Z-Biology Midterm Review Bank-1
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. Which of the following is NOT a goal of science?
a. to investigate and understand the natural world
b. to explain events in the natural world
c. to use data to support a particular point of view
d. to use derived explanations to make useful predictions
2. Information gathered from observing a plant that grows 3 cm over a two-week period results in
a. inferences.
c. hypotheses.
b. variables.
d. data.
3. Which of the following is NOT a way that scientists generate hypotheses?
a. using informed, creative imagination
b. using logical inference
c. using prior knowledge
d. using a feeling about what should occur
4. Scientific hypotheses must be proposed in a way that
a. ensures that an experiment will be valid.
b. enables them to be proved valid.
c. enables them to be tested.
d. doesn’t contradict previous hypotheses.
5. A controlled experiment allows the scientist to isolate and test
a. a conclusion.
c. several variables.
b. a mass of information.
d. a single variable.
6. The ability to reproduce results (“repeatability”) is an important part of any
a. hypothesis.
c. law.
b. theory.
d. experiment.
7. A theory
a. is always true.
b. may be revised, but is not likely to be replaced.
c. is that of which we are most certain.
d. both b & c
8. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things?
a. growth and development
c. response to the environment
b. ability to move
d. ability to reproduce
9. The amount of light and temperature are examples of
a. characteristics of living things.
b. methods of energy production.
c. variables to which most living things respond.
d. factors that always affect reproduction.
10. Which of the following terms includes all the others?
a. biologist
c. zoologist
b. botanist
d. entomologist
11. The basic unit of mass in the International System of Units, or SI, is the
a. meter.
c. liter.
b. ounce.
d. gram.
____ 12. To observe a small living organism, a scientist might use a(an)
a. SEM.
c. compound light microscope.
b. TEM.
d. electron microscope.
____ 13. An instrument used to separate cell parts according to density is the
a. compound light microscope.
c. forceps
b. electron microscope.
d. centrifuge.
____ 14. Which of the following is a correctly written hypothesis statement?
a. If Mr. Z. has rocks in his head, and we throw him in the river, then he will sink head first.
b. If we throw Mr. Z. in the river and he sinks head first, then he has rocks in his head.
c. If Mr. Z. sinks head first when we throw him in the river, then he has rocks in his head.
d. none of these
____ 15. Because you may come in contact with organisms you cannot see, what safety procedure MUST be followed?
a. Read over your activity.
b. Open the windows of the laboratory.
c. Wash your hands thoroughly after completing the activity.
d. Do not wear long sleeves.
____ 16. The work of scientists begins with
a. testing a hypothesis.
c. creating experiments.
b. careful observations.
d. drawing conclusions.
____ 17. Hypotheses may arise from
a. prior knowledge.
c. imaginative guesses.
b. logical inferences.
d. all of these
____ 18. When the results of an experiment refute a hypothesis, the scientist may...
a. communicate her findings.
c. reformulate her hypothesis.
b. repeat the experiment.
d. all of these.
____ 19. Scientists publish (communicate) the details of important experiments so that
a. their techniques can be repeated.
b. their experimental methods can be reviewed.
c. others can try to reproduce the results.
d. all of the above
____ 20. A well-tested explanation that unifies a broad range of observations is a(an)
a. hypothesis.
c. inference.
b. theory.
d. controlled experiment.
____ 21. All of the following are characteristics of all living things EXCEPT
a. homeostasis.
c. evolutionary adaptation.
b. microscopic.
d. composed of one or more cells.
____ 22. Biology is the study of
a. the land, water, and air.
b. living things.
c. animals and plants only.
d. the human body only.
____ 23. The process by which organisms keep their internal conditions fairly constant is called
a. homeostasis.
c. metabolism
b. maintenance.
d. development.
____ 24. What is the term for a group of organisms of one species living in the same place at the same time?
a. biosphere
c. population
b. ecosystem
d. community
____ 25. In the SI system, the basic unit of length is the
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a. centimeter.
c. millimeter.
b. kilometer.
d. meter.
Which is NOT a unit of measurement in the International System of Units, or SI?
a. meter
c. liter
b. ounce
d. gram
An instrument that allows light to pass through the specimen and uses two lenses to form an image is a(an)
a. compound light microscope.
c. TEM.
b. electron microscope.
d. SEM.
What is the term given to a group of cells that develop from a single original cell?
a. community
c. cell differentiation
b. cell culture
d. cell fractionation
What technique is used to separate the different cell parts?
a. cell differentiation
c. cell fractionation
b. cell culture
d. all of these
Safety procedures are important when working
a. in a laboratory.
c. with animals.
b. in the field.
d. all of these
When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water would be
a. both a product and a reactant.
c. a product.
b. a reactant.
d. neither a product nor a reactant.
A substance that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a. element.
c. molecule.
b. lipid.
d. catalyst.
Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in
definite proportions?
a. enzyme
c. compound
b. isotope
d. nucleus
A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a. sharing electrons.
c. transferring protons.
b. transferring electrons.
d. sharing protons.
Which statement is true?
a. Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b. RNA molecules are made of nucleotides.
c. Amino acids are made of proteins.
d. Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
Water molecules are polar, with
a. the oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive.
b. the oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
c. the oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative.
d. the oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive.
Ice floats on water because
a. ice has a higher density than water.
c. water shrinks when it freezes.
b. water expands when it freezes.
d. of cohesion.
What is the process that changes one set of chemicals into another set of chemicals?
a. cohesion
c. adhesion
b. chemical reaction
d. dissolving
Suspensions are mixtures
a. of water and nondissolved material.
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b. in which the components are evenly distributed throughout the solution.
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a. chemical energy
c. adhesion energy
b. cohesion energy
d. activation energy
Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a. products of the reaction.
c. temperature of the environment.
b. speed of the reaction.
d. pH of the reaction.
What type of electron is available to form bonds?
a. ionic
c. nucleus
b. covalent
d. valence
A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a. neither an acid nor a base.
c. a base.
b. both an acid and a base.
d. an acid.
What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a. possibly positive or negative
c. negative
b. neutral
d. positive
Chemical reactions that release energy
a. will always explode.
b. will not occur.
c. will never explode.
d. often occur spontaneously.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a. a different number of molecules.
c. a different number of neutrons.
b. a different number of electrons.
d. the same number of neutrons.
Solutions that contain concentrations of H+ ions lower than pure water
a. are enzymes.
c. are acids.
b. are bases.
d. have pH values below 7.
Which of the following statements about a compound is true?
a. The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually very different from those
of the elements from which it is formed.
b. Only the physical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements
from which it is formed.
c. Only the chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements
from which it is formed.
d. The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the
elements from which it is formed.
The nucleus is made of
a. protons, neutrons, and electrons.
c. electrons and neutrons.
b. protons and electrons.
d. protons and neutrons.
A solution is a(an)
a. combination of two or more liquids.
b. evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
c. chemical reaction.
d. breaking of a chemical bond.
The three particles that make up an atom are
a. protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
c. positives, negatives, and electrons.
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b. protons, neutrons, and electrons.
d. neutrons, isotopes, and electrons.
If a reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a. absorbs energy.
c. cannot occur.
b. destroys energy.
d. also releases energy.
The space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains
a. neutrons.
c. electrons.
b. ions.
d. protons.
The most abundant compound in most living things is
a. sugar.
c. carbon dioxide.
b. sodium chloride.
d. water.
Which of the following is a use of radioactive isotopes?
a. used as “tracers” to follow the movements of substances within organisms
b. can determine the ages of rocks and fossils
c. can be used to treat cancer and kill bacteria that cause food to spoil
d. all of the above
A monosaccharide is a
a. nucleic acid.
c. lipid.
b. protein.
d. carbohydrate.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a. help to fight disease
b. store and transmit heredity
c. used to form bones and muscles
d. control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a. reactant.
c. solution.
b. solvent.
d. solute.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a. nucleic acids
c. carbohydrates
b. proteins
d. lipids
Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a. one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
b. two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
c. one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
d. one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
What did Griffith observe when he injected into mice a mixture of heat-killed disease-causing bacteria and
live harmless bacteria?
a. The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b. The mice developed pneumonia.
c. The harmless bacteria died.
d. The mice were unaffected.
Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a. ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b. ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c. deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a. each with two new strands.
b. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
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c. each with one new strand and one original strand.
d. each with two original strands.
During mitosis, the
a. DNA molecules unwind.
b. histones and DNA molecules separate.
c. DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d. nucleosomes become less tightly packed.
Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a. adenine.
c. phosphate groups.
b. uracil.
d. thymine.
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a. transfer RNA only
b. messenger RNA only
c. ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d. messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed
a. that is complementary to both strands of DNA.
b. that is complementary to neither strand of DNA.
c. that is double-stranded.
d. inside the nucleus.
How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a. 3
c. 9
b. 6
d. 12
Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?
a. intron
c. polypeptide
b. tRNA
d. anticodon
Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a. rRNA
c. mRNA
b. tRNA
d. RNA polymerase
Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation?
a. inversion
c. deletion
b. insertion
d. substitution
Which of the following statements is true?
a. A promoter determines whether a gene is expressed.
b. An expressed gene is turned off.
c. Proteins that bind to regulatory sites on DNA determine whether a gene is expressed.
d. RNA polymerase regulates gene expression.
A lac repressor turns off the lac genes by binding to
a. the promoter.
c. the operator.
b. tRNA.
d. the lac genes.
Gene regulation in eukaryotes
a. usually involves operons.
b. is simpler than in prokaryotes.
c. allows for cell specialization.
d. includes the action of DNA polymerase.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b. Hox genes that are found in different animals are not very different from each other.
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c. Hox genes control the normal development of an animal.
d. Hox genes occur in clusters.
Avery’s experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by
a. RNA.
c. proteins.
b. DNA.
d. carbohydrates.
DNA is copied during a process called
a. replication.
c. transcription.
b. translation.
d. transformation.
In eukaryotes, DNA
a. is located in the nucleus.
c. is located in the ribosomes.
b. floats freely in the cytoplasm.
d. is circular.
RNA contains the sugar
a. ribose.
c. glucose.
b. deoxyribose.
d. lactose.
Which RNA molecule carries amino acids?
a. messenger RNA
c. ribosomal RNA
b. transfer RNA
d. RNA polymerase
What is produced during transcription?
a. RNA molecules
c. RNA polymerase
b. DNA molecules
d. proteins
What does Figure 12-6 show?
Figure 12-6
a. anticodons
b. the order in which amino acids are linked
c. the code for splicing mRNA
d. the genetic code
____ 83. What happens during the process of translation?
a. Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b. The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c. Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
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d. Copies of DNA molecules are made.
Genes contain instructions for assembling
a. purines.
c. proteins.
b. nucleosomes.
d. pyrimidines.
A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called a(an)
a. chromosomal mutation.
c. point mutation.
b. inversion.
d. translocation.
A promoter is a
a. binding site for DNA polymerase.
b. binding site for RNA polymerase.
c. start signal for transcription.
d. stop signal for transcription.
In E. coli, the lac operon controls the
a. breakdown of lactose.
c. breakdown of glucose.
b. production of lactose.
d. production of glucose.
Which of the following is NOT generally part of a eukaryotic gene?
a. operon
c. promoter sequences
b. TATA box
d. enhancer sequences
Hox genes determine an animal’s
a. basic body plan.
c. skin color.
b. size.
d. eye color.
Which of the following is an autotroph?
a. mushroom
c. monkey
b. dog
d. tree
Which of the following is NOT an example of a heterotroph?
a. mushroom
c. grass
b. leopard
d. human
Energy is released from ATP when
a. a phosphate group is added.
c. ATP is exposed to sunlight.
b. adenine bonds to ribose.
d. a phosphate group is removed.
Figure 8–1
____ 93. Look at Figure 8-1. All of the following are parts of an ADP molecule EXCEPT
a. structure A.
c. structure C.
b. structure B.
d. structure D.
____ 94. Which structures shown in Figure 8-1 make up an ATP molecule?
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a. A and B
c. A, B, C, and D
b. A, B, and C
d. C and D
In Figure 8-1, between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a. A and B
c. C and D
b. B and C
d. all of the above
Which scientists showed that plants need light to grow?
a. van Helmont and Calvin
c. van Helmont and Priestley
b. Priestley and Ingenhousz
d. Priestley and Calvin
Which of the following are used in the overall reactions for photosynthesis?
a. carbon dioxide
c. light
b. water
d. all of the above
Most plants appear green because chlorophyll
a. does not absorb green light.
c. absorbs green light.
b. reflects violet light.
d. none of the above
A granum is a(an)
a. stack of chloroplasts.
c. membrane enclosing a thylakoid.
b. stack of thylakoids.
d. photosynthetic pigment molecule.
The light-collecting units of a chloroplast are the
a. electron carriers.
c. stroma.
b. photosystems.
d. high-energy sugars.
What are the products of the light-dependent reactions?
a. oxygen gas
c. NADPH
b. ATP
d. all of the above
Which step is the beginning of photosynthesis?
a. Pigments in photosystem I absorb light.
b. Pigments in photosystem II absorb light.
c. High-energy electrons move through the electron transport chain.
d. ATP synthase allows H+ ions to pass through the thylakoid membrane.
The Calvin cycle takes place in the
a. stroma.
c. thylakoid membranes.
b. photosystems.
d. chlorophyll molecules.
If carbon dioxide is removed from a plant’s environment, what would you expect to happen to its production
of high-energy sugars?
a. More sugars will be produced.
b. No sugars will be produced.
c. The same number of sugars will be produced but without carbon dioxide.
d. Carbon dioxide does not affect the production of high-energy sugars in plants.
If you continue to increase the intensity of light that a plant receives, what happens?
a. The rate of photosynthesis increases with light intensity.
b. The rate of photosynthesis decreases with light intensity.
c. The rate of photosynthesis increases and then levels off.
d. The rate of photosynthesis does not change.
Organisms, such as plants, that make their own food are called
a. autotrophs.
c. thylakoids.
b. heterotrophs.
d. pigments.
Organisms that cannot make their own food and must obtain energy from the foods they eat are called
a. autotrophs.
c. thylakoids.
b. heterotrophs.
d. plants.
____ 108. Which of the following is NOT a part of an ATP molecule?
a. adenine
c. chlorophyll
b. ribose
d. phosphate
____ 109. Jan van Helmont concluded that plants gain most of their mass from
a. water.
c. carbon dioxide in the air.
b. the soil.
d. oxygen in the air.
____ 110. Ingenhousz showed that plants produce oxygen bubbles when exposed to
a. ATP.
c. light.
b. carbon dioxide.
d. a burning candle.
____ 111. Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into
a. oxygen.
c. ATP and oxygen.
b. high-energy sugars.
d. oxygen and high-energy sugars.
____ 112. Plants gather the sun’s energy with light-absorbing molecules called
a. pigments.
c. chloroplasts.
b. thylakoids.
d. glucose.
____ 113. Plants take in the sun’s energy by absorbing
a. high-energy sugars.
c. chlorophyll b.
b. chlorophyll a.
d. sunlight.
____ 114. The stroma is the space that surrounds
a. thylakoids.
c. plant cells.
b. chloroplasts.
d. all of the above
____ 115. Where do the light-dependent reactions take place?
a. in the stroma
c. in the thylakoid membranes
b. outside the chloroplasts
d. only in chlorophyll molecules
____ 116. Where are photosystems I and II found?
a. in the stroma
c. in the Calvin cycle
b. in the thylakoid membrane
d. all of the above
____ 117. The Calvin cycle is another name for
a. light-independent reactions.
b. light-dependent reactions.
c. photosynthesis.
d. all of the above
____ 118. What is a product of the Calvin cycle?
a. oxygen gas
c. high-energy sugars
b. ATP
d. carbon dioxide
____ 119. Which of the following affects the rate of photosynthesis?
a. water
c. light intensity
b. temperature
d. all of the above
____ 120. Which of the following is NOT a stage of cellular respiration?
a. fermentation
c. glycolysis
b. electron transport
d. Krebs cycle
____ 121. What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?
a. oxygen and lactic acid
c. glucose and oxygen
b. carbon dioxide and water
d. water and glucose
____ 122. The starting molecule for glycolysis is
a. ADP.
c. citric acid.
b. pyruvic acid.
d. glucose.
____ 123. One cause of muscle soreness is
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a. alcoholic fermentation.
c. lactic acid fermentation.
b. glycolysis.
d. the Krebs cycle.
Which process is used to produce beer and wine?
a. lactic acid fermentation
c. alcoholic fermentation
b. glycolysis
d. the Krebs cycle
The conversion of pyruvic acid into lactic acid requires
a. alcohol.
c. ATP.
b. oxygen.
d. NADH.
Which organism is NOT likely to carry out cellular respiration?
a. tree
c. anaerobic bacterium
b. mushroom
d. tiger
During one turn, the Krebs cycle produces
a. oxygen.
c. electron carriers.
b. lactic acid.
d. glucose.
Which of the following passes high-energy electrons into the electron transport chain?
a. NADH and FADH2
c. citric acid
b. ATP and ADP
d. acetyl-CoA
Cellular respiration uses one molecule of glucose to produce
a. 2 ATP molecules.
c. 36 ATP molecules.
b. 34 ATP molecules.
d. 40 ATP molecules.
Breathing heavily after running a race is your body’s way of
a. making more citric acid.
b. repaying an oxygen debt.
c. restarting glycolysis.
d. recharging the electron transport chain.
All of the following are sources of energy during exercise EXCEPT
a. stored ATP.
c. lactic acid fermentation.
b. alcoholic fermentation.
d. cellular respiration.
Which process does NOT release energy from glucose?
a. glycolysis
c. fermentation
b. photosynthesis
d. cellular respiration
Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to
a. chloroplasts.
c. mitochondria.
b. cytoplasm.
d. nucleus.
Plants cannot release energy from glucose using
a. glycolysis.
c. the Krebs cycle.
b. photosynthesis.
d. cellular respiration.
Which of the following is released during aerobic cellular respiration?
a. oxygen
c. energy
b. air
d. lactic acid
Cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down
a. food molecules.
c. carbon dioxide.
b. ATP.
d. water.
Which of these is a product of cellular respiration?
a. oxygen
c. glucose
b. water
d. all of the above
Which of these processes takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell?
a. glycolysis
c. Krebs cycle
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b. electron transport
d. all of the above
Glycolysis provides a cell with a net gain of
a. 2 ATP molecules.
c. 18 ATP molecules.
b. 4 ATP molecules.
d. 36 ATP molecules.
Lactic acid fermentation occurs in
a. bread dough.
b. any environment containing oxygen.
c. muscle cells.
d. mitochondria.
The two main types of fermentation are called
a. alcoholic and aerobic.
c. alcoholic and lactic acid.
b. aerobic and anaerobic.
d. lactic acid and anaerobic.
In the presence of oxygen, glycolysis is followed by
a. lactic acid fermentation.
c. photosynthesis.
b. alcoholic fermentation.
d. the Krebs cycle.
Cellular respiration is called an aerobic process because it requires
a. light.
c. oxygen.
b. exercise.
d. glucose.
The starting molecule for the Krebs cycle is
a. glucose.
c. pyruvic acid.
b. NADH.
d. coenzyme A.
In eukaryotes, electron transport occurs in the
a. mitochondria.
c. cell membrane.
b. chloroplasts.
d. cytoplasm.
The energy of the electrons passing along the electron transport chain is used to make
a. lactic acid.
c. alcohol.
b. citric acid.
d. ATP.
When the body needs to exercise for longer than 90 seconds, it generates ATP by carrying out
a. lactic acid fermentation.
c. cellular respiration.
b. alcoholic fermentation.
d. glycolysis.
Unlike photosynthesis, cellular respiration occurs in
a. animal cells only.
c. all but plant cells.
b. plant cells only.
d. all eukaryotic cells.
The products of photosynthesis are the
a. products of cellular respiration.
c. products of glycolysis.
b. reactants of cellular respiration.
d. reactants of fermentation.
Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
150. The information you gather during an experiment is called your ____________________.
151. Based on his ____________________, Redi made a prediction that keeping flies away from meat would
prevent maggots appearing on the meat.
152. The name given to the idea that life could arise from nonliving matter is called _____________
______________.
153. The chemical reactions through which an organism builds up or breaks down materials as it carries out its life
processes is called ____________________.
154. The variable that is deliberately changed in the eperimental group during an experiment is the
____________________ variable. (Hint: Other name for independent.)
155. The information gathered from observation is called ____________________.
156. The smallest units that are considered to be alive are called ____________________.
157. A revised version of the original ____________________ system is called SI, an abbreviation for the Système
International d’Unités.
158. The ____________ _____________ microscope is generally used in high-school laboratories.
159. An instrument used to separate cell parts according to density is called a(an) ____________________.
160. _____ What is the difference between a theory and a hypothesis?
a. A theory applies to a well-tested explanation that unifies a broad range of observations; a hypothesis is a
possible explanation for a set of observations.
b. A hypothesis applies to a well-tested explanation that unifies a broad range of observations; a theory is a
possible explanation for a set of observations.
c. A hypothesis is that of which we are certain and a theory is that of which we are most certain.
d. Both a and c
161. _____ What are the differences between sexual and asexual reproduction?
a. In asexual reproduction, two cells from different parents unite to produce the first cell of the new organism,
whereas in sexual reproduction, the new organism has a single parent.
b. In sexual reproduction, two cells from different parents unite to produce the first cell of the new organism,
whereas in asexual reproduction, the new organism has a single parent.
c. In sexual reproduction, two cells from a single parent unite to produce the first cell of the new organism,
whereas in asexual reproduction, the new organism has two parents.
d. In sexual reproduction, two cells from different parents unite to produce the first cell of the new organism,
whereas in asexual reproduction, the new organism has no parent(s).
162. _____ How do light microscopes differ from electron microscopes?
a. Electron microscopes produce images by focusing visible light rays, whereas light microscopes produce
images by focusing beams of electrons.
b. Light microscopes are named for the fact that they don’t weigh as much as electron microscopes.
c. Light microscopes produce images by focusing visible light rays, whereas electron microscopes produce
images by focusing beams of electrons.
d. Light microscopes require light to shine through the specimen while electron microscopes detect light that
bounces off the specimen.
163. _____ Which of the following five levels of biological organization are in order?
a. subatomic, atomic, molecular, organelle, cell
b. individual, population, community, ecosystem, biome
c. cell, tissue, organ, organ system, individual
d. all of these
164. _____ What does cell fractionation allow a scientist to study?
a. a particular organelle after separating them according to density using a centrifuge.
b. a particular organelle after separating them using a microscope.
c. a split in a cell, called a fracture.
d. the fraction of time each organelle appears in the cell.
Figure 1-1
165. _____ According to Figure 1-1, how many populations of animals are represented?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 5
d. 0
166. _____ According to Figure 1-1, what are the nonliving elements in this ecosystem?
a. nonliving elements include sunlight, air, rocks, dirt, and water
b. nonliving elements include sunlight, air, rocks, dirt, clouds, grass, and water
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
167. _____ The ecosystem shown in Figure 1-1 is part of what larger level of organization?
a. biosphere
b. community c. biome
d. habitat
168. _____ Each population in Figure 1-1 is made up of what smaller level of organization?
a. communities b. habitats
c. individuals d. food webs
169. _____ A population of rabbits lives on the other side of the prairie shown in Figure 1-1. Are the rabbits
considered part of this community?
a. Yes, the rabbits live in a different area. A community is defined as the populations that live together in a
defined area.
b. No, the rabbits live in a different area. A population is defined as the communities that live together in a
defined area.
c. Yes, they are the same species, so they are part of the same population and community.
d. No, the rabbits live in a different area. A community is defined as the populations that live together in a
defined area.
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
A student prepared two beakers with identical sprigs of a water plant as shown below. She placed one beaker
in the shade and the other beaker beside a fluorescent lamp. She then systematically changed the distance of
the beaker from the lamp. She counted the bubbles given off by each sprig of the water plant. Shown here is
the graph of the data for the beaker she placed in the light.
Figure 8-3
170. Which beaker is the student’s control beaker?
A. the one in the shade
B. the one in the light?
171. Look at Figure 8-3. If the student later tested the air bubbles collected in the test tube, what would she find
they are made of?
A. CO2
B. O2
C. H2O
D. H+
172. Look at the graph in Figure 8-3. At what distance from the light source was the greatest number of bubbles
produced?
A. 30 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 25 cm
173. Look at the graph in Figure 8-3. What does the student’s data show?
A. As the distance from the light source increases, the rate of photosynthesis increases.
B. As the distance from the light source increases, the rate of photosynthesis decreases.
C. As the distance from the light source decreases, the rate of photosynthesis decreases.
D. None of these
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Figure 8–4
174. What process is shown in Figure 8-4?
A. Cellular Respiration B. Photosynthesis
C. Fermentation
175. What structure is shown in Figure 8-4?
A. Chloroplast
B. Matrix
C. ATP synthase
D. Anaerobic Respiration
D. Mitochondria
176. Look at Figure 8-4. What are the products of the light-dependent reactions?
A. NADP+, ADP, P, Sugars
C. ATP, NADPH, O2
B. H2O, Light, NADP+, ADP D. CO2, ATP, NADPH
177. What are the products of the Calvin cycle shown in Figure 8-4?
A. NADP+, ADP, P, Sugars
C. ATP, NADPH, O2
B. H2O, Light, NADP+, ADP D. CO2, ATP, NADPH
178. In Figure 8-4, what chemical from the atmosphere is used in the Calvin cycle to produce sugars?
A. H2O B. O2
C. CO2
D. Light
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
A scientist set up a respiration chamber as shown in Figure 9-2. She placed a mouse in flask B. Into flasks A,
C, and D, she poured distilled water mixed with the acid-base indicator phenolphthalein. In the presence of
CO2, phenolphthalein turns from pink to clear. She allowed the mouse to stay in the chamber for about an
hour.
Figure 9–2
179. Look at the flasks in Figure 9-2. Will the mouse receive fresh air so that it can survive? Which of the
following answers this question and completely describes the flow of materials through the flasks?
A. Yes! Fresh air with CO2 is flowing through each flask.
B. No! Fresh air with CO2 is flowing through flasks C & D, but not A & B
C. Yes! Fresh air with O2 is flowing through all of the flasks, but the mouse is adding CO2 to the air going
into flask A.
D. No! Fresh air with CO2 is flowing through all of the flasks, but the mouse is adding O2 to the air going
into flask A.
180. Based on Figure 9-2, how will the scientist be able to detect whether the mouse is carrying out cellular
respiration?
A. The water in all flasks will remain pink.
C. The water in flask A will remain pink.
B. The water in flasks C and D will clear.
D. The water in flask A will become clear.
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Figure 9–3
181. What process does Figure 9-3 show?
A. The light dependent reactions.
B. The electron transport chain
C. The light independent reactions
D. The Krebs cycle.
182. Look at Figure 9-3. Where do the electrons moving along the inner membrane come from?
A. Water
B. Glycolysis & Krebs Cycle C. Light
D. Electron Transport Chain
183. Where do the electrons moving along the inner membrane in Figure 9-3 end up?
A. They are accepted by NADH C. They are accepted by NADPH
B. They are accepted by O2
D. They are accepted by ADP
184. ATP synthase is an enzyme. Find ATP synthase in Figure 9-3. What reaction does ATP synthase catalyze when
an H+ ion passes through its channel? Which of the following identifies the source of energy for this
reaction?
A. As electrons pass down the electron transport chain, H+ ions are pumped to the intermembrane space
producing an electrochemical gradient which powers ATP synthesis.
B. As electrons pass down the electron transport chain, NADH and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD
which powers ATP synthesis.
C. As electrons pass down the electron transport chain they end up at ATP synthase and their energy is used
directly to power ATP synthesis.
D. The electrons passing down the electron transport chain have nothing to do with ATP synthesis.
Numeric Response
For the remaining questions, you MUST type in one lower case letter ONLY!
Element
Symbol
Protons
Neutrons
Hydrogen
H
1
Helium
He
2
Carbon
C
6
Oxygen
O
8
Neon
Ne
Aluminum
Al
Zinc
Zn
Electrons
6
8
10
10
13
185. Based on Figure 2-2, what is the atomic number of oxygen?
a. 16 b. 8
c. 4
d. 6
186. Based on Figure 2-2, what is the mass number of carbon?
a. 12 b. 6
c. 18 d. 3
187. According to Figure 2-2, an atom of which element contains two neutrons?
a. Carbon
b. Oxygen
c. Helium
d. Hydrogen
188. Using Figure 2-2, how many electrons does an atom of aluminum contain?
a. 26 b. 6.5 c. the same as Neon
d. 13
189. From Figure 2-2, which element has a mass number of 16?
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon
c. Neon
d. Hydrogen
pH Values of Some Common Substances
pH
Hydrochloric acid
1.0
Sulfuric acid
1.2
Tomatoes
4.2
Rainwater
6.2
Pure water
7.0
20
27
30
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Mass
Number
4
Figure 2–2
Substance
Atomic
Number
1
30
65
Sea water
8.5
Ammonium chloride
11.1
Sodium hydroxide
13.0
Figure 2–1
190. A change of one unit on the pH scale represents a tenfold increase in the concentration of hydrogen ions.
According to the pH values listed in Figure 2-1, how much greater is the hydrogen ion concentration in
tomatoes than in rainwater?
a. 10 times
b. 100 times
c. 2 times
d. 1000 times
191. What is the pH of the strongest base listed in Figure 2-1?
a. 1.0 b. 11.1 c. 13.0 d. 6.2
192. What is the pH of the weakest acid listed in Figure 2-1?
a. 4.2 b. 6.2 c. 8.5 d. 1.0
193. What is the strongest acid listed in Figure 2-1?
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Sulfuric acid c. Tomatoes
d. Sodium hydroxide
194. According to the pH values of Figure 2-1, does a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration less than that of
pure water have a pH greater or less than 7?
a. greater than b. less than
c. neither
d. both
195.
Figure 12–1
Figure 12-1 shows the structure of a(an)
A. DNA molecule.
B. amino acid. C. RNA molecule.
D. protein.
196. The structure labeled X in Figure 12-1 is a(an) ____________________.
A) deoxyribose
B) nucleotide
C) nitrogenous base
D. amino acid
197. The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA determines the order of ______________ in proteins.
A) ribosomes
B) nucleotides
C) amino acids
D) bases
198. There is no ___________ that is specified by a stop codon on an mRNA molecule.
A) amino acid
B) nucleotide
C) rRNA
D) deoxyribose
199. The lac repressor releases the operator in the presence of ____________________.
A) the regulator
B) enzyme
C) operon
D) lactose
200. In eukaryotes, proteins that attract RNA polymerase bind to ____________________ sequences in DNA.
A) promoter
B) regulatory
C) enhancer
D) TATA
201. According to the principle of ____________________, hydrogen bonds can form only between adenine and
thymine, and between guanine and cytosine.
A) sequence
B) Crick’s Rule
C) codons
D) base pairing
202. Chromatin contains proteins called ____________________.
A) histones
B) nucleotides
C) regulators
D) nucleosomes
203.
Figure 12–7
In Figure 12-7, A, B, and C are three types of ____________________.
A) protein
B) RNA
C) DNA
D) polypeptide
204. After introns are cut out of an RNA molecule, the remaining ____________________ are spliced back
together to form the final messenger RNA.
A) processing
B) histones
C) non-coding regions
D) exons
205. A mutation in a series of genes, called the ____________________, can change the organs that develop in
specific parts of an embryo.
A) HOX genes
B) frameshift
C) translocation
D) regulatory genes
Figure 12–4
206. What process is illustrated in Figure 12-4?
A) replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) mutation
207. Identify structure C in Figure 12-4.
A) nucleus
B) codon
C) ribosome
D) anticodon
208. Which labeled structure in Figure 12-4 is a codon?
A) A
B) E
C) F
D) D
209. What is the relationship between the codons and anticodons in Figure 12-4?
A) They are complementary
C) They have the same sequence.
B) One was made from the other.
D) None of these.
210. In Figure 12-4, what will happen after the ribosome joins the methionine and asparagine?
A) The tRNAs will bind to each other and then disintegrate.
B) The tRNAs will become part of the ribosome.
C) The ribosome will move over one codon and methionine’s tRNA will leave.
D) The ribosome will move over one codon and asparagine’s tRNA will leave.
Figure 12–8
211. What general type of mutation results from processes A, B, C, and D in Figure 12-8?
A) chromosomal mutation B) gene mutation C) frameshift mutation D) point mutation
212. In Figure 12-8, which process or processes involve two chromosomes? (Chose from the letters in the figure.)
213. Which process or processes are shown in D of Figure 12-8?
A) deletion
B) duplication C) inversion
D) translocation
214. During which process in Figure 12-8 does a segment of a chromosome become oriented in the reverse
direction? (Chose from the letters in the figure.)
215. Which process or processes are shown in C of Figure 12-8?
A) deletion
B) duplication C) inversion
D) translocation