Multiple choice questions (Class 10)
1. The characteristics of reversible reactions are following except:
a. Products never recombine to form reactants
b. They never complete
c. They proceed in both ways
d. They have a double arrow between reactants and products
2. In the lime kiln, the reaction
CaCO3
CaO + CO2
Goes to completion because:
a. Of high temperature
c. CaO is more stable than CaCO3
b. CO2 escapes continuously
d. CaO is not dissociated
3. For the reaction,
2A + B
3C
The expression for the equilibrium constant is:
a. [2A][B]/[3C]
c. [3C]/[2A][B]
b. [A]2[B]/[C]3
d. [C]3/[A]2[B]
4. When a system is at equilibrium state:
a. The concentration of reactants and products become equal
b. The opposing reactions(forward and reverse) stop
c. The rate of the reverse reaction become very low
d. The rates of the forward and reverse reactions become equal
5. Which one of the following statement is not correct about active mass?
a. Rate of reaction is directly proportional to active mass
b. Active mass is taken in molar concentration
c. Active mass is represented by square brackets
d. Active mass means total mass of substances
6. When the magnitude of Kc is very large it indicates
a. Reaction mixture consists of almost all products
b. Reaction mixture almost all reactants
c. Reaction has not gone to completion
d. Reaction mixture has negligible products
7. When the magnitude of Kc is very small it indicates:
a. Equilibrium will never establish
b. All reactants will be converted to products
c. Reaction will go to completion
d. The amount of products is negligible
8. Reactions which have comparable amounts of reactants and products at equilibrium state have:
a. Very small Kc value
c. moderate Kc value
b. Very large Kc value
d. none of these
9. At dynamic equilibrium
a. The reaction stops to proceed
b. The speeds of forward and reverse reactions are equal
c. The amounts of reactants and products are equal
d. The reaction can no longer be reversed
10. In an irreversible reaction, dynamic equilibrium
a. Never establishes
c. establishes before the completion of reaction
b. establishes after the completion of reaction
d. establishes readily
11. a reverse reaction is one that
a. which proceeds from left to right
c. in which reactants react to form products
b. which slows down gradually
d. which speeds up gradually
12. Nitrogen and hydrogen were reacted together to make ammonia:
N2 + 3H2
2NH3
Kc = 2.86 mol-2 dm6
What will be present in the equilibrium mixture?
a. NH3 only
c. N2 , H2 and NH3
b. N2 and H2
d. H2 only
13. For a reaction between PCl3 and Cl2 to form PCl5, the units of Kc are:
a. Mol dm-1
c. mol-1dm-1
b. mol-1dm3
d. Mol dm3
14. A base is a substance which neutralizes an acid. Which of these substances is not a base?
a. Aqueous ammonia
c. sodium chloride
b. Sodium carbonate
d. calcium oxide
15. Lewis acid-base concept has the following characteristics except:
a. Formation of an adduct
b. Formation of a coordinate covalent bond
c. Donation and acceptance of an electron pair
d. Donation and acceptance of a proton
16. Acetic acid is used for:
a. Flavouring food
c. making explosive
b. Etching design
d. cleaning metals
17. A salt is composed of:
a. A metallic cation
c. non-metallic anion
b. An anion of base
d. an anion of an acid
18. If a liquid has a pH of 7 then it must:
a. Be a colouless and odourless liquid
c. be neutral
b. Freezes at 0c and boils at 100c
d. be a solution containing water
19. A salt always:
a. Contains ions
c. contains water of crystallization
b. Dissolves in water
d. forms crystals which conduct electricity
20. Dilute acids react with carbonates to produce the given products except:
a. Salt
c. water
b. Carbon dioxide
d. hydrogen
21. In the preparation of insoluble salts, which one of the facts is incorrect?
a. Two soluble salts are mixed
c. two soluble salts are produced
b. One of the salts produced are in soluble
d. both of the salts produced are insoluble
22. A reaction between an acid and a base produces:
a. Salt and water
c. salt and gas
b. Salt and an acid
d. salt and a base
-2
23. The conjugate acid of HPO4 is:
a. PO4-3
c. H 2PO4-2
b. H 2PO4d. H 3PO4
24. What is the pOH of 0.02M Ca(OH)2?
a. 1.698
c. 1.397
b. 12.31
d. 12.61
25. Which one of the following species is not amphoteric?
a. H2O
c. NH3
b. HCO3
d. SO4-2
26. The product of Lewis acid-base reaction is called adduct. The bond between the adduct specie
is:
a. Ionic
c. covalent
b. Metallic
d. coordinate covalent
27. The water of crystallization is responsible for the:
a. Melting point of crystals
c. boiling point of crystals
b. Shapes of crystals
d. transition point of crystals
28. You want to dry a gas, which one of the following salt you will use:
a. CaCl2
c. NaCl
b. CaO
d. Na2SiO3
29. Ferric hydroxide (Fe(OH)3) is precipitated out of solution when sodium hydroxide solution is
added to ferric chloride.
FeCl3 + 3NaOH
Fe(OH)3
Colour of the precipitates is:
a. White
c. blue
b. Dirty green
d. brown
30. Which ion the conjugate base of sulphuric acid?
a. SO3-2
c. S-2
b. HSO3d. HSO431. Which one of the following is a Lewis base?
a. NH3
c. BF3
+
b. H
d. AlCl3
32. According to the Lewis concept, acid is a substance which can:
a. Donate a proton
c. donate a pair of electron
b. Accept a proton
d. accept a pair of electron
+
-14
33. Given Kw = [H ][OH ] = 1.0 x 10 at 25c. what is the concentration of H+ in pure water at 25c?
a. 1.0 x 10-7 moldm-3
c. 1.0 x 107 moldm-3
b. 1.0 x 10-14 moldm-3
d. 1.0 x 1014 moldm-3
34. The ability of carbon atoms to form chains is called:
a. Isomerism
c. catenation
b. Resonance
d. condensation
35. Coal having 90% carbon contents is called:
a. Peat
c. lignite
b. Anthracite
d. bituminous
36. Main component of natural gas is:
a. Methane
c. propane
b. Butane
d. propene
37. The strong heating of coal in retorts in the absence of air is called:
a. Fractional distillation
c. sublimation
b. roasting
d. destructive distillation
38. Pitch is black residue of:
a. coke
c. coal tar
b. coal
d. coal gas
39. Natural gas is 85% methane. It is used to make the following:
a. carbon black
c. coke
b. coal tar
d. coal gas
40. Which one of the following does not contain starch?
a. sugarcane
c. barley
b. maize
d. potatoes
41. petroleum is refined by:
a. destructive distillation
c. fractional distillation
b. simple distillation
d. dry distillation
42. In laboratory urea was prepared by:
a. Wholer
c. Rutherford
b. Berzillius
d. Dalton
43. General formula of alkyl radical is:
a. CnH2n+2
c. CnH2n-2
b. CnH2n+1
d. CnH2n
44. Identify which one compounds is a ketone:
a. (CH3)2CHOH
c. (CH3)2CO
b. (CH3)2NH
d. (CH3)2CHCl
45. The functional group –COOH is found in:
a. Carboxylic acid
c. aldehydes
b. alcohols
d. esters
46. Which one of the following statements is not true about fossil fuels?
a. They all contain carbon
c. they are renewable
b. They produce pollutants when burnt
d. they cause acid rain
47. Which one of the following is the hardest coal?
a. peat
c. lignite
b. bituminous
d. anthracite
48. In which of the following groups, oxygen is attached on both sides with carbon atoms?
a. ketone
c. ether
b. aldehyde
d. ester
49. Carbonization process is the conversion of:
a. coal into coal gas
c. coal into wood
b. wood into coal
d. wood into coal tar
50. Coal gas is a mixture of:
a. CO and CH4
c. CO , CO 2 and CH4
b. CO , H2 and CH4
d. CO, H2 and CO2
51. Which one of the following is a synthetic fibre?
a. cotton
c. wool
b. nylon
d. silk
52. Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?
a. coal
c. biogas
b. natural gas
d. petroleum
53. Which one of the following does not contain protein?
a. pulses
c. potatoes
b. beans
d. eggs
54. Conversion of dead plants into coal by the action of bacteria and heat is called:
a. carbonization
c. catenation
b. hydrogenation
d. cracking
55. Which one of the following compounds is an aldehyde?
a. CH3-CH2-OH
b. CH3CHO
56. Formula of acetaldehyde is:
a. CH3-CH2-OH
c.
d. CH3COCH3
c.
b.
d.
57. Which one of these hydrocarbon molecules would have no effect on an aqueous solution of
bromine?
a. CH4
c. C10H20
b. C2H4
d. C2H2
58. If an organic compound has 4 carbon atoms, all singly bonded, it will have the following
characteristics except one:
a. It will be saturated hydrocarbon
c. It will have 8 hydrogen atoms
b. Its name will be n-butane
d. It will be least reactive
59. The reaction of alkyl halides takes place in the presence of:
a. Zn/HCl
c. Na/HCl
b. Mg/HCl
d. Cu/HCl
60. Halogenations of methane does not produce which one of the following:
a. Carbon tetrachloride
c. Chloroform
b. Carbon black
d. Chloromethane
61. Incomplete combustion of alkanes produces:
a. Carbon dioxide only
c. Carbon monoxide only
b. Carbon monoxide and carbon black
d. Carbon dioxide and carbon black
62. Alkenes are prepared from alcohols by a process called:
a. Dehydrogenation
c. Dehalogenation
b. Dehydration
d. Dehydrohalogenation
63. Dehydrohalogenation takes place in the presence of:
a. NaOH aqueous
c. Alcoholic KOH
b. Aqueous KOH
d. Alcoholic NaOH
64. Oxidation of ethene with KMnO4 produces:
a. Oxalic acid
c. Glyoxal
b. Ethane glycol
d. Propene glycol
65. Which one of these is a saturated hydrocarbon?
a. C2H4
c. C3H6
b. C4H8
d. C5H12
66. A hydrocarbon has molecular formula C8H14. What is the molecular formula of the next member
of the same homologous series?
a. C9H18
c. C9H16
b. C9H20
d. C9H12
67. The molecular formula of the first three members of the alkane hydrocarbons are CH4, C2H6 and
C3H8. What is the molecular formula for the eighth alkane member, octane, which is found in
petrol?
a. C8H18
c. C8H16
b. C8H18
d. C8H20
68. One of the hydrocarbons reacts with one mole of hydrogen to form a saturated hydrocarbon.
What formula could be of X?
a. C3H8
c. C6H12
b. C4H10
d. C7H16
69. Dehydration of alcohols can be carried out by:
a. NaOH
c. KOH
b. H2SO4
d. HCl
70. The end product of oxidation of acetylene is:
a. Oxalic acid
c. glycol
b. Glyoxal
d. none of these
71. Dehalogenation of tetra halides produces acetylene. This reaction takes place in the presence
of:
a. Sodium metal
c. Zinc metal
b. Magnesium metal
d. Potassium metal
72. Substitution reaction is the characteristic of:
a. Alkanes
c. alkenes
b. Alkynes
d. none of these
73. Halogenations of methane in the presence of diffused sunlight takes place:
a. Suddenly, only in one step
c. slowly in one step
b. In a series of four steps
d. fastly in two steps
74. Which one of the following is a substitution reaction?
a. Halogenations of alkynes
c. halogenations of alkenes
b. Halogenations of alkanes
d. bromination of alkenes
75. The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides with alkenes is:
a. HI > HBr
c. HBr > HI
b. HCl > HBr
d. HBr< HCl
76. Oxidation of alkenes produce:
a. Glyoxal
c. glycol
b. Oxalic acid
d. formic acid
77. Carbohydrates are synthesized by plants through photosynthesis process which requires the
following except:
a. CO2 and water
c. presence of sunlight
b. O2
d. chlorophyll
78. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
a. Glucose
c. fructose
b. Sucrose
d. starch
79. Photosynthesis process produces:
a. Starch
c. cellulose
b. Sucrose
d. glucose
80. Which one of the following is tasteless?
a. Starch
c. glucose
b. Fructose
d. sucrose
81. When glucose and fructose combine, they produce:
a. Starch
c. cellulose
b. Sucrose
d. none of these
82. Glucose is:
a. Hexahydroxy aldehyde
c. hexahydroxy ketone
b. Pentahydroxy aldehyde
d. pentahydroxy ketone
83. Which one of the following is a triglyceride?
a. Carbohydrates
c. proteins
b. Lipids
d. vitamins
84. Enzymes are proteins which have the following properties except:
a. They catalyze reaction
c. they are highly non-specific
b. They are highly efficient
d. they are produced by living cells
85. Which one of the following vitamins is water soluble?
a. Vitamin A
c. vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
d. vitamin E
86. Which one of the following is a fat soluble vitamin?
a. A
c. E
b. K
d. none of these
87. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of monosaccharide?
a. Soluble in water
c. naturally occurring
b. Carbohydrates
d. disaccharides
88. Which one of the following is a reducing sugar?
a. Glucose
c. maltose
b. Sucrose
d. starch
89. The most important oligosaccharide is:
a. Sucrose
c. glucose
b. Fructose
d. maltose
90. Night blindness is because of the deficiency of:
a. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
91. The organic compounds used as drugs to control bleeding are:
a. Vitamins
c. proteins
b. Lipids
d. glycerides
92. Deficiency of vitamin E causes:
a. Rickets
c. scurvy
b. Anemia in babies
d. night blindness
93. Lipids are macromolecules. They have characteristics except one of the following:
a. They are high energy foods
c. they are soluble in water
b. They are poor conductor of heat
d. they are esters of fatty acids
94. Vitamins are accessory growth factors. They play important role in our body like:
a. Provide energy to the body
c. insulate our body from electric shocks
b. Build brain cells
d. regulate metabolic process
95. About 99 % atmosphere’s mass lies within:
a. 30 km
c. 35 km
b. 15 km
d. 11 km
96. Depending upon temperature variation, atmosphere is divided into how many regions?
a. One
c. two
b. Three
d. four
97. Just above the Earth’s surface is:
a. Mesosphere
c. stratosphere
b. Thermosphere
d. troposphere
98. A group of gases that maintains temperature of atmosphere is:
a. Carbon dioxide and water vapours
c. nitrogen and carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen and water vapours
d. nitrogen and oxygen
99. The Earth’s atmosphere is getting hotter because of increasing concentration of:
a. CO
c. CO2
b. O3
d. SO2
100.
Which one of the following is not a greenhouse effect?
a. Increasing atmospheric temperature
c. increasing food chains
b. Increasing flood risks
d. increasing sea-levels
101.
Normally rain water is weakly acidic because of:
a. SO3 gas
c. CO2 gas
b. SO2 gas
d. NO2 gas
102.
Buildings are being damaged by acid rain because it attacks:
a. Calcium sulphate
c. calcium nitrate
b. Calcium carbonate
d. calcium oxalate
103.
Acid rain effects the aquatic life by clogging fish gills because of:
a. Lead metal
c. chromium metal
b. Mercury metal
d. aluminum metal
104.
Ozone is beneficial for us as it:
a. Absorbs infrared radiations
c. absorbs ultraviolet radiations
b. Absorbs chlorofluorocarbons
d. absorbs air pollutants
105.
Which one of the following is not an air pollutant?
a. Nitrogen
c. carbon monoxide
b. Nitrogen dioxide
d. ozone
106.
Iron and steel structures are damaged by:
a. Carbon monoxide
c. sulphur dioxide
b. Methane
d. carbon dioxide
107.
Infrared radiations emitted by the earth are absorbed by:
a. CO2 and H2O
c. N2 and O2
b. CO2 and N2
d. O2 and CO2
108.
Global warming causes rising of the sea level. The cause of global warming is:
a. CO2 gas
c. SO2 gas
b. NOx gases
d. O3 gas
109.
Which gas protects the earth’s surface from ultraviolet radiations?
a. CO2
c. CO
b. N2
d. O3
110.
Effects of ozone depletion are following except the one:
a. Increases infectious diseases
c. increases crops production
b. Can cause skin cancer
d. can cause climatic changes
111.
Which one of these pollutants is not found in car exhaust fumes?
a. CO
c. O3
b. NO2
d. SO2
112.
The process by which atmospheric nitrogen is turned into nitrates in the soil is called:
a. Nitration
c. fixing
b. Oxidation
d. reduction
113.
Global warming is because of:
a. Absorption of infrared radiations emitted by the earth’s surface
b.
Absorption of infrared radiations coming from the sun
c. Absorption of ultraviolet radiations coming from the sun
d. Emission of ultraviolet radiations from the earth’s surface
114.
Carbon monoxide is harmful to us because:
a. It paralyses the lungs
c. it damages lungs tissues
b. It reduces oxygen carrying ability of hemoglobin d. it coagulates the blood
115.
Which one of the following properties of water is responsible for rising of water in
plants?
a. Specific heat capacity
c. surface tension
b. Excellent solvent action
d. capillary action
116.
Specific heat capacity of water is:
a. 4.2 kJg-1K-1
c. 4.2 Jg-1K-1
b. 2.4 kJg-1K-1
d. 2.4 kJg-1K-1
117.
Water dissolves non-ionic compound by:
a. Ion-ion forces
c. ion-dipole forces
b. Dipole-dipole forces
d. hydrogen bonding
118.
Temporary hardness is because of:
a. Ca(HCO3)2
c. CaCO3
b. MgCO3
d. MgSO4
119.
Temporary hardness is removed by adding:
a. Quicklime
c. slaked lime
b. Lime stone
d. lime water
120.
Permanent hardness is removed by adding:
a. Na zeolite
c. soda lime
b. Lime water
d. quick lime
121.
Which one of the following salts makes the water permanently hard?
a. Na2CO3
c. NaHCO3
b. Ca(HCO3)2
d. CaSO4
122.
Rapid growth of algae in water bodies is because of detergent having:
a. Carbonate salts
c. sulphonic acid salts
b. Sulphate salts
d. phosphate salts
123.
Depletion of O2 from water is not because of:
a. Decaying of aquatic plants
c. biodegradation of aquatic plants
b. Rapid growth of aquatic plants
d. decomposition of aquatic plants
124.
a.
b.
125.
a.
b.
126.
a.
b.
127.
a.
b.
128.
a.
b.
129.
a.
b.
130.
a.
b.
131.
a.
b.
132.
a.
b.
133.
a.
b.
134.
a.
b.
135.
a.
b.
136.
a.
b.
137.
a.
b.
Which one of the following diseases causes liver inflammation?
Typhoid
c. jaundice
Cholera
d. hepatitis
Which one of the following diseases causes severe diarrhea and can be fatal?
Jaundice
c. dysentery
Cholera
d. typhoid
Which one of the following gases is used to destroy harmful bacteria in water?
Iodine
c. chlorine
Fluorine
d. bromine
Which one of the following ions does not cause hardness in water?
+2
Ca
c. Mg+2
SO4-2
d. Na+
A disease that causes bone and tooth damage is:
Fluorosis
c. hepatitis
Cholera
d. jaundice
Ionic compounds are soluble in water due to:
Hydrogen bonding
c. ion-dipole forces
Dipole-dipole forces
d. dipole-induced dipole forces
The chemical used to kill or control pests are called pesticides. They are:
Dangerous inorganic chemicals
c. Dangerous organic chemicals
Beneficial inorganic chemicals
d. beneficial inorganic chemicals
Concentration is a:
Mixing technique
c. separating technique
Boiling technique
d. cooling technique
Froth floatation process is used to concentrate the ore on:
Density basis
c. concentration basis
Wetting basis
d. magnetic basis
Matte is a mixture of:
FeS and CuS
c. Cu2O and FeO
Cu2S and FeS
d. CuS and FeO
In the bassemerization process:
Roasted ore is heated
c. molten matte is removed
Molten matte is heated
d. molten matte is added
Concentration of the copper ore is carried out by:
Calcinations
c. roasting
Froth floatation
d. distillation
When CO2 is passed through the ammonical brine the only salt that precipitates is:
NaHCO3
c. NH4HCO3
Na2CO3
d. (NH4)2CO3
In Solvay’s process slaked lime is used to:
Prepare CO2
c. prepare quick lime
Remove ammonia
d. form Na2CO3
138.
a.
b.
139.
a.
b.
140.
a.
b.
141.
a.
b.
c.
d.
142.
a.
b.
143.
a.
b.
144.
a.
b.
145.
a.
b.
146.
a.
b.
When NaHCO3 is heated, it forms:
CO2
c. Ca(OH)2
CaCO3
d. CaO
Formula of urea is:
NH2COONH4
c. NH2COONH2
NH2CONH4
d. NH2CONH2
Crude oil is heated in furnace up to:
300 c
c. 350 c
400 c
d. 450 c
When heated crude oil is fed to the fractionating tower:
Vapours of higher boiling point fraction condense first in the lower part of the tower
Vapours of lower boiling point fraction condense first in the lower part of the tower
Vapours of higher boiling point fraction condense later in the upper part of the tower
Vapours of higher boiling point fraction never condense
Which one of the following is used as a jet fuel?
Kerosene oil
c. lubricating oil
f uel oil
d. diesel oil
Which one of the following is not fraction of the crude oil?
Paraffin wax
c. asphalt
Fuel oil
d. petroleum coke
Which one of the following is not fraction of the petroleum?
Kerosene oil
c. diesel oil
Alcohol
d. petrol
The nitrogen present in urea is used by plants to synthesize:
Sugar
c. proteins
Fats
d. DNA
Which one of the following organic compound is found in gasoline?
C2H4
c. C3H8
C8H18
d. C12H26