Review Questions - Sutton High School

Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________
ID: A
CP FInal Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
MAIN IDEAS
____
1. In the charter colonies, most governmental matters were handled by
a. the British monarch.
c. a proprietor.
b. Parliament.
d. the colonists.
____
2. Which idea is NOT included in the Declaration of Independence?
a. People have certain natural rights.
b. God gives certain people the right to govern.
c. Government can exist only with the people's permission.
d. The people may change or abolish the government.
____
3. All of the following influenced the Framers in developing the Constitution EXCEPT
a. State constitutions.
b. John Locke's Two Treatises of Government.
c. Virginia's royal charter.
d. British tradition.
____
4. Which colony was founded mainly as a place for personal and religious freedom?
a. Virginia
c. Massachusetts
b. Georgia
d. New York
____
5. Which feature did the State constitutions and the Articles of Confederation have in common?
a. royal governors
b. bill of rights
c. principle of popular sovereignty
d. a strong executive elected by popular vote
____
6. Which of these State constitutions is the oldest and still in force today?
a. Massachusetts
c. New Hampshire
b. South Carolina
d. Virginia
____
7. After the Revolutionary War, the National Government
a. proved too weak to deal with growing economic and political problems.
b. refused to repay the war debt it owed to the States.
c. permitted the States to make agreements with foreign governments.
d. began imposing harsh tax policies on property owners and merchants.
____
8. In Benjamin Franklin's opinion, the final Constitution created by the delegates can best be summarized as
a. absolutely perfect.
b. as near perfect as possible.
c. showing errors of opinion and self-interest.
d. as full of imperfections as those who assembled it.
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Name: ________________________
____
ID: A
9. A major objective of both the Annapolis Convention and the Philadelphia Convention was to
a. determine how the States should be represented in Congress.
b. recommend a federal plan for regulating interstate trade.
c. raise an army for quelling incidents like Shay's Rebellion.
d. limit the growing power of the National Government.
____ 10. The government set up by the Articles of Confederation had
a. no legislative or judicial branch.
b. only a legislative and an executive branch.
c. only a legislative branch, consisting of a unicameral Congress.
d. only a legislative branch, consisting of a bicameral Congress.
____ 11. Which was an achievement of the Second Continental Congress?
a. preparing a Declaration of Rights
b. raising an American army
c. establishing a strong central government
d. passing the Intolerable Acts
____ 12. The Federalist was written to
a. win support for the Constitution in New York.
b. expose the lack of civil liberties protected in the Constitution.
c. urge ratification of the Constitution in Virginia.
d. condemn the Constitution for the absence of any mention of God.
____ 13. At the Philadelphia Convention, the delegates agreed to
a. make minor revisions to the Articles of Confederation.
b. open their sessions to the public.
c. pass proposals by unanimous vote only.
d. draft a new constitution.
____ 14. Delegates met at Mount Vernon and Annapolis to
a. recommend a federal plan for regulating commerce.
b. recommend a way to start a national army.
c. recommend ways to end slavery.
d. attend a social gathering in honor of George Washington.
____ 15. The first State constitutions, adopted after independence,
a. placed most authority with the State governors.
b. provided for lengthy terms for elective offices.
c. placed most authority with the State legislatures.
d. extended voting rights to all adult State residents.
____ 16. The Second Continental Congress was similar to the first in the
a. composition of its members.
c. borrowing of money.
b. creation of a monetary system.
d. raising of an army.
____ 17. Much of the Declaration of Independence consists of
a. statements of the desire to separate from England.
b. lists of the rights of all people.
c. complaints of the wrongs done to the colonists.
d. threats of revenge for English mistreatment.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 18. Benjamin Franklin's attitude toward the new constitution may be summarized as a combination of
a. despair and hope.
c. relief and anger.
b. astonishment and optimism.
d. fatigue and thankfulness.
____ 19. Which best describes the event leading to the inauguration of the first President of the United States of
America?
a. The people elected the President and Vice President.
b. The people elected the President and electors selected the Vice President.
c. The States selected electors who voted to elect the President and Vice President.
d. Congress elected the President and Vice President.
____ 20. Much of the work of the Framers centered around the proposals that had been set out in
a. the Virginia Plan.
c. The Federalist.
b. the New Jersey Plan.
d. the Declaration of Independence.
____ 21. The success of which plan led to the Constitutional Convention of 1787?
a. Albany Plan of Union
b. Second Continental Congress's "plan of confederation"
c. interstate plan for regulating trade between Virginia and Maryland
d. compromise reached between the Virginia and New Jersey plans
____ 22. The idea that the people have the right to abolish an abusive and unresponsive government was FIRST
formally expressed by Americans in the
a. Constitution.
c. Declaration of Rights.
b. Petition of Right.
d. Declaration of Independence.
____ 23. With the words, "We the People," the Constitution establishes its authority on the basis of
a. popular sovereignty.
c. the separation of powers.
b. the rule of law.
d. limited government.
____ 24. Which statement about the Bill of Rights is NOT true?
a. The amendments arose from the controversy over ratification of the Constitution.
b. The amendments were ratified at the same time as the Constitution.
c. The amendments guarantee such basis rights as freedom of expression and fair and equal
treatment before the law.
d. The amendments are the first ten of the Constitution.
____ 25. The informal amendment process
a. involves changing the written words of the Constitution.
b. has been used very little in the past 200 years.
c. can occur only with the approval of the States.
d. results from the daily experiences of government.
____ 26. The President's Cabinet is an example of informal amendment by
a. unwritten custom.
c. State action.
b. court decision.
d. basic legislation.
____ 27. In most cases involving judicial review, the courts have
a. had their decisions overturned by Congress.
b. found the governmental actions in question to be unconstitutional.
c. found the governmental actions in question to be constitutional.
d. had their decisions vetoed by the President.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 28. Which of the following best describes the concept of limited government?
a. Powers are divided among three independent branches of government.
b. All political power belongs to the people.
c. Government must operate within certain bounds set by the people.
d. The people must behave according to rules set by the government.
____ 29. Which of the following is a method of formal amendment?
a. proposal by three-fourths of the House of Representatives and ratification by conventions
in three-fourths of State legislatures
b. proposal by two-thirds of the Senate and ratification by two-thirds of State legislatures
c. proposal by two-thirds of Congress and ratification by three-fourths of State legislatures
d. all of the above
____ 30. Which of the following informal amendments was a result of party practices?
a. the use of the electoral college as a "rubber stamp" for the popular vote
b. the revised structure of the federal court system
c. executive agreement
d. the practice of senatorial courtesy
____ 31. The basic constitutional rights of the people were FIRST set out in the
a. 13th, 14th, and 15th amendments.
b. 10th Amendment.
c. Bill of Rights.
d. Equal Rights Amendment.
____ 32. Which of the following is NOT true of the use of executive agreement?
a. It extends the President's power through the informal amendment process.
b. It carries the same legal force as a treaty.
c. It can be used to avoid the lengthy treaty-making process.
d. It is among the executive powers listed in Article II of the Constitution.
____ 33. The legislative branch can check the judicial branch by its power to
a. name federal judges.
b. remove judges through impeachment.
c. declare executive actions unconstitutional.
d. override a presidential veto.
____ 34. Which of the following is the subject of a constitutional amendment?
a. the prohibition of alcohol
b. repeal of a previous amendment
c. presidential term limits
d. all of the above
____ 35. The Judiciary Act of 1789 was an example of
a. a formal amendment to the Constitution.
b. Congress informally amending the Constitution.
c. an executive agreement.
d. an informal amendment by court decision.
____ 36. The President's power to veto an act of Congress is an example of
a. executive agreement.
c. checks and balances.
b. judicial review.
d. limited government.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 37. Which of the following accounts for the ability of the Constitution to endure for more than 200 years?
a. built-in provisions for accommodating change
b. detailed provisions that anticipated changing customs
c. very specific language that limits reinterpretation
d. inflexible provisions designed to resist change
____ 38. According to Article V of the Constitution, no amendment may
a. deprive a State of its equal representation in the Senate.
b. abolish the protections guaranteed in the Bill of Rights.
c. deny people the right to vote because of race, color, or gender.
d. reestablish slavery or other forms of involuntary servitude.
____ 39. The Bill of Rights guarantees all of the following EXCEPT
a. fair treatment before the law.
c. freedom of expression.
b. the right of women to vote.
d. freedom of belief.
____ 40. Which of the following is mentioned by the Constitution and its amendments?
a. succession of Vice President to presidency
b. political parties
c. custom of senatorial courtesy
d. the President's Cabinet
____ 41. Which of the following is NOT an example of the checks and balances system?
a. The President makes an executive agreement.
b. The Supreme Court declares a law passed by Congress to be unconstitutional.
c. The President vetoes a bill.
d. The Senate approves the President's nominee for Supreme Court justice.
____ 42. When there is a separation of powers,
a. power is divided between the National Government and the States.
b. power is distributed among three independent branches of government.
c. the people grant the States the authority to govern.
d. the basic powers of government are held by a single agency.
____ 43. Which of the following is NOT true of the Constitution?
a. It sets guidelines within which the government must operate.
b. It is open to interpretation.
c. It has not been changed in 50 years.
d. It is the highest form of law in the United States.
____ 44. Congress can informally amend the Constitution by
a. passing basic legislation.
b. adding meaning to skeletal portions of the Constitution.
c. simply exercising many of its powers.
d. all of the above.
____ 45. One criticism of the formal amendment process is that
a. the Framers did not intend for the words of the Constitution to be changed.
b. the process is too short and, therefore, too many amendments are approved.
c. the judicial branch cannot propose an amendment.
d. State legislatures, rather than convention delegates elected by the people, often ratify
amendments.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 46. Which of the following was formally amended to the Constitution?
a. equality of rights for women
c. prohibition of child labor
b. prohibition of alcoholic beverages
d. balanced federal budget
____ 47. Which of the following amendments was ratified FIRST?
a. the amendment lowering the voting age to 18
b. the amendment ending slavery
c. the amendment guaranteeing freedom of speech
d. the amendment allowing Congress to tax incomes
____ 48. The lawmaking function of Congress is central to democracy because
a. it enables elected representatives to do the daily work of government.
b. legislative powers are necessary to check the power of the President.
c. it frees members of Congress from the pressures of public opinion.
d. it is the means by which the public will becomes public policy.
____ 49. Which qualification for House members is NOT in the Constitution?
a. must be at least 25 years old
b. must have been a citizen for at least seven years
c. must live in the district being represented
d. must live in the State from which chosen
____ 50. Which statement about the Senate is true?
a. It has two members from each State.
b. Its members are chosen by State legislatures.
c. Each member represents one congressional district.
d. Seats are apportioned among the States according to their populations.
____ 51. Which fact disqualifies a person from representing Utah in the Senate?
a. The candidate was born in Guatemala.
b. The candidate is 43 years old.
c. The candidate lives in Utah but works in Idaho.
d. The candidate has been a citizen for eight years.
____ 52. The fact that all congressional districts in a State must have about the same number of people so that one
person's vote is equal to another's, is due to the
a. Reapportionment Act of 1929.
c. 17th Amendment.
b. Wesberry v. Sanders ruling.
d. Census Bureau.
____ 53. Compensation for senators is
a. set by the Constitution.
b. higher than for representatives.
c.
d.
set by the President.
the same as for representatives.
____ 54. In Congress, screening bills for floor consideration is a major duty of
a. committee members.
c. constituent representatives.
b. constituent servants.
d. politicians.
____ 55. The number of Senate seats held by each State is
a. set by the Census Bureau.
b. based on State populations.
c. the same as the number of House seats.
d. fixed by the Constitution.
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Name: ________________________
____ 56. Few members of Congress today
a. are minorities.
b. have college degrees.
ID: A
c.
d.
are white males.
are married.
____ 57. Members of Congress fill all of the following roles EXCEPT that of
a. legislator.
c. Cabinet member.
b. committee member.
d. servant to constituents.
____ 58. Which of the following is true of the House of Representatives?
a. It currently has 100 members.
b. The total number of seats in the House is fixed by the Constitution.
c. The number of terms a representative may serve is fixed by the Constitution.
d. Every State is represented by at least one member.
____ 59. Which group has generally used its power to gerrymander congressional districts?
a. the House of Representatives
c. State legislatures
b. Congress
d. the Census Bureau
____ 60. Which of the following is an informal qualification for the House of Representatives?
a. must be at least 25 years old
b. must have been a citizen of the United States for at least seven years
c. must be an inhabitant of the State from which he or she is elected
d. must currently reside in the district he or she represents
____ 61. On the average, which group of people occupy the majority of seats in Congress?
a. African Americans
c. women
b. white, middle aged men
d. Asian Americans
____ 62. When must congressional elections be held?
a. the first Tuesday of every November.
b. the second day of January in odd years.
c. the Tuesday after the first Monday in November of each even-numbered year.
d. the Monday after the first Tuesday in November of each odd-numbered year.
____ 63. Senators are elected to serve
a. two-year terms.
b. three-year terms.
c.
d.
four-year terms.
six-year terms.
____ 64. Which of the following is a qualification for senators?
a. must have been born in the State from which elected
b. must have a degree in law
c. must have been a citizen for at least nine years
d. must be at least 40 years old
____ 65. Why does the Constitution guarantee that the courts may not prosecute members of Congress for what they
say in the House or Senate in relation to congressional business?
a. Members never criticize one another.
b. Freedom of speech is a vital part of legislative debate.
c. The courts have no jurisdiction in Washington, D.C.
d. Members have the same privileges in their districts.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 66. All of the following are differences between the House of Representatives and the Senate EXCEPT
a. size of the membership.
c. method of election.
b. length of term.
d. size of constituency.
____ 67. Supreme Court rulings have been key to broadening the scope of which expressed power?
a. the postal power
c. the commerce power
b. the power to tax
d. eminent domain
____ 68. The powers of Congress are affected by all of the following EXCEPT what the
a. Constitution expressly says Congress may do.
b. Constitution says only the States may do.
c. States’ constitutions say Congress may do.
d. Constitution is silent about.
____ 69. In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court
a. ruled the doctrine of implied powers to be unconstitutional.
b. upheld the doctrine of implied powers.
c. upheld the right of the State of Maryland to tax a federal agency.
d. ruled the creation of a bank by Congress to be unconstitutional.
____ 70. The level of the nation's debt
a. is limited by the Constitution.
b. is always limited by Congress.
c. is not limited by any government agency.
d. may not exceed $10 billion.
____ 71. Since 1789, the expansion of power of the National Government has been caused by all of the following
EXCEPT
a. strict construction of the Constitution.
b. liberal construction of the Constitution.
c. technological advances.
d. economic crises.
____ 72. For what purpose does the Constitution give Congress the power to regulate bankruptcy?
a. to finance projects that current revenues cannot cover
b. to establish uniform procedures for dealing with insolvent debtors
c. to coin money and regulate its value
d. to act on matters affecting the nation's security
____ 73. According to the Constitution, who has the sole power to impeach the President?
a. The House of Representatives
c. the Supreme Court
b. the Vice President
d. State courts
____ 74. Which of the following nonlegislative powers may be exercised solely by the Senate?
a. the power to propose constitutional amendments
b. the power to elect a President if the electoral college fails to do so
c. the power to approve or reject major presidential appointments
d. the power to investigate the activities of public officials
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 75. Which of the following is an example of the investigatory powers of Congress?
a. accepting a treaty made by the President
b. the power to regulate commerce with foreign nations
c. the power to lay and collect taxes
d. gathering information useful in making legislative decisions
____ 76. All the following expressed powers belong to Congress EXCEPT
a. the power to declare war.
c. the power to naturalize citizens.
b. the power to tax exports.
d. the power to raise an army.
____ 77. Under the Constitution, Congress has the sole power to
a. act as the commander in chief.
c. declare war.
b. meet with foreign leaders.
d. none of the above.
____ 78. All treaties must be approved by a two-thirds vote of
a. the Senate.
c. both houses of Congress.
b. the House.
d. the Supreme Court.
____ 79. Which of the following powers could Congress use to help protect American car makers from foreign
competition?
a. the currency power
c. the power to borrow
b. the power of eminent domain
d. the power to tax
____ 80. Why did the Framers include the Necessary and Proper Clause in the Constitution?
a. to empower Congress to pass laws needed to carry out the expressed powers
b. to limit congressional powers to those expressly stated in the Constitution
c. to define the scope of the inherent powers of Congress
d. to set forth those powers considered necessary to the States
____ 81. All the following are implied powers of Congress EXCEPT the power to
a. set maximum work hours.
c. fund education programs.
b. restrict arms sales.
d. censor radio and TV programs.
____ 82. Who has the power to propose Constitutional amendments?
a. the President
c. Congress
b. the Supreme Court
d. State courts
____ 83. In order to bring charges against the President or Vice President for misconduct in office, the House of
Representatives is given
a. executive powers.
c. the power to convict.
b. the power to impeach.
d. electoral duties.
____ 84. The Commerce Clause entitles Congress to
a. tax Minnesota's wheat exports to Russia.
b. regulate airline routes in New England.
c. require Texas oil tankers to dock and pay duties in Louisiana.
d. give San Francisco the exclusive right to receive cargo ships from Japan.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 85. The implied powers doctrine, upheld in McCulloch v. Maryland, gives Congress the power to do
a. only what the Supreme Court authorizes it to do.
b. only what is absolutely necessary to carry out the expressed powers.
c. anything reasonably related to carrying out the expressed powers.
d. anything it decides is in the public interest.
____ 86. Congress is given investigatory powers in order to
a. examine matters related to its lawmaking powers.
b. bring criminal charges against constituents.
c. bring criminal charges against the President.
d. establish a national public school system.
____ 87. In case the President is disabled, the way the Vice President becomes President is determined by the
a. original Constitution.
c. Twenty-Fifth Amendment.
b. Presidential Succession Act.
d. Congress.
____ 88. According to the Constitution, the President must
a. be a man who owns property.
b. be at least 35 years of age.
c. have held one major public office.
d. have lived in the U. S. for at least 20 years.
____ 89. As of January 20, 2001, the President receives a yearly salary of
a. $50,000.
c. $400,000.
b. $99,500.
d. $900,000.
____ 90. The electoral system broke down in the election of 1800 because of the
a. rise of political parties.
b. 12th Amendment.
c. use of the national convention as a nominating device.
d. appearance of a presidential primary.
____ 91. If an incumbent President is seeking another term in office, who will his party likely nominate?
a. the Vice President
c. the Speaker of the House
b. the President
d. the House majority leader
____ 92. A State's presidential electors are chosen by
a. the State legislature.
b. its members in Congress.
c.
d.
popular vote.
a State convention.
____ 93. A President can serve no more than ____ years in office.
a. 8
c. 10
b. 4
d. 12
____ 94. The President may decide to resume duties after an illness by informing Congress that no inability exists, but
that decision can be challenged by
a. Congress.
b. the Vice President.
c. the Vice President and a majority of the Cabinet.
d. any representative in the House of Representatives.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 95. Most presidential caucuses differ from Statewide presidential primaries in all of the following ways EXCEPT
the
a. number of States that hold caucuses.
b. ways in which delegates to the national convention are chosen.
c. main purpose for which the delegates are chosen.
d. number of steps taken in choosing delegates to the national convention.
____ 96. The national convention is held to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT
a. unify the party behind its candidates.
b. pick its presidential candidate.
c. select the party's delegates.
d. adopt the party's platform.
____ 97. The least number of presidential electors a State can have is
a. one.
c. three.
b. two.
d. four.
____ 98. Which of the following statements is NOT an argument against the electoral college system?
a. A candidate who loses the popular vote may still be elected President.
b. An elector may vote for someone other than the voter-selected candidate.
c. A strong third-party effort might throw the election into the House.
d. The results depend upon how State congressional districts are drawn.
____ 99. The order of succession to the presidency after the Vice President is determined by the
a. original Constitution.
c. Presidential Succession Act.
b. force of tradition.
d. 25th Amendment.
____ 100. Which of the following is a way that presidential disability is determined?
a. The Vice President and a majority of the Cabinet inform Congress in writing.
b. The Senate states, in writing, that the President is incapacitated.
c. The President gives a speech explaining who will take over.
d. Congress asks the Vice President to evaluate the President's condition.
____ 101. A formal duty assigned to the Vice President by the Constitution is to
a. call Cabinet meetings.
c. preside over the House.
b. choose the secretary of state.
d. preside over the Senate.
____ 102. A presidential primary can be
a. a process to select delegates to the convention.
b. an election to determine voters' choice among candidates.
c. both of the above.
d. none of the above.
____ 103. The first session of the national convention is generally devoted to
a. voting for candidates.
c. drafting the platform.
b. giving speeches.
d. reporting information.
____ 104. The first and most widely publicized caucus today is held in the State of
a. California.
c. New Hampshire
b. New Jersey.
d. Iowa
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 105. The most widely supported plan for reform of the electoral college is the
a. district plan.
c. direct popular election plan.
b. proportional plan.
d. national bonus plan.
____ 106. All of the following are characteristics that usually determine who is nominated for President EXCEPT
a. incumbency.
c. married.
b. Protestant faith.
d. from a key larger State.
____ 107. Which of the following is NOT a formal qualification for the presidency?
a. must be at least 35 years old
b. must be a "natural born Citizen" of the United States
c. must have extensive prior political experience
d. must have lived in the United States for at least 14 years
____ 108. One of the major flaws in the electoral college system is that
a. the winner of the popular vote is not guaranteed the presidency.
b. the incumbent President is usually reelected.
c. the majority party in Congress has an advantage when the electorate votes.
d. electors are required to vote according to the wishes of their constituency.
____ 109. The Framers of the Constitution called for the President to be elected by
a. Congress.
c. a body of electors.
b. a direct vote of the people.
d. the State legislatures.
____ 110. The major importance of the 12th Amendment is that it
a. did away with the electoral college system.
b. eliminated the possibility of a tie for the presidency.
c. required electors to pledge to vote for their party's chosen candidate.
d. made electors' votes automatic.
____ 111. Most of the sessions at the national convention are spent
a. listening to the keynote address.
b. electing the convention's committee members.
c. selecting the party's presidential candidate.
d. listening to party speeches and reports.
____ 112. Which of the following statements is NOT an argument for direct popular election of the President?
a. The winner would always be the majority choice.
b. Direct popular election would be a simple, easily understood process.
c. The small States would gain an advantage in a direct election plan.
d. Each vote would count equally in the national result.
____ 113. The main argument in favor of limiting the President to a single 6-year term is that it would
a. limit the unprecedented power of the President.
b. permit more qualified people to serve as President.
c. free the President from the demands of a second-term campaign.
d. keep the President from being a "lame duck" in the second term.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 114. All of the following statements about the Court of Federal Claims are true EXCEPT:
a. Congress almost always appropriates money to satisfy upheld claims.
b. Decisions from the Court of Federal Claims cannot be appealed.
c. The Court of Federal Claims hears trials involving claims for damages against the Federal
Government.
d. Judges for the Court of Federal Claims are appointed by the President and approved by
the Senate.
____ 115. Which of the following federal courts exercises both original and appellate jurisdiction?
a. the Supreme Court
b. court of appeals
c. district court
d. the Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit
____ 116. Which of the following statements about federal judges is TRUE?
a. They must have had previous service as State court judges or attorneys.
b. They serve a fixed term of office, set by Congress.
c. They are appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate.
d. All of the above are true.
____ 117. Which federal court has original jurisdiction over MOST cases heard in federal court?
a. district court
b. court of appeals
c. the Supreme Court
d. the Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit
____ 118. Most importantly, the Supreme Court is called the High Court because it is the
a. best court in the country.
b. only court established by the Constitution.
c. first court in which most of the important federal cases are heard.
d. last court in which federal questions can be decided.
____ 119. The Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit differs from the other 12 federal courts of appeals because it
a. does not hear appeals from regulatory agencies.
b. can have original jurisdiction over federal cases.
c. hears cases from across the country.
d. only hears appeals from the Supreme Court.
____ 120. The purposes of the 12 federal courts of appeals include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. to relieve the work load of the Supreme Court.
b. to hear appeals from the district courts.
c. to consider cases from several regulatory agencies.
d. to hear original cases that have bypassed lower courts.
____ 121. The term of office for constitutional court judges is determined by
a. the Constitution.
c. the Department of Justice.
b. Congress.
d. the President.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 122. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by a United States magistrate?
a. issuing arrest warrants
b. setting bail
c. trying some cases concerning minor offenses
d. recording court proceedings
____ 123. The United States Tax Court hears
a. criminal cases.
b. civil cases.
c. no cases generated by the Internal Revenue Service.
d. all of the above.
____ 124. The Supreme Court's decision in Marbury v. Madison
a. enabled William Marbury to become a justice of the peace.
b. stripped the President of his power to appoint federal judges.
c. established the Court's power of judicial review.
d. none of the above.
____ 125. Legal cases in the District of Columbia and the territories that belong to the United States are settled in:
a. the courts of the State nearest the district or territory.
b. a separate system of courts for each territory and each district like those at the State and
federal levels.
c. a system of local courts like those in a city or town.
d. a system based on mediation and arbitration rather than legal confrontation.
____ 126. Which statement about differences between constitutional courts and special courts is TRUE?
a. Constitutional courts do not exercise broad judicial power.
b. Only constitutional courts hear cases arising out of expressed congressional powers.
c. Special courts have special powers granted under Article III.
d. Special courts hear a much narrower range of cases.
____ 127. A federal court has jurisdiction over a case if
a. a citizen of one State is suing a citizen from another State.
b. a State is suing a resident of another State.
c. a State is suing another State.
d. all of the above.
____ 128. The MOST IMPORTANT reason why the United States needed a national court system was that
a. laws in the Constitution are not clearly stated.
b. Congress had too much power to interpret laws.
c. people were ignoring the decisions of the State courts.
d. each State was interpreting laws for itself.
____ 129. Jurisdiction DIRECTLY limits
a. when a case may be heard.
b. which court may decide a case.
c. how many witnesses may be called by the defendant.
d. the number of times a case may be appealed.
14
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 130. Chief Justice Charles Evans Hughes once said that the Constitution "means what the judges say it means." He
was defining the Supreme Court's
a. original jurisdiction.
c. exclusive jurisdiction.
b. power of judicial review.
d. right to use the writ of certiorari.
____ 131. Which of the following are all special courts?
a. Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces, Court of Federal Claims, U.S. Tax Court
b. U.S. Tax Court, Court of International Trade, Court of Federal Claims
c. Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces, Court of Appeals for Veterans Claims, Court of
Appeals for the Federal Circuit
d. Court of Federal Claims, U.S. Tax Court, Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit
____ 132. Judges of the constitutional courts are appointed
a. for terms varying from four to eight years.
b. for 12-year terms.
c. for 15-year terms.
d. for life
____ 133. The courts of appeals hear cases that have been appealed from
a. the district courts.
b. the U.S. Tax Court.
c. the decisions of federal regulatory agencies.
d. all of the above.
____ 134. The power of judicial review is held
a. exclusively by the Supreme Court.
b. only by federal courts.
c. by most federal and State courts.
d. only by courts with appellate jurisdiction.
____ 135. The MOST accurate reason that the Court of International Trade is classified as a constitutional court rather
than a special court is that
a. it exercises the broad "judicial power of the United States."
b. it operates quite differently than special courts, such as the territorial courts or the Court
of Military Appeals.
c. the cases it decides can never reach appeals courts or the Supreme Court.
d. it replaced the Board of United States General Appraisers and the Court of Customs.
____ 136. The independence of the judicial branch is ensured by the
a. manner in which federal judges are chosen.
b. terms federal judges serve.
c. salaries of federal judges.
d. all of the above.
15
Name: ________________________
ID: A
INTERPRETING POLITICAL CARTOONS
Use the cartoon to answer the following questions.
____ 137. What attitude toward the senator does the cartoon seem to convey?
a. approval
c. sympathy
b. disapproval
d. objectivity
____ 138. Which of the following characteristics does NOT describe this senator?
a. He is white, male, and middle-aged.
b. He has access to the media.
c. He is relatively free from concern about his constituents' interests.
d. He considers himself to be the servant of his constituents.
____ 139. Who are the men in the cartoon meant to represent?
a. a senator and a reporter
c. a senator and a representative
b. a senator and a constituent
d. a senator and a pollster
16
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 140. What point is the cartoonist trying to make?
a. Members of Congress feel that most people do not appreciate the difficulties of
law-making.
b. The press is obligated to expose corruption in Congress.
c. Some senators see themselves as privileged and exempt from public opinion.
d. Constituents want favors from members of Congress, not just laws.
INTERPRETING GRAPHS AND POLITICAL CARTOONS
Use the graph and cartoon to answer the following questions.
____ 141. Which of the following expenditures was greater than the expenditure on health?
a. net interest on the national debt
c. administration of justice
b. income security
d. international affairs
____ 142. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the cartoon?
a. It is selfish to expect anything from the government.
b. The government takes, but does not give.
c. The government wants to meet your needs.
d. Paying taxes is an enjoyable experience and brings out the best in people.
____ 143. What message is the cartoon trying to convey?
a. trust for the government
b. the governments is willing to take, but not give
c. paying taxes is the duty of every American
d. expecting help from the government is wrong
17
Name: ________________________
ID: A
INTERPRETING MAPS
Use the map to answer the following questions.
____ 144. The number of electoral votes that Iowa has is
a. five.
c.
b. seven.
d.
nine.
twelve.
____ 145. The States with the largest electoral vote include
a. Pennsylvania and Illinois.
c.
b. Alaska and Hawaii.
d.
Texas and Florida.
California and New York.
____ 146. On this map, the size of each State is determined by
a. the number of its electoral votes.
c. its number of members in the Senate.
b. its population.
d. its actual physical area.
IDENTIFYING KEY TERMS
____ 147. The court that first hears a case is said to have
a. appellate jurisdiction.
c.
b. exclusive jurisdiction.
d.
original jurisdiction.
concurrent jurisdiction.
____ 148. The list of cases to be heard by a court is called a
a. civil case list.
c.
b. certificate.
d.
writ of certiorari.
docket.
____ 149. Which of the following could be the subject of a criminal case tried in federal court?
a. bankruptcy
c. counterfeiting
b. civil rights
d. labor relations
18
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 150. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about a writ of certiorari?
a. Only a defendant can petition for it.
b. Only a plaintiff can petition for it.
c. The Supreme Court must grant cert for all requests.
d. The Supreme Court grants cert in a limited numbers of instances.
____ 151. Which Circuit Court of Appeals has rejected “Same-Sex Marriage” cases consistently, causing the U.S.
Supreme Court to take up the matter in the 2015 session.
a. 1st
c. Federal District
b. 6th
d. 8th
____ 152. Which of the following is NOT part of the 1st Circuit
a. Vermont
c. Puerto Rico
b. Massachusetts
d. New Hampshire
____ 153. If you were an accussed drug smuggler from Peru, and you appealed a case against you in Duluth Minnesota
which Circuit Court would you appeal to...
a. 9th Circuit
c. 3rd Circuit
b. Federal Circuit
d. 8th Circuit
19
ID: A
CP FInal Review
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
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D
2.2.1
B
2.2.4
C
2.4.4
C
2.1.3
C
2.2.5
A
2.3.1
A
2.3.2
B
2.4.5
B
2.3.2
C
2.3.1
B
2.2.3
A
2.5.1
D
2.4.1
A
2.3.2
C
2.2.5
A
2.2.3
C
2.2.4
B
2.4.5
C
2.5.2
A
2.4.2
C
2.3.3
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1
DIF: Average
Charter Colonies
1
DIF: Average
Declaration of Independence
1
DIF: Average
Framers
1
DIF: Average
Royal Colonies
1
DIF: Average
Articles of Confederation
1
DIF: Average
Royal Colonies
1
DIF: Average
First National Government
1
DIF: Average
Framers
1
DIF: Average
Annapolis Convention
1
DIF: Average
Articles of Confederation
1
DIF: Average
Second Contintental Congress
1
DIF: Average
The Federalist Papers
1
DIF: Average
Philadelphia Convention
1
DIF: Average
Annapolis Convention
1
DIF: Average
State Constitutions
1
DIF: Average
Second Contintental Congress
1
DIF: Average
Declaration of Independence
1
DIF: Average
Framers
1
DIF: Average
Presidential Inauguration
1
DIF: Average
Virginia Plan
1
DIF: Average
Virginia Plan
1
REF: 32
REF: 38
REF: 48
REF: 31
REF: 44
REF: 31
REF: 37
REF: 49
REF: 46
REF: 44
REF: 37
REF: 58
REF: 48
REF: 46
REF: 39
REF: 37
REF: 38
REF: 49
REF: 59
REF: 51
REF: 51