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BIOLOGY 2201
SAMPLE EXAM
Value: 100 marks
Time: 3 hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This is a two-part test. Part I consists of 75 multiple-choice items. Part II consists of
eight written response items. Part I has a total value of 75 marks. Part II has a total value
of 25 marks.
2.
Part I is to be answered using the answer sheet supplied. Instructions for completing this
answer sheet are given on the sheet itself. Please complete it according to those
instructions and any others given by the supervisor.
3.
Part II is to be answered in the spaces provided in this test booklet. Please pass in the
entire test booklet to the supervisor when you have finished the examination.
4.
Rough work may be done in any blank spaces in Part I and on the blank pages throughout
Part II.
REGULATIONS FOR STUDENTS
Students are expected to be thoroughly familiar with all regulations pertaining to their conduct during the
examinations. Students should ensure that they understand and comply with all requirements governing the following
matters:
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)
)
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Materials required
Punctuality
Leaving the room
Use of answer booklets
Use of handheld calculator
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Use of pen or pencil
Use of unauthorized means, and penalties
Completion of required information
Materials not permitted
Communication and movement during the
examination
Part I
Total Value:75%
Shade in the letter of the correct answer on the answer sheet provided.
1.
Which microscope would you use to observe sections (slices) of objects that are 10 nm
apart?
(A)
Light and transmission electron microscope
(A)
Light microscope
(B)
Scanning electron microscope
(C)
Transmission electron microscope
2.
Chlamydomonas is a motile, unicellular and photosynthetic organism with a membranebound nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts, but lacks a cellulose cell wall. Which
statement best describes Chlamydomonas ?
(A)
It is a eukaryotic animal because it is motile and has mitochondria.
(B)
It is a eukaryotic protist because it has membranous organelles and is unicellular.
(C)
It is a prokaryote because it lacks a cellulose cell wall and a nuclear membrane.
(D)
It is a true plant because it is photosynthetic and has a cell wall.
3.
What are the components of the cell (plasma) membrane that enables regulation of the
movement of substances in and out of the cell?
(A)
Amino acids and sugar
(B)
Protein and lipids
(C)
Starch and amino acids
(D)
Starch and lipids
4.
Which statement best describes the modern cell theory?
(A)
All organisms are composed of numerous cells.
(B)
Different cells are specialized to perform various functions.
(C)
The cell is the basic unit of structure and function of all organisms.
(D)
The total activity of an organism depends on the function of some specialized
cells.
5.
Which structure would a fungus lack?
(A)
Chromosome
(B)
Lysosome
(C)
Nucleoli
(D)
Ribosome
6.
In which circumstance does diffusion take place?
(A)
Against a concentration gradient.
(B)
In living cells.
(C)
In osmotic systems.
(D)
In the presence of concentration differences.
7.
Which terms below describes the transport of materials in all living organisms without
the expenditure of energy?
(A)
Active transport and diffusion
(B)
Active transport and osmosis
(C)
Active transport and pinocytosis
(D)
Osmosis and diffusion
8.
If the extracellular fluid has the same concentration of Na+ and Cl- ions as the cytoplasm,
what can be said about the fluid?
(A)
It is hypertonic.
(B)
It is ionized.
(C)
It is isotonic.
(D)
It is saturated.
How does active transport differ from diffusion?
(A)
Active transport occurs only in amoeboid cells.
(B)
Active transport requires that a cell use energy.
(C)
Diffusion cannot occur across a cell membrane.
(D)
Diffusion is a process limited to the movement of water molecules.
9.
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10.
Which is a characteristic of both human and E.coli cells?
(A)
They both have a nucleus.
(B)
They both have equal amounts of DNA.
(C)
They both have extracellular fluid.
(D)
They both have membrane bound organelles.
11.
Who fully supported the abiogenesis theory?
(A)
Needham
(B)
Pasteur
(C)
Redi
(D)
Spallanzani
12.
A student had determined that the field of view of her microscope was 2000um. If her
initial measurement was 5 mm under low power, what objective lens was she using to
draw her biological drawing?
(A)
High
(B)
Low
(C)
Medium
(D)
Oil immersion
13.
Which structure differentiates a plant cell from an animal cell?
(A)
Cell membrane
(B)
Chloroplast
(C)
Mitochondria
(D)
Nucleus
14.
Which method would best identify cod fish that has already been filleted and salted?
(A)
Dichotomous key
(B)
DNA analysis
(C)
Microscope
(D)
Visual examination
15.
Which is a difference between scanning electron microscopes (SEM) and transmission
electron microscopes (TEM)?
(A)
SEM are battery operated, while TEM are electrical
(B)
SEM has two ocular structures, while TEM has one ocular structure
(C)
SEM uses only fine adjustments, while TEM uses only coarse adjustments.
(D)
SEM view in 3-dimensions, while TEM view in 2 - dimensions
16.
Why do local grocery stores spray fresh vegetables with water on a regular basis?
(A)
To keep them clean.
(B)
To maintain a hypertonic situation
(C)
To maintain a hypotonic situation
(D)
To maintain an isotonic situation
17.
Which best describes a Paramecium?
(A)
Eukaryotic
(B)
Multicellular
(C)
Prokaryotic
(D)
Sessile
Which best describes the movement of alcohol into body cells?
(A)
Active transport
(B)
Facilitated diffusion
(C)
Osmosis
(D)
Phagocytosis
18.
19.
Which statement is true for ferns?
(A)
They contain xylem and phloem.
(B)
They do not require water for fertilization.
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(C)
(D)
They produce flowers.
They produce seeds.
20.
An organism was discovered that could undergo photosynthesis, is multi-cellular but
lacked roots and leaves. What Kingdom would this organism best fit into?
(A)
Bacteria
(B)
Fungi
(C)
Plantae
(D)
Protista
21.
What is the correct sequence for the lytic cycle of a virus?
(A)
entry, assembly, replication, lysis
(B)
entry, replication, assembly, lysis
(C)
replication, assembly, entry, lysis
(D)
replication, entry, assembly, lysis
22.
Which list is arranged from lower order organisms to higher order organisms?
(A)
Hydra, Hookworm, Snails
(B)
Jellyfish, Sponges, Starfish
(C)
Sponges, Spiders, Tapeworms
(D)
Starfish, Leech, Planania
23.
Which organism has a digestive system which is most similar to that of humans?
(A)
Annelids
(B)
Flatworms
(C)
Jellyfish
(D)
Sponges
24.
How is the scientific name of an organism formed?
(A)
The family and genus names.
(B)
The genus and species names.
(C)
The kingdom and phylum names.
(D)
The phylum and class names.
25.
Which statement is true for fertilization in most fishes and frogs?
(A)
External in both.
(B)
External in fishes and internal in frogs.
(C)
Internal in both.
(D)
Internal in fishes and external in frogs.
26.
What characteristic of Archaebacteria is the key to their success?
(A)
The ability to ingest nutrients.
(B)
The ability to withstand high temperatures.
(C)
The presence of flagella.
(D)
The presence of triangular organisms.
27.
How does sexual reproduction occur in daisies?
(A)
Budding
(B)
Fusion of gametes
(C)
Propagation
(D)
Spores
28.
Members of which phyla are bilateral animals with a coelom?
(A)
Annelida
(B)
Cnidaria
(C)
Platyhelminthes
(D)
Porifera
29.
Which statement about angiosperm reproduction is correct?
(A)
Fertilization does not require pollination.
(B)
Pollination and fertilization is the same process.
3
(C)
(D)
Pollination occurs after fertilization.
Pollination occurs before fertilization.
30.
What do Phyla Platyhelminthes, Nematoda and Annelida have in common?
(A)
Asexual reproduction
(B)
Bilateral symmetry
(C)
Presence of a body cavity
(D)
Two way digestive system
31.
What are organisms that produce both eggs and sperm?
(A)
Hermaphrodites
(B)
Gemmules
(C)
Medusa
(D)
Polyp
32.
Which phyla has the most complex digestive system?
(A)
Annelida
(B)
Cnidarians
(C)
Platyhelminthes
(D)
Porifera
33.
What type of symmetry is a characteristic of Echinoderms like the starfish?
(A)
Asymmetry
(B)
Bilateral symmetry
(C)
Radial symmetry
(D)
Spherical symmetry
34.
What were the first vertebrates to make the transition from water to land?
(A)
Amphibians
(B)
Bony fishes
(C)
Mammals
(D)
Reptiles
35.
What evidence is collected when the nucleus of cells are compared?
(A)
Anatomy
(B)
Biochemistry
(C)
DNA
(D)
Embryonic
36.
What is true of a dichotomous key?
(A)
All biologists would develop the same key for the same organisms.
(B)
It can only be used if the biological name is known.
(C)
It is a series of paired comparisons that sorts organisms.
(D)
Organisms are sorted into larger groups
37.
Why is it not appropriate to name the Lynx rufus a bobcat?
(A)
It does not identify the kingdom
(B)
It is not a precise name.
(C)
It only gives the species name
(D)
It is the biological name.
38.
What is true of the Eubacteria kingdom?
(A)
Some of them can move.
(B)
They do not carry out photosynthesis.
(C)
They have eukaryotic cells.
(D)
They reproduce by sexual reproduction
39.
What characteristic makes the liverworts different from all other plants?
(A)
They are dependent on water for movement of sperm.
(B)
The gametophyte generation is dominant.
(C)
They have no protection for the egg.
4
(D)
They reproduce by fertilizing an egg.
40.
Which organism has an endoskeleton made of cartilage and bone and a two chambered
heart?
(A)
Bullfrog
(B)
Crow
(C)
Rattlesnake
(D)
Salmon
41.
Why does the human’s system of capillaries consist of many vessels with very small
diameters rather than a few larger vessels?
(A)
A decrease in the blood pressure in the arteries occurs.
(B)
An increase in the rate of blood flow occurs.
(C)
Materials carried in the blood can reach more body cells.
(D)
The heart can pump the blood through the body with smaller expenditure of
energy.
42.
What does it mean when your blood pressure is "120 over 80?"
(A)
A column of mercury is 120 cm high during a beat and 80 cm high when the heart
is relaxed.
(B)
A column of mercury is 80 cm high during a beat and 120 cm high when the heart
is relaxed.
(C)
A column of mercury is 120 mm high during a beat and 80 mm high when the
heart is relaxed.
(D)
A column of water is 120 cm high during a beat and 80 cm high when the heart is
relaxed.
43.
Which valve directs blood from the right ventricle into the lungs?
(A)
Aortic semi lunar valve
(B)
Bicuspid valve
(C)
Pulmonary semi lunar valve
(D)
Tricuspid valve
43.
Which of the following is the fluid portion of the blood?
(A)
Erythrocytes
(B)
Leukocytes
(C)
Platelet
(D)
Plasma
44.
How does blood enter the heart from lower parts of the body?
(A)
Aorta
(B)
Artery
(C)
Capillary
(D)
Vein
45.
What is the vital capacity of the lungs?
(A)
The amount of air normally breathed in and out.
(B)
The amount of air left in the lungs after exhaling.
(C)
The amount of air passed through the lungs during vigorous inhalation and
exhalation.
(D)
The amount of air the lungs can hold.
Which is the correct sequence of structures through which air passes into the human
lung?
(A)
Bronchiole, bronchus, pharynx, trachea, and alveolus.
(B)
Pharynx, trachea, bronchiole, bronchus, and alveolus.
(C)
Pharynx, trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, and alveolus.
(D)
Trachea, pharynx, alveolus, bronchiole, and bronchus.
46.
5
47.
In which of the areas shown would CO2 concentration be the highest?
(A)
A
(B)
B
(C)
C
(D)
D
49.
Where does the air and food passages cross in the human throat?
(A)
Glottis
(B)
Larynx
(C)
Pharynx
(D)
Trachea
50.
What is the structure that prevents food particles from entering the lungs?
(A)
Epiglottis
(B)
Larynx
(C)
Pharynx
(D)
Trachea
51.
Which of the following best describes how the physical process of inhaling occurs?
(A)
The chest cavity expands allowing air to fill the alveoli.
(B)
The diaphragm causes the chest cavity to contract allowing air to rush in.
(C)
The diaphragm relaxes causing air to be expelled.
(D)
The muscles in the lungs push down on the diaphragm allowing air to rush in.
52.
What is the substrate of salivary amylase?
(A)
Glucose
(B)
Protein
(C)
Starch
(D)
Sucrose
53.
What function does the human epiglottis serve during swallowing?
(A)
Allows food to pass through the wind pipe
(B)
Closes off the esophagus
(C)
Closes off the glottis
(D)
Prevents air from passing through the esophagus
54.
What are three enzymes that are found in pancreatic juice?
(A)
Amylase, trypsin, lipase
(B)
Bile, amylase, trypsin
(C)
Pepsin, hydrochloric acid, trypsin
(D)
Trypsin, lipase, peptidase
Use the diagram to the right to answer questions 55 and 56.
55.
What is the pathway that food passes through the
digestive system?
(A)
1, 3, 5, 6, 9, 8
(B)
1, 3, 5, 9, 6, 7
(C)
1, 9, 4, 6, 12, 7
(D)
2, 1, 3, 5, 9, 6, 7
56.
Which organ produces lipase?
(A)
3
(B)
4
(C)
5
(D)
6
6
57.
Robert works mostly nights in a very stressful environment so, to help him stay awake he
drinks a lot of coffee. What disorder will Robert likely experience if his lifestyle
continues?
(A)
Colitis
(B)
Gallstones
(C)
Ileitis
(D)
Ulcers
58.
What is the tube leading from the bladder to the exterior of the body?
(A)
Collecting duct
(B)
Loop of Henle
(C)
Ureter
(D)
Urethra
59.
Which structure is responsible for the transport of blood from the renal artery to each
nephron?
(A)
Afferent arteriole
(B)
Capsule
(C)
Efferent arteriole
(D)
Glomerulus
60.
What does the proximal tubule of a nephron do?
(A)
Carries water only
(B)
Filters material from the blood
(C)
Forms urea and uric acid
(D)
Returns material to the blood
61.
How much filtered material is produced for every 100 mL of blood that enters the
glomerulus?
(A)
1 mL.
(B)
20 mL
(C)
50 mL.
(D)
100 mL.
62.
In which structure from the diagram on the right does water reabsorption normally occur?
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
5
63.
Which best describes an antibody?
(A)
A eukaryotic cell
(B)
A living organism
(C)
A pathogen
(D)
A protein molecule
64.
What is the resistance to a disease conferred by injection of an antibody?
(A)
Active immunity
(B)
Allergic response
(C)
Autoimmunity
(D)
Passive immunity
65.
A person is suspected of having a pathogenic bacterial infection. Which would be the
most significant aid in verifying the diagnosis?
(A)
Blood pressure
(B)
Pulse rate
(C)
Red blood cell count
(D)
White blood cell count
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66.
How do the T cell and B cell lymphocytes participate in the immune response?
(A)
B cells recognize and identify foreign antigens, and T cells engulf the antigens.
(B)
B cells recognize and identify foreign antigens, and T cells produce the
appropriate antibodies.
(C)
T cells recognize and identify foreign antigens, and B cells engulf the antigens.
(D)
T cells recognize and identify foreign antigens, and B cells produce the
appropriate antibodies.
67.
What is the process of antibodies from the mother’s body entering a baby’s blood before
birth? (A)
Active Immunity
(B)
First line of Defense
(C)
Inflammatory response
(D)
Passive Immunity
68.
Which term is used to describe cancerous tumors?
(A)
Benign
(B)
Biopsy
(C)
Malignant
(D)
Stem cells
69.
What is the reason for the growth in Canada’s human population?
(A)
Higher birth and emigration rates than death and immigration rates.
(B)
Higher birth and immigration rates than death and emigration rates.
(C)
Higher death and emigration rates than birth and immigration rates.
(D)
Higher death and immigration rates than birth and emigration rates.
70.
In a predator-prey relationship between a lynx and a hare, when would you expect the
hare population to be high?
(A)
The hare population will never be high.
(B)
When the lynx population is high.
(C)
When the lynx population is low.
(D)
When the lynx population is zero.
70.
What is considered to be the main limiting factor on human carrying capacity?
(A)
Food
(B)
Space
(C)
Sunlight
(D)
Water
71.
Which is an example of intraspecific competition?
(A)
A bluejay and a robin both starting to build a nest on the same limb of a tree.
(B)
A forest containing both spruce trees and balsam fir in the same area.
(C)
A meadow vole being hunted by a pine marten.
(D)
Two male caribou competing for a mate.
72.
What is the estimated world population in 2050 as determined by the Population Division
of the United Nations?
(A)
7.8 billion
(B)
9 billion
(C)
10 billion
(D)
13.4 billion
74.
Which of the following would be represented by a J-shaped curve?
(A)
The growth of algae in a pond that has been contaminated.
(B)
The growth of the cod stock since the moratorium.
(C)
The growth of the moose population in Newfoundland since their introduction in
1904.
(D)
The growth of yeast cells under ideal conditions in a laboratory setting.
8
75.
What is biotic potential?
(A)
The lowest growth rate possible for a given population.
(B)
The highest growth rate possible for a given population.
(C)
The maximum number of organisms in a given population.
(D)
The smallest number of organisms in a given population.
Part II
Total Value: 25%
Complete all questions for this section in the space provided.
Value
4
76.
The cell can often be compared to a city. Outline, at least four cellular
structures and their functions that support this comparison.
2
77.
Explain what would happen to the cells of a strictly fresh water fish if the
fish were placed in the ocean.
3
78.
Explain why sphagnum moss does not grow as large as a black spruce tree
even though both are members of the same kingdom.
4
79.
Explain why amphibians can be considered to be the evolutionary link
between aquatic and terrestrial vertebrates.
9
4
80.
With reference to two organ systems, describe how the circulatory system
is essential to their functions.
2
81.
Why would a kidney transplant recipient be in danger of rejecting the
transplanted kidney?
3
82.
Pearl divers hold their breath underwater for long periods of time. Explain
how this practice might result in drowning.
2
83.
Briefly describe how space would limit the growth of E. coli.
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