tropical storms occur over oceans (1) and along the coast (1) within the Tropic of
Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn (1). Hurricanes travel northwards from the
Caribbean Sea into North America (1), cyclones occur in the Indian Ocean (1) and
typhoons affect SE Asia and Northern Australia (1). In these areas, intense low
pressure systems form (1) and these suck up warm water from the oceans (1). It is
only here that the water is warm enough (27 °C) for this to happen (1). The moist air
is blown towards the land by the prevailing winds (1) producing strong winds and
rain (1).
(b)
6 marks (Mark 2/4, 3/3 or 4/2. For full marks, an example must be mentioned,
otherwise mark out of 5.)
(i) Candidates should mention movement of continental plates (1) caused by
extreme heat and pressure below the earth’s surface (1). Friction causes molten
magma to force its way to the surface (1) creating a volcanic eruption (1).
Sudden shifts in the plates release energy (1) creating earthquakes near the plate
boundaries (1).
(ii) Earthquakes cause buildings to collapse (1), fracture gas, water and sewage
pipes (1), create fires (1) and cause widespread homelessness (1) along with
injury and death amongst the population (1). Bridges, roads and railways may be
destroyed in stronger earthquakes (1). Volcanoes produce large amounts of lava
or ash which can destroy settlements (1) and ruin farmland (1). Vegetation can
be destroyed and land left infertile (1). Often large numbers of people have to be
evacuated (1). In some cases, the volcanic ash can make the land more fertile
increasing crop production (1).
(c)
3 marks
Candidates can mention short and/or long term aid. Emergency aid can be provided
by richer nations, eg USA or UK (1) in the form of food supplies, blankets and tents
(1). Voluntary agencies such as the International Red Cross (1) provide medicine and
first aid (1). Military forces provide helicopter airlifts (1) and assistance with rescuing
victims from the rubble (1). Other forms of aid include heavy lifting equipment (1)
sniffer dogs and thermal imaging teams (1). Long term aid may be provided by the
UN (1) to rebuild the infrastructure (1).
[END OF SPECIMEN MARKING INSTRUCTIONS]
[C208/SQP227]
31
Page nine
[C208/SQP227] 32
3b
1c, 2a/c, 3b
2a/c
1d
1d
3a/b
1c
1d, 3a
1c, 3a/b
2d
2e
3a
3b
3c
3d
4a
4b
4c
3e/f
3b/d
1c, 3b
2a/c, 3c
1c, 3c
(ii)
1c
3a
2c
1e
2a
2b
1c
1d (i)
1b, 2a/b
1a
1a, 2a
1a
1b (i)
(ii)
Outcome
Question
ANALYSIS GRID
Intermediate 2
Location of landscapes (1)
Identify features (2.1)
(OS Map)
Compare features (valleys) (2.4)
(OS Map)
Explanation of formation of features (upland limestone) (2.2)
Conflict — environmental problems (3.6)
(tourism)
Management strategies (6)
Describe/explain land use conflicts (5)
Explain world population distribution (1.1)
Describe population change (2.5)
explain consequences
Describe city growth (3.4)
explain environmental consequences
Explain rural landscape (4.1)
(peasant farming)
Explain industrial land use (5.2)
(OS Map)
Analyse climate graph (1)
ERF
Explain reasons for deforestation (3)
Explain effects of desertification (4)
Explain solutions to desertification (5)
Describe environmental impact (2)
channel run-off — river basin characteristics
Water control project — reasons (2)
(case study)
Water control project — economic (5)
environmental advantages/disadvantages
Topic ((including number & bullet point in Unit specification
5
4
6
4
4
4
3
5
5
6
4
4
5
5
6
4
3
3
Marks
Total 15
Total 15
Total 25
Total 25
[C208/SQP227] 33
3a
7c
Describe disease control methods (6)
(case study ELDC)
Evaluate effectiveness of control strategies (7)
(case study)
Describe and explain distribution of tropical storms (2)
Describe causes of earthquake/volcano and its impact (3)
(case study)
Describe strategies for dealing with effects of hazard (4.3 4.4)
Describe pattern of pollution (1.3)
Mediterranean Sea area
Explain pattern of pollution (2.4)
Describe and explain differences in environmental quality (3)
(river case study)
Describe national strategies to maintain environmental quality (4)
Explain levels of development (1.3)
Describe distribution of disease (3)
Explain causes of diseases (3)
(case study)
Describe methods of control (6)
Topic
The outcomes covered in questions 1 and 2 are different from those covered in Questions 3 to 7.
Some questions cover more than one outcome.
1a/b, 2a
1b/c
7a
7b
6d (i)
3b
3a
1b
1a, 2a
1b
5d
6a
6b
6c (i)
(ii)
1b
1a/b
5b
5c
3a
OR
3a
2a/c
5a
(ii)
Outcome
Question
Intermediate 2 (continued)
3
6
6
3
4
3
3
4
4
4
4
5
3
Marks
Total 15
Total 15
Total 15