Brilliant STUDY CENTRE, PALA
FOUNDATION PROGRAMME
PROMOTION CUM SCHOLARSHIP TEST
DATE
VERSION
CODE
01-04- 17
Z1
CLASS IX - Physics + Chemistry + Maths + Bio + Social + Mental Ability
Questions : 150
Marks : 600
Time : 180 Minutes
Name of the Candidate :
Signature of the Candidate :
Centre
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE
1. The Question Paper Code is printed on the top right corner of this page. Enter it correctly in
the OMR sheet
2. For each question in this examination, there are four suggested answers given against (A), (B),
(C) and (D) of which only one will be the MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER and indicate it in
the OMR Answer Sheet.
3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to a
penalisation formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of
wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will
be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will
be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.
4. Rough work should be done only in the space provided for.
5. WARNING:
Any malpractice or any attempt to commit any kind of malpractice, in
the Examination, will DISQUALIFY THE CANDIDATE.
IMMEDIATELY AFTER OPENING THE QUESTION BOOKLET, THE CANDIDATE
SHOULD VERIFY THAT THE QUESTION BOOKLET ISSUED CONTAINS ALL THE
150 QUESTIONS IN SERIAL ORDER
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PHYSICS
1.
If 784 J of work was down for lifting 10kg mass then height through which it was lifted is
2.
A) 4m
B) 8m
C) 2m
D) 16 m
A man is lowering a bucket of water of mass ‘m’ through a distance ‘d’ at an acceleration ‘g/4’. The work
done by him is
A) mgd
3.
W
1
A
4.
h
5
a
0
)
t
i
0
2
s
t
k
.
3
B) -mgd
h
e
w
o
r
k
d
o
n
t
o
i
n
c
r
e
a
s
e
t
h
e
v
e
l
o
c
i
t
y
o
f
a
c
a
r
f
r
o
m
3
0
D)
k
m
/
h
r
t
o
6
0
k
m
/
h
3mgd
4
r
.
I
f
m
a
s
s
o
f
t
h
e
c
a
r
i
s
g
x
1
0
4J
B) 1.56 x 105 J
C) 3.2 x 107 J
D) 9.2 x 103 J
A man of mass 60Kg climbs up a 20m long stair case to the top of a building 10m high. What is the
workdone by him? [Take g = 10m/s2]
A) 12000 J
5.
e
−3mgd
4
C)
B) 6000 J
C) 3000 J
D) 5000 J
A body of mass ‘m’ is raised to a height ‘d’ from the earth’s surface. The work done on the body is
A)
mg
d
B)
gd
m
C) mgd
6.
Work done by the force of gravity on a freely fally body is
7.
A) Positive
B) Negative
Which of the following gives zero work
C) Zero
D) mgd cos θ
D) None of these
A) Work done by the force of gravity on a freely falling body
B) Work done by the force of gravity
C) A man carrying a load on his head and he moves on horizontal road
D) Workdone in stretching a spring
8.
The force of gravitation between two bodies of masses 3kg and 6kg when they are separated by a distance
3m is given by
A) 5G
B) 3G
C) 2G
D) 1.5 G
9.
Which of the following is not a significance of gravitational force
A) Low and high tide
B) Atmosphere
C) Satelite
D) Rainfall
C) Decreases
D) Can’t say
10. The value of ‘G’ at the peak of Everest will be
A) Increasing
B) Remains same
11. The gravitational force between two bodies varies with distance r as:
A)
1
r
B)
1
r2
C) r
D) r2
12. Force between two masses of 1Kg each are reparated by a distance 1 meter will be
A) 6.67 x 10–11 N
B) 9.8 N
C) 6.67 x 10–8 N
D) 6.67 x 10–2 N
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13. If two bodies of mass M1 and M2 are placed a distance r apart they have a force of gravitation F between
them. If both of the masses are reduced to half then force of gravitation will be
A)
F
2
B) 2F
C)
F
4
D) F
14. The frequency of a source of sound is 50Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 3000
D) 4000
15. An echo is returned in 13 seconds. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source given that
the speed of sound is 340m/s
A) 513m
B) 1120m
C) 1850m
D) 2210m
16. A submarine emits a sonar pulse which returns from the underwater clift in 2s. If the speed of sound in water
is 1530m/s how far away is the clift?
A) 780m
B) 1530m
C) 2230m
D) 3400m
17. The period of a periodic wave is 0.02s. At a particular position there is a crest at t = 0. A trough appears at
this position at E =
A) 0.005s
B) 0.01s
C) 0.015s
D) 0.02s
18. Sound waves of wavelength λ travels from one medium in which their speed is ‘V’ in to medium in which
their speed is 5V. The wavelength of the sound in the second medium is
A) λ
B) 3λ
C) 5λ
D) 7λ
19. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500m high in to the pond of water at the base of the tower.
When is splash heard at the top? Given g = 10m/s2 and speed of sound = 340m/s
A) 10.3s
B) 12.6s
C) 16.3s
20. Human ears can sense sound waves travelling in air having wavelength of
A) 10–3m
B) 10–2m
C) 1m
D) 11.47s
D) 102m
21. If a car takes a turn along a carved track the passengers experience a force acting away from the centre of
the carved track. This is the result of
A) inertia of rest
B) inertia of motion
C) inertia of direction
D) both (a) & (d)
22. If P and Q are two objects with masses 20kg and 100kg respectively them
A) has more inertia than Q
B) P and Q have same inertia
C) none of the two have inertia
D) Q has more inertia than P
23. Three bodies of mass m, 2m, 3m are placed adjacent to each other on a frictionless horizontal surface. A
constant force is applied to right direction on mass ‘m’. Which of the following statement is true :
A) Acceleration of bodies will vary according to their mass
B) Acceleration of each block will be the same F/m
C) Net force acting on body with mass 3m is 3 times greater than not force on m
D) Net force acting each block is same
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24. The statement “friction is a self adjusting force’ is ----------A) a false statement
B) true in the case of static friction
C) true in the case of rolling friction
D) true in the case of sliding friction
–1
25. When a spring having spring constant 2N m is stretched by 5cm, the energy stored in it is :
A) 0.025 J
B) 0.0025 J
C) 0.25 J
D) 2.5 J
26. The momentum ‘P’ and kinetic energy ‘E’ of a body of mass ‘m’ are related as :
B) P =
A) P = 2mE
1
mE
2
C) P =
2m
E
D) P = 2mE
27. Two electric motors of power 1.75 hp and 3.5 hp pump water simultaneously. The ratio of amount of water
pumped by them, in a given time is :
A) 1 : 2
B) 2 : 1`
C) 1 : 4
D) 4 : 1
28. The length of an inclined plane is halved and the angle of inclination is changed from 30o to 60o. If the work
done in pulling a load up the first inclined plane is ‘w’, then the work done in pulling the same load up the
second inclined plane is :
A) 2w
B)
3w
2
C)
w
2
D)
2w
3
29. If a body travels for two equal time intervals along a straight path with different velocities v1 and v2. The
average velocity of the body is:
A)
v1 + v 2
2
2 v1 v 2
B) v + v
1
2
C)
v 12 + v 2 2
D) v12 − v 2 2
30. If a body travels for three equal distances with different velocities v1,v2 and v3. The average velocity of the
body is:
A)
C)
v1 + v 2 + v 3
3
b
3 v1 + v 2 + v 3
3v1v 2 v 3
B) v + v + v
1
2
3
g
3v1v 2 v 3
D) v v + v v + v v
1 2
1 3
2 3
v1 v 2 v 3
CHEMISTRY
31. The quantity of matter present in an object is called its :
A) Weight
B) Volume
C) Mass
D) Density
32. What you mean by Adhesive Force?
A) The force of attraction between the particles of different substances
B) The force of attraction between the particles of same substances
C) The force of attraction between the particles of both same and different substances
D) All are correct
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33. Intermixing of particles of two different types of matter on their own is called :
A) Mixing
B) Diffusion
34. Latent heat of fusion of ice is :
A) 3.34 × 104 J/kg
B) 3.34 × 105 J/g
C) Dissolving
D) Both A & C
C) 3.43 × 105 J/kg
D) 3.34 × 105 J/kg
35. Solids can not be compressed because :
A) Constituent particles are very closely packed
B) Interparticle attractive forces are weak
C) Movement of constituent particles is restricted
D) Constituent particles diffuse very slowly
36. Dry ice means :
A) Solid ammonia
B) Solid carbon monoxide
C) Solid carbondioxide
D) Solid ammonium
37. Fifth state of matter is :
A) Plasma
B) Bose - Issac Condensate
C) Bose - Einstein condensate
38. Which one of the following is a lightest element :
A) Helium
B) Nitrogen
D) Bose - Edison condensate
C) Lithium
D) Hydrogen
39. How much water should be added to 12 ml acetone to make its concentration 48%?
A) 11
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
40. The particle size of a colloidal solution is :
A) 1 - 100 nm
B) 10 - 100 nm
C) 1 - 10 nm
41. When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution it gets :
A) Reflected
B) Absorbed
D) 10 - 1000 nm
C) Scattered
D) Refracted
C) Honey
D) Smoke
42. Which of the following is an example of emulsion :
A) Face cream
B) Shaving cream
43. The word chromatography stands for :
A) Separation of particle
C) Separation of colours
B) Separation of substances
D) Separation of Drugs
44. Which of the following method is used for separation of different components of petroleum?
A) Fractional distillation B) Sublimation
C) Chromatography
D) Simple distillation
C) Na, C, H and O
D) K, C and O
C) Lavoisier
D) Dalton
45. The elements present in baking soda are :
A) Na, C and O
B) Na, C and H
46. The law of conservation of mass given by :
A) John Dalton
B) Proust
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47. Molecular mass of CO2 is :
A) 38
B) 40
C) 20
48. The first scientist to use the symbols of elements was :
A) Dalton
B) Berzilius
C) Kanad
D) 44
D) Proust
49. Which of the following is an example of anion :
A) Na+
B) Cl–
C) Ca2+
D) Cu2+
50. The molecular mass of a compound is 74.5 then the compound is :
A) KCl
B) HCl
C) NaCl
51. Which of the following has the smallest mass :
A) 4g of He
C) 1 atom of He
D) LiCl
B) 6.023 × 1023 atoms of He
D) 1 mole atoms of He
52. Which of the following statement is true :
A) A proton is 1837 times heavier than an electron
B) A proton is
1
times heavier than an electron
1837
C) A proton is
1
times lighter than an electron
1837
D) Proton has the same mass as an electron
53. The mass of a proton is :
A) 1.00728 amu
B) 1.673 × 1024 gm
54. The radius of an atomic nucleus is of the order :
A) 10–10 cm
B) 10–13 cm
C) 1.673 × 1027 kg
D) All of these
C) 10–15 cm
D) 10–8 cm
C) 10 n
D) 1−1 n
55. A neutron is represented as :
A) 00 n
B) 11 n
56. The different subshells in an atom are represented as :
A) s, p, D, f
B) s, p, d, f
C) S, P, D, F
D) K, L, M, N
57. The number of valence electrons in ‘V’ is : [Atomic no. 23]
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
58. The traid of nuclei that is isotonic is :
15
17
A) 14
6 C, 7 N, 9 F
14
16
B) 12
6 C, 7 N, 9 F
C)
14
6
17
C, 14
7 N, 9 F
59. An element has 2 electrons in m-shell, what is its symbol :
A) Na
B) Mg
C) Al
14
19
D) 14
6 C, 7 N, 9 F
D) C
60. Who discovered existence of isotopes?
A) Federick Soddy
B) Henry Bacquerel
C) Torricelli
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D) Enrico Ferni
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BIOLOGY
61. Which one of the following is a character of mitochondria
A) It was I observed by foutana and without a limiting membrane
B) It is other wise called as dictyosomes
C) It is available as cisternae, vesicles and tubules
D) Its inner membrane have oxysomes,w hich contains enzymes for ATP production
62. Ribsoems are made up of
A) rRNA and protein
B) mRNA and protein
C) DNA, RNA, and protein
D) De-oxyribo nuleoprotein
63. Single membrane bound structures present in a cell are
A) Mitochondria and Endoplasmic reticulum
B) Golgi complex and Plastids
C) Endoplasmic reticulum and golgi complex
D) Ribosomes and Lysosomes
64. Nucleus is otherwise known as
A) Storage battery of the cell
B) Suicidal bags of the cell
C) Head quarter of the cell
D) Kitchen of the cell
65. Protein filaments microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments are associated witht he formation
of
A) Cytoskelton
B) Vacuoles
C) Lysosomes
D) Glyoxysomes
66. Compactly a managed thin walled immature cells incapable division are
A) Parenchyma
B) Sieve tubues
C) Meristem
D) Xylem
67. Aerenchyma is a type of a
A) Parenchyma
B) Sclerenchyma
C) Collenchyma
D) Complex permanent tissue
68. Which of the following is not a character of nonstriated muscles
A) They are voluntary muscles because these are under the control of ones will
B) They are involuntaryas there are not under the control of one’s will
C) There are uninucleted and spindle shaped
D) They are also called as smooth muscles
69. Match the following
1) RBC
a) Blood plasma –protein
2) WBC
b) Helping for blood coagulation
3) Platelets
c) Responsible for immunity
4) Lymph
d) Have Hb; carry oxigen
A) I-d; 2-a; 3-c; 4-b
B) I-c,2-d;3-a;4-b
C) I-b;2-c;3-a;4-d
D) I-d;2-c;3-b;4-a
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70. Dendrites are part of
A) Muscle cell
B) Neural cell
C) Bone
71. Multicellular, Eukaryotic heterotrophs are included in
A) Protista
B) Plantae
C) Animalia
D) Cartilage
D) Monera
72. Moulds are come under
A) Bryophyta
B) Pteridophyta
C) Fungi
D) Gymnosperms
73. Well developed vascular system, with vessels devoid xylem and companion cells devoid phloem one the
characters of
A) Phanerogamae
B) Gymnospermae
C) Angiospermae
D) Fungi
74. Animals are classified into different-phyla based on
A) The rate of photosynthesis
B) Energy production and utilization
C) Based on nutrition
D) Organization and differentiation of cells to form tissues and organs
75. Balamoglossus come under
A) Phylum mollusca
C) Phylum chordata
B) Phylum Hemichordata
D) Phylum echinodermata
76. The vector which causes filariasis is
A) Anopheles mosquitoes
B) Aedes mosquitoes
C) Culex mosquitoes
D) Tre-Tre fly
77. Gonorrhoea is caused by
A) Treponema pallidum
C) Salmonella shigella
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Vibrio cholerae
78. Immune system produce antibodies against foreign antigen. It is an example of
A) Specific defense mechanism
B) Non-specific defence mechanism
C) Vaccination
D) Passive immunity
79. Beri-Beri is caused by the deficiency of
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin A
C) Vitamin B1
80. Interaction between two organisms for the same thing
A) Competition
B) Scavenging
C) Predation
D) Vitamin B5
D) Parasitism
81. Morphine is obtained from
A) Papaver somniferum
B) Sarpagandha
C) Saned baril
D) Neem
82. Herbivores will come under the
A) First trophic level
B) Second trophic level
C) Third trophic level
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D) Fourth trophic level
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83. The natural ecological grouping of plants and animals on the basis of climate are called as
A) Biome
B) Biosphere
C) Community
D) Ecosystem
84. C-Horizom is made up of
A) Soil rich in mineral and decomposed organic matter
B) large amounts of aluminium and Iron compounds
C) Incompletely weathered rock
D) Un weathered rock
85. Soil is made up of
A) Mineral matter → 7 to 10; organic matter 25 to 35%, soil water 50 to 60%, soil air 15 to 25%
B) Mineral matter → 7 to 10%, organic matter 15 to 25%, soil water 50-60%, soil air 25 to 35
C) Mineral matter → 25 to 35%, organic maatter 15 to 25% soil air 07 to 10%; soil water 50-60%
D) Mineral matter → 50 to 60%, organic matter 7 to 10% soil water 15 to 25% and soil air 25 to 35%
86. The cross between F1 generation and the recessive parent is called as
A) Back cross
B) Dihybrid cross
C) Trihybrid cross
87. Hybrid vigour refers to
A) Superiority of F1 over its parents
B) Superiority of parents over their offsprings
C) Same characters shown by all F1
D) Tendancy of F1 to supress their character
88. Euglena is connecting link between
A) Fishes and reptiles
C) Living and non living
B) Plants and animals
D) reptile and birds
89. DNA consists of
A) De-oxyribose + phosphate + aminoacids
B) De-oxyribose + phosphate + nitrogen bases
C) Ribose + phosphate + nitrogen bases
D) Ribose + phosphate + amino acids
90. Match the following
I) Pituitary
A) Controls blood sugar
II) Pancreas
B) A blood pressure, heart beat respiration
III) Adrenal
C) Controls growth
IV) Thyroid
D) Controls general metabola
A) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
C) I-C, II-C, III-B, IV-A
B) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
D) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
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D) Test cross
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MATHEMATICS
91. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 is divisible by
A) 3
B) 10
C) 11
D) 13
92. If 232 + 1 is divisible by λ then which among the following is divisible by λ ?
A) 216 − 1
B) 216 + 1
93. Sum to 10 terms of the series
A)
9
19
B)
C) 296 − 1
D) 296 + 1
1
1
1
+ 2
+ 2
+ ................... is
2 −1 4 −1 6 −1
2
10
19
C)
10
21
D)
11
21
 1  1   1   2  2  2 
2 
94. If 1 +   1 +  ..... 1 +  =  + 1  + 1  + 1 ........  + 1 then the value of k is
 2  3   9   3  5  7 
k 
A) 11
B) 13
C) 15
D) 17
95. If a 2 + 5 = 2b + c, b 2 − 3c = a + 2b − 6 and c 2 + 3 = a + 2c then a 2 + b 2 + c 2 is
A) 12
B) 13
C) 14
D) 15
96. The price of wheat falls by 16%. By what approximate percentage, a person can increase the consumption
of wheat so that his over all budget dose not change
A) 16%
B) 17 %
C) 18 %
D) 19%
97. If the selling price of 50 articles is equal to the cost price of 40 articles then the loss or gain percentage is
A) 20% loss
B) 20% gain
C) 25% loss
D) 25% gain
98. In a business A and C invested amounts in the ratio 2:1, where as the ratio between amounts invested by A
and B was 3:2. If Rs.1,57,300 was their profit, how much amount did B receive ?
A) Rs 24,200
B) Rs 36,300
C) Rs 48,400
D) Rs72,600
99. If 6 men can cane 6 chaires in 6 days. Then 1 man shall cane 1 chair in how many days
A) 1 day
B) 6 days
C) 12 day
D) 36 day
100. If x + y + z = 1 xyz = −1; xy + yz + zx = −1 then the value of x 3 + y3 + z 3 is
A) 1
B) -1
C) 2
101. If x = 1 + 21/3 + 22/3 then the value of x 3 − 3x 2 − 3x + 4 is
A) 0
B0 1
C) 2
x −3 − y −3
102.
x −3 y −1 + ( xy ) + y −3 x −1
−2
A) x + y
D) -2
D) 3
=
B) x −1 + y −1
C) y − x
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D) y −1 − x −1
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103. The solution set of the system of equation
4
3
+ 5y = 7, + 4y = 5, is
x
x
 −1 
B)  ,1
 3 
1 
A)  ,1
3 
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1

C)  , −1
3

 −1

D)  , −1
 3

104. Solution of the inequality ( x − 1) ( x + 1) ( x − 4 ) ≤ 0 is
2
A) −1 < x < 3
3
B) −1 ≤ x ≤ 3
C) −1 ≤ x ≤ 4
D) −1 ≤ x ≤ 1
105. In a school, the average score of all 1400 students in an examination was found to be 69.5. The average
score of boys in the school was 68 and that of girls was 72. Hence, the number of boys and the number of
girls respectively were;
A) 680 and 720
B) 720 and 680
C) 875 and 525
D) 800 and 600
106. On selling a T.V at 5% gain and fridge at 10% gain, a shopkeeper gains Rs2000/-. But if he sells the T.V at
10% gain and the fridge at 5% loss he will got a profit of Rs1500. Then the actual prices of both T.V and
fridge are respectively
A) Rs 10000/- and Rs 12,000
B) Rs 15,000 and Rs 18,000
C) Rs 20,000 and Rs10,000
D) Rs 20,000 and Rs 15,000
107. For what values of k, (4 − k)x 2 + ( 2k + 4 ) x + ( 8k + 1) = 0 has equal roots
A) k = 1, −2
B) k = 1, 2
C) k = 0,3
D) k = −1, −3
108. If one of the roots of the equation x 2 + px + q = 0 is m times the other root, then
A)
p
p − 2q
B)
2
p
q − 2p
2
C)
q
p − 2q
2
m
is equal to
1 + m2
D)
q
q − 2p
2
109. If the first four terms of an arithmetic sequence are a, 2a, b and a − b − 6 for some numbers ‘a’ and ‘b’ then
the value of the 100th term is
A) -100
B) -150
C) -200
D) -300
C)
D) 1
tan θ
110. If tan θ = 4, then sin θ + sin θ cos θ is equal to
3
cos θ
A) 0
B) 2 2
2
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111. In the diagram PTR and QRS are straight lines. Given that tan θ =
4
and ‘T’ is the midpoint of PR. Then the
3
length of PQ is
A) 8
B) 9
C)
59
D) 10
1
1
112. Using the formula sin(A + B) = sinA cos B + cos Asin B and tan α = ,sin β =
find α + 2β where
7
10
α & β are in the first quadrant
A) 30
B) 450
C) 600
D) 900
113. The points which are not collinear are
A) ( 4,3) , ( 5,1) and (1,9)
B) ( 2,5)( −1, 2 ) and (4, 7)
C) ( −3, 2 )(1, −2 ) and(9, −10)
D) (0,1)(8,3)and(6,7)
114. The ratio in which the line segment joining (3,4) and (-2,-1) is divided by the x-axis, is
A) 2:3
B) 3:4
C) 4:1
D) 3:1
115. The circumcenter of the triangle whose vertices are A(-3,2) B(5,2) and C(-3,8) is
A) (2,-1)
B) (1,5)
C) (3,2)
D) (4,1)
116. Equation of a line passing through (3,2) and inclined an angle of 1200 with the positive direction of x-axis
is
A) 3x + y = 2 + 3 3
B) 3x + y = 2 − 3 3
C) 3 − y = 2 + 3 3
D) 3x − y = 2 − 3 3
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117. Two opposite vertices of rectangle are (1,3) and (5,1). If the other two vertices of the rectangle lie on the
line x − y + λ = 0 , then λ =
A) 1
B) 2
C) -1
D) -2
118. In the ∆ABC, < A =< CED, AB = 9cm D and E are on AC and BC such that CD=8, CE=10,BE=2. If
AD = x and DE=y then x+y is
A) 13
B) 14
C) 15
D) 16
C) 5.8
D) 5.6
119. Find the area of the triangle ABC
A) 4.8
B) 4.6
120. How many spherical bullets can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44 cm each
bullet being 4cm in diameter?
2451
B) 2541
C) 2304
D) 2536
MENTAL ABILITY
Find the missing numbers (121-123)
121. 4,7,3,6,2,5,.....?
A) 6
B) 5
C) 3
D) 1
B) 12
C) 14
D) 16
B) 35
C) 36
D) 37
122. 2,2,4,4,6,8,8,......?
A) 10
123. 2,3,10,15,26,....?
A) 34
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Find the missing letters (124-126)
124. Y,W,U,S,Q,......?
A) A
125. LO, IL, FI, CF,.....?
A) ZB
B) P
C) O
D) B
B) AB
C) ZC
D) ZO
C) EFP
D) EXP
126. ATL, BUM, CVN, DWO,.....?
A) EZP
B) EYQ
Directions: (127 to 130) Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other will
complets the given letter series?
127. _ a a b b _ a b b a _ b
A) b a b
B) a b a
C) b b a
D) b a a
B) b a b
C) b b a
D) b b b
B) b b a a
C) a b b b
D) b b a b
B) b a a
C) a b a
D) a a a
128. a _ ba a _ ba a _ ba
A) a a b
129. _ b a a _ b a _ a a b _
A) b a b a
130. b a b b b _ b _ b _ b b
A) b b a
SOCIAL STUDIES
131. In the book ‘Thousand and One Nights’ a city is depicted as the biggest and richest city in the world :
A) Quatar
B) Saudi Arabia
C) Baghdad
D) Riyad
C) 364 days
D) 360 days
132. The Mayan Calender consisted of ---------A) 366 days
B) 365 days
133. The greatest contribution of the Justinian.
A) Corpus Juris Civilis
C) By Zantine empire
B) Mali empire
D) Invasion of constantinople
134. Who codified the Ottoman laws :
A) Usman
B) Charlemague
C) Sulaiman
D) Shoguns
135. The Russina parliament under the Tsars was called :
A) Congress
B) Duma
C) Diet
136. The Russian Revolution broke out during the reign of :
A) Peter
B) Fredrick
C) Rasputin
D) Nassat
D) Isar Nicholas II
137. The rich who could afford to play Cricket for pleasure were called ---------A) Professionals
B) Amateurs
C) Rivals
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138. ----------- was the year of Great Agrarian depression :
A) 1930
B) 1935
C) 1925
D) 1920
C) Tamil nadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
139. Singbhum Forests are located in :
A) Himalayas
B) Chhotanagpur
140. The various groups in French Society were known as :
A) Caster
B) Classes
C) Estates
D) Tribes
141. In which of the following states is the Wular lake located?
A) Rajastan
B) Uttar pradesh
C) Punjab
D) Jammu-kashmir
142. What is the Ganga called when it joins the Brahmaputra :
A) Meghna
B) Padma
C) Bramaputra
D) Son
143. Which hills turn the direction of the Bay of Bengal branch of the South west monsoon?
A) Aravallis
B) Nilgiris
C) Arakan
D) Rajmahal hills
144. The strong, hot and dry winds called Loo blows over the :
A) Northern and North Western plains
B) Decan plateau
C) Coastal plains
D) Himalayas
145. Which of the following tree is used for treatment of blood pressure?
A) Teak
B) Chestnut
C) Sarpagandha
D) Rosewood
C) Orissa
D) Kerala
146. Where are Sunderbans located?
A) West Bengal
B) Rajastan
147. Where is Nokrek Bio-reserves located?
A) Uttar pradesh
B) Melghalaya
C) Andaman & Nicobar D) Kerala
148. Highest rainfall in the world?
A) Chirapunji
B) Mawsynram
C) Hawaii
D) Debundscha
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Rajastan
C) Luxembourg
D) Qutar
149. The lowest density of population is in :
A) Sikkim
B) Meghalaya
150. Highest per capita income in the world :
A) Singapore
B) Norway
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Name ................................................
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE Z1
PALA
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............
MODEL EXAM - FOUNDATION COURSE
01- 04- 2017
Key
FC17N/TP/MOD/[Z1]
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
BIOLOGY
MATHS
1.
31.
61.
91.
2.
B
C
32.
Class : IX
C
A
62.
D
A
92.
SOCIAL
B
MENTAL
ABILITY
131.
C
D
121. D
132.
B
133.
A
3.
B
33.
B
63.
C
93.
C
122. D
4.
B
34.
D
64.
C
94.
B
123. B
134.
C
C
124. C
135.
B
136.
D
5.
C
35.
A
65.
A
95.
6.
A
36.
C
66.
C
96.
D
125. C
7.
C
37.
C
67.
A
97.
A
126. D
137.
B
138.
A
8.
C
38.
D
68.
A
98.
C
127. D
9.
D
39.
C
69.
D
99.
B
128. D
139.
B
10.
B
40.
A
70.
B
100. A
129. C
140.
C
130. C
141.
D
11.
B
41.
C
71.
C
101. D
12.
A
42.
A
72.
C
102. C
142.
A
13.
C
43.
C
73.
B
103. C
143.
C
14.
C
44.
A
74.
D
104. C
144.
A
15.
D
45.
C
75.
B
105. C
145.
C
16.
B
46.
C
76.
C
106. C
146.
A
17.
B
47.
D
77.
B
107. C
147.
B
18.
C
48.
A
78.
A
108. C
148.
B
19.
D
49.
B
79.
C
109. A
149.
C
20.
C
50.
A
80.
A
110. D
150.
D
21.
C
51.
C
81.
A
111. D
22.
D
52.
A
82.
B
112. B
23.
C
53.
A
83.
A
113. D
24.
B
54.
B
84.
C
114. C
25.
B
55.
C
85.
D
115. B
26.
A
56.
B
86.
D
116. A
27.
A
57.
B
87.
A
117. C
28.
B
58.
A
88.
B
118. A
29.
A
59.
B
89.
B
119. C
30.
D
60.
A
90.
A
120. B