TEST NAME: 8th - Final Semester Overview
TEST ID: 1670031
GRADE: 08 - Eighth Grade
SUBJECT: Life and Physical Sciences
TEST CATEGORY: My Classroom
8th - Final Semester Overview
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04/13/17, 8th - Final Semester Overview
Student:
Class:
Date:
Instructions
DUE THE TUESDAY OF THE WEEK WE RETURN FROM SPRING
BREAK!
This will count as 2 test grades (counts 4 times). Make sure to place all of your answers IN PENCIL on the
two-sided Answer Sheet that was provided to you. Please underline or highlight keywords because that is
what will help you get the best answer. You may use your notes and the "Super Awesome Study Guide"
to help you answer any of the questions you do not immediately know. You are also free to email me for
help at [email protected]. I will try to answer your questions in at least 24 hours.
Do your best on this Final Semester Overview and make sure that you are beating your goal. If you beat
your goal you will be given 10 points on your lowest test grade, INCLUDING the lab practical or lab
portfolio!
Many of these questions you may have seen before. These are questions that were frequently missed in other
quizzes you have taken for me or test items that I have deemed very important for knowing on your EOG.
When we do our 2 week EOG review, you will NEED this paper so it is important to have it completed on
Monday as you will be working with this paper again.
Your goals have been written on your answer sheet. Do your best and take your time answering these
questions. Remember, your End of Year Benchmark will be the week you return from Spring Break and
I expect EVERYONE to meet or exceed their projected scores.
Good luck and have a safe and happy Easter and Spring Break!
- Mr. Harper
1. The compound potassium sulfate,
2.
, is composed of
A.
2 atoms of potassium, 1 atom of sulfur, and 4 atoms of oxygen.
B.
2 atoms of potassium, 4 atoms of sulfur, and 4 atoms of oxygen.
C.
two molecules of potassium and one molecule of sulfate.
D.
one molecule of potassium and two molecules of sulfate.
What do bubbles most likely indicate in a chemical reaction?
A.
phase change
B.
gas formation
C.
temperature change
D.
precipitate formation
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3.
4.
5.
6.
The formula for glucose is C6H12O6. How many atoms are present in the
glucose compound?
A.
1
B.
6
C.
12
D.
24
A teacher has 100 g of Reactant X and 150 g of Reactant Y for her class
demonstration. After combining the two reactants, how much product
should she have?
A.
50 g
B.
100 g
C.
150 g
D.
250 g
Which chemical reaction supports the law of conservation of mass?
A.
H2O → H2 + O2
B.
H2O → 2H2 + O2
C.
H2O → H2 + 2O2
D.
2H2O → 2H2 + O2
Which is the correct way to balance the chemical equation shown below?
Al + O2 → Al2O3
A.
2Al + O2 → Al2O3
B.
2Al + 3O2 → Al2O3
C.
4Al + 3O2 → Al2O3
D.
4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3
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7. What is the smallest unit of an element that retains the properties of that element?
8.
9.
10.
11.
A.
electron
B.
molecule
C.
neutron
D.
atom
Which is true of mass during a chemical reaction?
A.
Mass increases.
B.
Mass decreases.
C.
Mass remains the same.
D.
Mass depends on the chemicals involved.
A substance contains two components joined by physical means. Which
best describes the substance?
A.
element
B.
compound
C.
mixture
D.
molecule
Which is a homogeneous mixture?
A.
pizza
B.
vinegar
C.
concrete
D.
woven fabric
Which best describes a compound?
A.
elements that are chemically combined
B.
elements that are physically combined
C.
elements that can be broken down into atoms
D.
elements that cannot be broken down into atoms
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12.
Which best describes an element?
A.
It is the simplest form of matter.
B.
It can be changed into a compound.
C.
It can be broken down into simpler mixtures.
D.
It is composed of more than one type of atom.
13. Which statement best describes the organization of the Periodic Table of the Elements?
14.
15.
16.
A.
All gases are grouped together.
B.
Gases easily form compounds with other elements.
C.
Elements within a group have similar properties.
D.
Elements within a period have the same number of electrons.
Which best describes a substance that changes from a liquid to a solid?
A.
The substance gains mass.
B.
The substance gains volume.
C.
The substance undergoes a physical change.
D.
The substance undergoes a chemical change.
Which best describes Groups 3 (IIIB) through 12 (IIB) of the periodic
table?
A.
alkaline earth metals
B.
transition metals
C.
metalloids
D.
nonmetals
A piece of paper burns, producing heat and light. Which best describes
the process of burning?
A.
Burning is a physical change. The paper mixes with the oxygen in the
air, producing heat and light.
B.
Burning is a chemical change. The paper reacts with the oxygen in the
air, producing heat and light.
C.
Burning is a physical change. The paper changes from a solid to a
gas, producing heat and light.
D.
Burning is a chemical change. The paper breaks down in sunlight,
producing heat and light.
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17.
18.
19.
20.
Where would a new highly reactive metal most likely be placed on the
periodic table?
A.
right side
B.
left side
C.
middle
D.
top
Sodium (Na), lithium (Li), and potassium (K) are grouped together in one
column on the periodic table. Which property do they share?
A.
soft texture
B.
high reactivity
C.
semiconductivity
D.
gas at room temperature
Which best explains the difference between an element and a
compound?
A.
Elements cannot occur naturally, while compounds naturally occur.
B.
Elements have specific properties, while compounds do not have
specific properties.
C.
Elements cannot be broken down, while compounds can because they
join together in a specific pattern.
D.
Elements can be broken down, while compounds cannot because they
are composed of two or more mixtures.
Which best describes the purpose for the bold staircase line on the right
side of the periodic table?
A.
to separate gases from liquids
B.
to separate metals from nonmetals
C.
to separate lanthanides from actinides
D.
to separate transition metals from alkaline earth metals
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21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
Which best describes how the current periodic table is arranged?
A.
by atomic mass
B.
by atomic number
C.
in alphabetical order by element symbol
D.
in numerical order by number of neutrons in the nucleus
Which is the best example of a heterogenous mixture?
A.
sugar
B.
brass
C.
salad
D.
salt water
Which element is in the same family as chlorine (Cl) and fluorine (F)?
A.
hydrogen (H)
B.
lithium (Li)
C.
oxygen (O)
D.
bromine (Br)
Which best describes a row of elements in the periodic table?
A.
column
B.
family
C.
group
D.
period
Which best describes elements that are shiny, malleable, ductile, and
good conductors of heat and electricity?
A.
halogens
B.
metals
C.
metalloids
D.
nonmetals
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26. Which of the following is a renewable resource?
A.
coal
B.
minerals
C.
petroleum
D.
sunlight
27. The burning of fossil fuels has added pollutants that contain sulfur atoms to the air. These
pollutants have contributed to which of the following?
28.
29.
30.
A.
drought
B.
acid rain
C.
tornadoes
D.
temperature inversions
Which best represents a consequence of an oil spill?
A.
Food webs are disrupted.
B.
Tourist visits to the area increase.
C.
Nuclear energy is less readily available.
D.
Inland reservoirs become contaminated.
Which practice should be used with nonrenewable energy resources until
affordable alternate energy options are developed?
A.
depletion
B.
stockpiling
C.
preservation
D.
conservation
Which will most likely negatively impact the environment when coal is
burned for energy?
A.
iron
B.
water
C.
nitrogen
D.
carbon dioxide
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31.
32.
33.
Which energy source would be most affected by the depletion of
uranium?
A.
fossil fuels
B.
wind power
C.
nuclear energy
D.
hydroelectricity
Which energy resource creates the least amount of pollution when used
to generate electricity?
A.
oil
B.
coal
C.
wind
D.
natural gas
Which will most likely occur if fossil fuels continue to be used globally as
the primary energy resource?
A.
The amount of available food will increase.
B.
The amount of pollution in the oceans will decrease.
C.
The amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere will increase.
D.
The amount of health concerns affecting the human population will
decrease.
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34. Students were investigating the advantages and disadvantages of solar power.
According to the information in the chart, which statement describes an advantage of using
fossil fuels over solar power?
35.
36.
A.
Fossil fuel stations require less maintenance than solar panels.
B.
Fossil fuels are less costly to obtain.
C.
Fossil fuels are an abundant renewable resource.
D.
Fossil fuels are available regardless of the weather.
Which is the most likely reason wind energy is not widely used as a
replacement for fossil fuels?
A.
Energy from wind is too expensive to produce.
B.
Wind energy is an indirect form of solar energy.
C.
Producing energy from wind causes too much pollution.
D.
Few places are windy enough to produce sufficient energy.
Which method of energy production is most likely to have a negative
impact upon the environment?
A.
hydroelectric power plant
B.
coal-burning power plant
C.
wind turbine
D.
solar panel
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37.
38.
39.
40.
Why is renewable energy a better alternative to nonrenewable energy?
A.
Renewable energy is less expensive than nonrenewable energy.
B.
Renewable energy is readily available, while nonrenewable energy
supplies are limited.
C.
Renewable energy requires much less equipment maintenance than
nonrenewable energy.
D.
Renewable energy harms the environment, while nonrenewable
energy is environmentally friendly.
Which groundwater contaminant contained in fertilizers and pesticides
comes from farms?
A.
bacteria
B.
mercury
C.
nitrates
D.
sodium
Which substance is used in a sewage treatment system to kill harmful
bacteria?
A.
ammonia
B.
chlorine
C.
sand
D.
soap
Which are the most abundant dissolved gases in ocean water?
A.
nitrogen and carbon dioxide
B.
oxygen and carbon dioxide
C.
oxygen and methane
D.
nitrogen and sulfide
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41.
42.
43.
44.
Deep ocean technology has discovered organisms in hydrothermal vents
that do not rely on sunlight to survive. What do these organisms use as
their energy source?
A.
chemosynthesis
B.
electrical charge
C.
hydropower
D.
thermal heat
How does the use of a pH meter help monitor the hydrosphere?
A.
by indicating whether the water is too acidic or basic
B.
by indicating if there is too much sediment in the water
C.
by indicating whether microorganisms are living in the water
D.
by indicating if there is enough dissolved oxygen in the water
In which way could humans best prevent a nonpoint source of water
pollution in North Carolina?
A.
reduce the application of fertilizer in fields
B.
regulate waste discharge from an industrial factory
C.
monitor the average high temperatures in the area
D.
maintain ships to prevent the likelihood of oil spills
Which best explains why a scientist would use nets to capture and count
organisms in a river?
A.
to measure pH
B.
to measure turbidity
C.
to measure biodiversity
D.
to measure temperature
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45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
Why do large numbers of ocean life-forms live near areas of upwelling?
A.
Upwelling brings nutrients to the surface.
B.
Upwelling brings warm water to the surface.
C.
Upwelling helps push small fish up toward the surface.
D.
Upwelling keeps large predator fish away from the surface.
Which best describes the water in an estuary?
A.
brackish
B.
frozen
C.
fresh
D.
salt
According to scientists, only 1% of the water on Earth is available for
human use. Where is this available water most likely found?
A.
ocean
B.
groundwater
C.
rivers and lakes
D.
glaciers and icecaps
Which best explains why estuaries are an important habitat for many
marine organisms in comparison to the open ocean?
A.
There is less food in estuaries.
B.
There are more predators in estuaries.
C.
There is more salt available in estuaries.
D.
There are more nutrients available in estuaries.
Why is filtration an important part of water treatment?
A.
Filtration guarantees a clear coloring in water.
B.
Filtration removes small particles from the water.
C.
Filtration adds chlorine to water to kill microorganisms.
D.
Filtration adds vitamins and minerals to drinking water.
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50.
51.
52.
53.
Which water quality indicator can be determined by measuring how light
travels through water?
A.
turbidity
B.
temperature
C.
nutrient level
D.
dissolved oxygen
Which human activity has the most negative impact on water quality?
A.
agriculture
B.
flushing toilets
C.
washing clothes
D.
recreational boating
Which would most affect the health of fish in a local pond?
A.
The daily release of hot water into the pond from a local factory.
B.
A storm temporarily stirring up water and sediments in the pond.
C.
The occasional erosion of sediments into the pond from a nearby
field.
D.
A slight increase in the number of people who fish in the pond for
food.
Which statement best compares the amount of water present on Earth
today with the amount present millions of years ago?
A.
There is slightly more water on Earth today.
B.
There is significantly less water on Earth today.
C.
There is significantly more water on Earth today.
D.
There is about the same amount of water on Earth today.
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54.
55.
56.
After analyzing data collected from a pond, there is a significant
decrease in dissolved oxygen. Which most likely caused the decline?
A.
an increase in minerals
B.
an increase in sediment
C.
an increase in algae growth
D.
an decrease in fish population
Which best explains why so little of the water on Earth is available for
human use?
A.
97% of total water on Earth is freshwater, and most of the remaining
3% is salt water in the ocean basins.
B.
97% of total water on Earth is salt water, and most of the remaining
3% is freshwater frozen in ice caps and glaciers.
C.
97% of total water on Earth is freshwater, and most of the remaining
3% is salt water found in underground aquifers.
D.
97% of total water on Earth is salt water, and most of the remaining
3% is freshwater found in lakes, rivers, and ponds.
Which best describes the relationship between temperature and
dissolved oxygen in a lake?
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.
As temperature increases, dissolved oxygen increases.
As temperature increases, dissolved oxygen decreases.
As temperature decreases, dissolved oxygen decreases.
A change in temperature has no effect on dissolved oxygen.
How are indicator species like a warning system for bodies of water?
A.
They indicate when food sources are declining.
B.
Their illness or death indicates pollution in an aquatic ecosystem.
C.
They indicate when predators are reducing the numbers of a species.
D.
Their illness or death indicates the body of water is becoming more
populated.
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58.
59.
Which will occur if humans continue to overload water systems with
excess nutrients?
A.
chemosynthesis
B.
eutrophication
C.
nitrification
D.
photosynthesis
Dissolved oxygen (DO) data for a local river was taken throughout 2011.
In which month was the water temperature most likely the lowest?
60.
A.
January
B.
February
C.
August
D.
December
Which is the most likely effect of too much nitrogen and phosphorus
flowing into a lake?
A.
algal blooms
B.
greater salinity
C.
decreased turbidity
D.
lower temperature
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61.
62.
63.
64.
Which is the best example of a point source pollution?
A.
runoff from fields
B.
pesticides sprayed into the air
C.
oil spill from a boat in the Atlantic Ocean
D.
smoke from multiple industries in a large city
Which is an area of land that all drains to one place?
A.
river
B.
aquifer
C.
reservoir
D.
watershed
Which is the main source of dissolved oxygen in the ocean?
A.
underwater earthquakes
B.
decay of living organisms
C.
animals that live near the surface
D.
plants and algae that live near the surface
Which contributes most in supporting life on the deep ocean floor?
A.
cold water temperatures
B.
extreme water pressure
C.
hydrothermal vents
D.
lack of predators
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65. The graph shows the distribution of the freshwater resources of Earth.
Which of these sources of fresh water corresponds to Source 1?
66.
A.
atmospheric water
B.
surface water
C.
frozen water
D.
groundwater
A sample of soil contains many igneous rocks. Which feature was most
likely nearby?
A.
river
B.
forest
C.
desert
D.
volcano
67. Scientists are able to conclude that a forested ecosystem existed in Antarctica millions of years
ago by studying
A.
the current climate.
B.
the fossil record.
C.
glacial movement.
D.
seafloor spreading.
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68. A scientist drew some diagrams of ancestors of elephants based on fossil evidence.
Which is the best conclusion that can be made from comparing the diagrams?
A.
Elephant species have changed over time.
B.
Ancient elephants were better adapted than modern elephants.
C.
Elephant habitats have remained the same over time.
D.
Elephant fossil evidence is widespread and complete.
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69.
The diagram shows carbon dioxide levels preserved in an ice core.
Which process most likely accounts for the major increase in atmospheric carbon
dioxide over time?
A.
increased deforestation
B.
decreased deforestation
C.
increased use of fossil fuels
D.
decreased use of fossil fuels
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70. Scientists estimate that if index fossils were deposited during a certain time frame, then the
entire rock layer was also deposited at the same time.
A scientist finds Trophite fossils. According to the chart above, in what era and period was this
rock layer deposited?
71.
A.
Cenozoic Era; Tertiary Period
B.
Mesozoic Era; Triassic Period
C.
Paleozoic Era; Permian Period
D.
Paleozoic Era; Mississippian Period
Which provides the best evidence of Earth’s changing climate?
A.
ice cores
B.
volcanic ash
C.
metamorphic rocks
D.
sediment in river beds
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72.
73.
74.
75.
Fossil remains of a trilobite are most likely to be found in which type of
rock?
A.
igneous
B.
volcanic
C.
sedimentary
D.
metamorphic
A geologist found 600-year-old sediments below a particular rock layer.
Which will the geologist most likely find above the rock layer?
A.
450-year-old sediments
B.
600-year-old sediments
C.
650-year-old sediments
D.
1,000-year-old sediments
Which makes a good index fossil?
A.
a fossil not commonly found in rocks
B.
a fossil that lived throughout geologic time
C.
a fossil that lived during three geologic time periods
D.
a fossil that lived during only one geologic time period
A fault is found that cuts through lower rock layers but not those above
it. What can most likely be concluded?
A.
The fault is the same age as the layers it cuts through, and the same
age as the layers above it.
B.
The fault is younger than the layers it cuts through, and younger than
the layers above it.
C.
The fault is younger than the layers it cuts through, but older than
the layers above it.
D.
The fault is older than the layers it cuts through, but younger than
the layers above it.
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76.
77.
Which best explains the use of radioactive dating?
A.
to determine the presence of index fossils
B.
to determine the relative age of a rock layer
C.
to determine the absolute age of a rock layer
D.
to determine changes in the surface of the Earth
The diagram below shows several layers of rock and associated geologic
features that have occurred throughout Earth’s history.
Which sequence shows the order in which each rock layer or geologic event occurred?
A.
S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z
B.
S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z, U
C.
Z, Y, S, T, V, W, X, U
D.
U, Z, Y, X, W, V, T, S
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78.
Four sedimentary rock layers are cut by an igneous rock intrusion as
shown below.
Which best describes the relative age of the igneous rock intrusion in comparison to the
ages of the four sedimentary rock layers?
79.
A.
The igneous rock intrusion is older than sedimentary rock layers W, X,
Y, and Z.
B.
The igneous rock intrusion is younger than sedimentary rock layers W,
X, Y, and Z.
C.
The igneous rock intrusion is older than sedimentary rock layer W and
younger than sedimentary rock layers X, Y, and Z.
D.
The igneous rock intrusion is younger than sedimentary rock layer W
and older than sedimentary rock layers X, Y, and Z.
A scientist finds an index fossil in layers of rock in both Africa and South
America. What does this indicate about the ages of the rocks?
A.
The African rock is older.
B.
The South American rock is older.
C.
The rocks are younger than the fossils.
D.
The rocks are approximately the same age.
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80.
81.
82.
83.
Which is used in radioactive dating?
A.
carbon-14
B.
index fossils
C.
hydrochloric acid
D.
law of superposition
Scientists studying rock layers classify the top layer as the most recent,
followed by older layers that are uncovered as they dig deeper. Which law
explains this method of relative dating?
A.
law of geologic continuity
B.
law of universal position
C.
law of lateral continuity
D.
law of superposition
Where is evidence most often found to represent a record of Earth’s
history?
A.
air, lava, and fossils
B.
water, air, and rocks
C.
lava, water, and ice cores
D.
rocks, fossils, and ice cores
Which is used to find the relative age of a rock?
A.
composition of rock layers
B.
position of rock layers
C.
carbon-14 dating
D.
uranium dating
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84.
Fossils were discovered in four different sedimentary rock layers as
shown below.
Which best describes the age of the fish relative to the age of the fern and the age of the
shell?
A.
The fish is older than both the fern and the shell.
B.
The fish is younger than both the fern and the shell.
C.
The fish is older than the fern, but younger than the shell.
D.
The fish is younger than the fern, but older than the shell.
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85.
The diagram shows a cross-section of several rock layers and geological features.
Based on the diagram, which is true?
86.
A.
Layer U is the oldest.
B.
Layer Z is the youngest.
C.
Layer T is older than layer S.
D.
Layer X is older than layer Y.
Why do some antibiotics become ineffective over time?
A.
because they only kill certain viruses
B.
because they mutate before being used
C.
because they are overused for treatments
D.
because they only work for a few hours a day
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87.
Which explains why a fungus attaches to a host?
A.
The fungus provides hydration to the host.
B.
The fungus acquires nutrients from the host.
C.
The fungus injects the host with a toxin when it attaches.
D.
The fungus cannot survive without another living organism.
88. Infectious diseases can be passed from organism to organism by all of the following except
89.
A.
insect bites.
B.
contaminated food.
C.
genetically from parents.
D.
pathogens in the air.
Bacteria cells can be classified into one of three groups based on cell
shape as shown in the table below.
Name of Cell Shape Description of Cell Shape
coccus
spherical
bacillus
rod like
spirillum
spiral, corkscrew
Which best represents bacterial cells belonging to the bacillus group?
A.
B.
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C.
D.
90.
91.
Which term refers to the spread of disease across a large region or
sometimes worldwide?
A.
antibiotic
B.
epidemic
C.
pandemic
D.
pathogenic
Which cause athlete’s foot, ringworm, and thrush?
A.
protozoa
B.
bacteria
C.
viruses
D.
fungi
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92.
A doctor prescribed an antibiotic to treat an illness. Which type of illness
did the doctor most likely treat?
A.
cancer
B.
heart disease
C.
viral infection
D.
bacterial infection
93. The table below shows leading causes of death in the United States.
Which of the causes can be categorized as an infectious disease?
94.
95.
A.
cancer
B.
stroke
C.
diabetes
D.
influenza
Which would most likely prevent a cold virus from spreading through a
classroom?
A.
Have a large supply of tissues on the teacher’s desk.
B.
Have all students wash their hands regularly with soap.
C.
Have all students shake hands regularly with all students.
D.
Have all students wipe desk with dry paper towel at end of class.
Which environmental conditions contribute most to the spread of
bacteria?
A.
cold temperatures and low humidity
B.
warm temperatures and low humidity
C.
cold temperatures and high humidity
D.
warm temperatures and high humidity
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96.
97.
98.
99.
Which is true regarding bacterial and viral infections?
A.
Bacterial infections are treated with antibiotics, while viral infections
can be prevented through use of vaccines.
B.
Viral infections are treated with vaccines, while bacterial infections
are prevented through use of antibiotics.
C.
Viral infections are treated with antibiotics, while bacterial infections
are treated with vaccines.
D.
Both viral infections and bacterial infections are treated with
vaccines.
In the midwestern United States, the occurrence of influenza was greater
than expected. Which best describes the influenza outbreak?
A.
A pandemic, because influenza is an infectious disease.
B.
An epidemic, because influenza is an infectious disease.
C.
A pandemic, because it occurred in more than one state.
D.
An epidemic, because it occurred in one region of the United States.
Which situation would most favor the spread of infectious disease?
A.
overcrowding
B.
use of vaccines
C.
small population
D.
sanitary conditions
After World War I, an outbreak of the Spanish Flu killed 50 million to 100
million people around the world. Which best describes this occurrence?
A.
Epidemic, because it happened within a relatively short time span.
B.
Epidemic, because it affected many individuals in multiple countries.
C.
Pandemic, because it happened within a relatively short time span.
D.
Pandemic, because it affected many individuals in multiple countries.
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100.
101.
102.
103.
Which is an ethical issue surrounding the use of genetically modified
foods?
A.
cost of production
B.
long-term health effects
C.
ability to grow more nutritious foods
D.
ability to produce a lot of food quickly
Which describes a beneficial relationship between biotechnology and
North Carolina farmers?
A.
Improvements in biotechnology make farming an obsolete
profession.
B.
Improvements in biotechnology help plants become more disease
and insect resistant, increasing farmers’ profits.
C.
Improvements in biotechnology create crops that pose biological
threats for consumers, hurting farmers’ profits.
D.
Biotechnology research leads to a decreasing need for traditional
food sources as more synthetic foods are created in laboratories.
Which best explains how a nonliving virus is able to reproduce?
A.
A virus becomes living when in contact with a host organism.
B.
A virus infects a host organism by injecting its DNA into the cells of
the host organism.
C.
A virus infects a host organism by pulling the DNA from the cells of
the host organism into itself.
D.
A virus becomes living when a sufficient number of viruses invade a
host organism and cause an infection.
Which person would benefit most from biotechnology?
A.
a cook
B.
a farmer
C.
an architect
D.
an automobile engineer
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104.
105.
106.
107.
Which is the most useful change made to crops using applications of
biotechnology?
A.
Crops use more nutrients.
B.
Crops need more fertilizer.
C.
Crops resist more diseases.
D.
Crops take more time to grow.
Which pair correctly matches a vector and the infectious disease it
carries?
A.
human – influenza
B.
opossum – rabies
C.
mosquito – malaria
D.
flea – Lyme disease
Antibiotics would be least useful against which type of disease-causing
organism?
A.
bacteria
B.
fungus
C.
parasite
D.
virus
Which was most likely the earliest way biotechnology was studied by
humans?
A.
finding evidence of crimes
B.
making new medicines to cure sicknesses
C.
discovering the cause of hereditary diseases
D.
breeding better varieties of crops and livestock
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108.
109.
110.
111.
Which area of biotechnology would most likely create ethical issues
within human society?
A.
insulin production by bacteria
B.
organ cloning for use in transplants
C.
genetic engineering to improve agricultural yields
D.
DNA and forensic testing of crime scene evidence
Which are most closely related to biotechnology?
A.
medicine and agriculture
B.
construction and engineering
C.
water treatment and electricity generation
D.
communication and information technology
The bacteria that causes bubonic plague is transmitted to humans by
fleas. Which term best describes the role of the fleas in transmitting
bubonic plague?
A.
decomposer
B.
parasite
C.
pathogen
D.
vector
What type of science allows us to alter the DNA of a corn plant so that
it will contain more protein?
A.
biology
B.
biotechnology
C.
geology
D.
physiology
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112.
113.
114.
115.
Which is the most effective defense against the chicken pox virus?
A.
antibiotics
B.
diet
C.
exercise
D.
vaccine
Why are viruses considered to be nonliving organisms?
A.
They do not have genetic information.
B.
They are not able to move on their own.
C.
They do not interact with their environment.
D.
They are not able to reproduce without a host cell.
Which best compares bacteria and viruses?
A.
Bacteria are smaller than viruses.
B.
Bacteria cause disease, but viruses do not.
C.
Bacteria are living organisms, but viruses are not.
D.
Bacteria have genetic material, but viruses do not.
Which best explains how plants contribute to the water cycle?
A.
by being the base of all successful food webs
B.
by storing water in their vacuoles
C.
through photosynthesis
D.
through transpiration
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116.
117.
118.
Cattle egrets are birds that often follow behind cattle grazing in a field.
As the cattle graze and move through the field, they stir up various
insects, which the cattle egrets eat. Which best describes why the
cattle and the egrets can coexist in the field?
A.
The egrets protect the cattle from the insects.
B.
The cattle depend on the egrets as a food source.
C.
The cattle and the egrets compete for food resources.
D.
The cattle and the egrets consume different food sources.
Under which condition would a population most likely increase?
A.
The carrying capacity exceeds the habitat area.
B.
The number of deaths exceeds the immigration rate.
C.
The number of deaths exceeds the number of births.
D.
The amount of available resources exceeds the carrying capacity.
In a beehive, different bees have different jobs within the hive, but all
must work together in order for the hive to survive. Which is most
likely being demonstrated?
A.
competition
B.
cooperation
C.
mutualism
D.
parasitism
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119. An energy pyramid is illustrated below.
Which statement best explains the flow of energy as it moves through the different levels?
A.
Energy decreases as it is lost as heat to the environment.
B.
Energy increases as it is gained from the environment.
C.
Energy is unavailable because it is used up by the organisms at Level 1.
D.
Energy is transferred as it is produced by organisms in the next level.
120. Food webs are used to identify the feeding relationships between organisms.
Which statement can be logically concluded about the food web shown?
A.
Organism 1 is most likely a type of bacteria.
B.
Organism 2 is definitely an omnivore.
C.
Organism 5 is most likely a plant eater.
D.
Organism 8 is definitely a carnivore.
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121.
122.
123.
124.
From what source does most of the energy in an ecosystem come?
A.
oil
B.
wind
C.
water
D.
sunlight
If the primary food source for the whale population in an area is
depleted, which will most likely happen?
A.
The whale population will stabilize.
B.
The whale population will increase.
C.
Competition among the whales will increase.
D.
Starvation will cause the whales to become extinct.
Which group in a food web is most likely to change atmospheric nitrogen
into forms that are usable?
A.
consumers
B.
decomposers
C.
producers
D.
scavengers
Which molecule is necessary in order for respiration to occur in plants
and animals?
A.
nitrogen
B.
oxygen
C.
sulfur
D.
water
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125.
126.
127.
128.
In the Arctic, polar bears hunt seals as a source of food. Which best
describes the relationship between polar bears and seals?
A.
The polar bears are consumers; the seals are producers.
B.
The polar bears are producers; the seals are consumers.
C.
The polar bears are predators; the seals are prey.
D.
The polar bears are prey; the seals are predators.
Bees and butterflies help pollinate plants, enabling them to reproduce
while getting nectar from those plants. Which is best represented by
this relationship?
A.
mutualism
B.
parasitism
C.
competition
D.
predator-prey
Which is the place where a member of a population lives and finds food?
A.
space
B.
habitat
C.
shelter
D.
population
Which best describes an abiotic limiting factor in a population?
A.
animals
B.
plants
C.
water
D.
food
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129.
130.
Which will most likely occur if two species occupy the same niche in an
ecosystem?
A.
The two species will become friendly and share the niche.
B.
The two species will support each other, and one species will
overpopulate.
C.
The two species will compete directly against each other for food,
and one species will eventually die off.
D.
The two species will compete directly against each other for food,
and both species will eventually die off.
The chart below shows the human population and the fox population in
an area.
Human Population
10
20
30
40
50
Fox Population
60
45
30
10
5
Which best explains the relationship between the human and fox populations in the
ecosystem?
131.
A.
Humans compete for the same prey as foxes, causing the fox
population to drop.
B.
Humans compete for the same space as foxes, causing the fox
population to drop.
C.
Humans are affected by the same diseases as foxes, causing both
populations to change in the same way.
D.
Humans are affected by the same predators as foxes, causing both
populations to change in the same way.
Which best represents the niche of phytoplankton and algae in a marine
ecosystem?
A.
producers
B.
consumers
C.
scavengers
D.
decomposers
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132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
Which consume(s) energy from dead organisms?
A.
the Sun
B.
producers and consumers
C.
trees, grasses, and shrubs
D.
scavengers, fungi, and bacteria
Which level of a food chain has the most energy?
A.
decomposers
B.
scavengers
C.
consumers
D.
producers
Which shows the correct flow of energy through this simple food chain?
A.
fox → grass → rabbit
B.
grass → fox → rabbit
C.
grass → rabbit → fox
D.
rabbit → grass → fox
Which is an example of parasitism?
A.
cat and mouse
B.
tadpole and frog
C.
human and tapeworm
D.
caterpillar and butterfly
Which geological event is most likely to cause greater diversity in
animal populations?
A.
landmasses splitting apart
B.
landmasses coming together
C.
landmasses becoming larger
D.
landmasses sinking beneath the sea
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137.
Four species of Galapagos finches are shown below.
Which best explains why the birds evolved with differently shaped beaks?
138.
A.
They interbred with each other.
B.
Some birds had defective gene pools.
C.
All of the birds ate the same type of food.
D.
They adapted to eating different types of food.
Which bird’s beak is best adapted to get nourishment from the nectar of
flowers?
A.
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B.
C.
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D.
139.
140.
141.
The feathers of a wild turkey allow it to blend into its habitat. Which
best describes this adaptation?
A.
mimicry
B.
predation
C.
camouflage
D.
learned behavior
Based on the fossil record, which organisms were most likely to have
existed first?
A.
plants
B.
insects
C.
jellyfish
D.
bacteria
Which best supports the idea of continental drift?
A.
Coastlines are constantly changing shape due to erosion.
B.
Earthquakes are frequently felt in many regions of the world.
C.
Glaciers currently exist in areas considered too warm for glaciers to
form.
D.
Fossilized remains of the same plants and animals are found on
different continents.
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142.
143.
144.
Some scientists think that all life evolved from a common ancestor.
Which provides evidence that this may be true?
A.
analogous structures of organisms
B.
homologous structures of organisms
C.
extinction of many varieties of plant species
D.
existence of many varieties of bacteria species
Over time, the length of giraffes’ necks changed slightly to allow them
to reach taller trees. How should this change be classified?
A.
mutation
B.
adaptation
C.
acquired trait
D.
genetic constant
The diagram below represents the evolutionary history of the horse.
Horse Evolution Over Time
Which best accounts for the changes in the horse?
A.
Through artificial selection, larger horses survived and were chosen
to reproduce offspring.
B.
Through artificial selection, small horses were bred out of the gene
pool, leaving only larger horses.
C.
Through natural selection, favorable adaptations were passed to
offspring, allowing for the evolution of the horse.
D.
Through natural selection, horses acquired traits that produced
changes and then were passed on to their offspring.
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145.
146.
147.
148.
What do scientists most often use to form the basis for biological
classification?
A.
dietary habits
B.
population size
C.
geographic location
D.
comparative anatomy
Throughout fossil records, many species appearing in lower layers of
rock disappear in higher layers of rock. Which best explains their
disappearance?
A.
The species became extinct.
B.
The species moved to another geographic location.
C.
The fossil remains were disrupted by an earthquake.
D.
Environmental conditions were not suitable for fossil formation.
How are fossils compared to one another for biological classification?
A.
by their size
B.
by their estimated life spans
C.
by the geographic locations where they are found
D.
by similarities and differences in their body structures
Which best describes the relationship between genetic variation and the
ability to adapt to one’s environment?
A.
Genetic variation has no effect on the ability to adapt.
B.
As genetic variation increases, the ability to adapt increases.
C.
As genetic variation decreases, the ability to adapt increases.
D.
As genetic variation increases, the ability to adapt decreases.
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149.
The forelimbs of two animals are shown below.
Which can best be concluded from this information?
150.
A.
The animals share a similar ancestor.
B.
The animals live in the same habitat.
C.
The animals are the same size and shape.
D.
The animals use the same method of movement.
Which best demonstrates analogous structures in animals?
A.
cat fur and dog fur
B.
whale fins and human arms
C.
bird wings and insect wings
D.
gills in fish and lungs in mammals
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