Chapter 1 – Test Questions 1. All of the following are benefits of

Chapter 1 – Test Questions
1. All of the following are benefits of training EXCEPT which one?
a. Firefighters experience fewer errors and less fumbling.
b. It prepares firefighters to assume more responsibility.
c. It frees the officer from interruption by unnecessary workers’ questions.
d. It creates a burden on taxpayers, and can be directly linked to poor public
relations.
Ans wer: d
Page: 3
2. Which of the following BEST describes preincident planning?
a. Preincident planning requires completing a preplan within the statutory 4-year
limit.
b. Preincident planning provides information.
c. Preincident planning’s sole function is to anticipate potential problems.
d. Preincident planning is part of the incident command system.
Ans wer: b
Page: 5
3. Whose responsibility is it to do preplanning?
a. The Fire Chief
b. The company officer
c. The firefighter
d. All of the above
Ans wer: d
Page: 6
4. Which of the following would NOT necessarily require a preplan in your first due
district?
a. Refinery
b. Supermarket
c. Abandoned house
d. County prison
Ans wer: c
Page: 6
5. Preplanned data are typically stored in each of the following manners EXCEPT which
one?
a. Index cards
b. Booklet form
c. Individual notepads
d. Palm-sized handheld computers
Ans wer: c
Page: 7
6. Determining needed fire flow during preplanning requires the application of which of the
following?
a. The HALE pump fire flow calculator
b. The NPA formula for quick calculations
c. A fire flow formula to conditions observed during an inspection of the premises
d. Exact calculations using the Hess friction loss formula
Ans wer: c
Page: 11
7. In multistory structures, if other floors in a building are not yet involved but are
threatened by possible extension of the fire, they should be considered as interior
exposures. How much extra should be calculated when determining fire flow?
a. 25% of the required fire flow of the fire floor should be added
b. 35% of the required fire flow of the fire floor should be added
c. 400 gpm
d. 100 gpm
Ans wer: a
Page: 12
8. If exterior structures are being exposed to fire from the original fire building, how much
of the actual required fire flow for the building on fire should be added to provide
protection for each side of building that has exterior exposures?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 850 gpm, if fully involved
Ans wer: a
Page: 12
9. Which of the following situations would most likely require a defensive mode of
operation?
a. Hazardous materials spill of 5 gallons of gasoline
b. Technical rescue
c. If the fire flow capability of available resources exceeds the required fire flow
d. If the fire flow requirements exceed the fire flow capability of available
resources
Ans wer: d
Page: 14
10. Which of the following is NOT considered a chief officer?
a. Battalion chief
b. Company officer
c. District chief
d. Division chief
Ans wer: b
Page: 15
Chapter 2 – Test Questions
1. When resources from multiple agencies are used or when several jurisdictions are
involved, a _________ is usually required.
a. written ERP
b. written ICS
c. NIMS
d. written IAP
Ans wer: d
Page: 29
2. The ideal span of control is which of the following?
a. No more than 3
b. Five, with an acceptable spread of two to seven
c. Exactly five
d. Five, with an acceptable spread of one
Ans wer: b
Page: 32
3. Which of the following is the location from which all incident operations are directed?
a. CP
b. EOC
c. Incident base
d. Staging area
Ans wer: a
Page: 33
4. Which of the following are units of any type, or kinds of resources, with common
communications and a leader, temporarily assembled for specific tactical missions?
a. Strike team
b. Single resources
c. Task force
d. Division
Ans wer: c
Page: 33
5. Homeland Security Presidential Directive 5 directed the Secretary of Homeland Security
to develop and administer _________.
a. NIIMS
b. ICS
c. NIMS
d. IMS
Ans wer: c
Page: 34
6. A combination of resources that is integrated into a common framework for coordination
and supporting domestic incident management activities is ________.
a. EOC
b. strike team
c. MACS
d. PIO
Ans wer: c
Page: 35
7. Which of the following is a new position created in NIMS that is NOT found in the
FIRESCOPE ICS?
a. Incident Commander
b. Operations
c. Intelligence
d. Logistics
Ans wer: c
Page: 36
8. Which command function can be used when incidents are close enough that oversight
direction is required of multiple incident management teams to ensure that conflicts do not
arise?
a. Incident complex
b. Incident management command
c. Level II command
d. Area command
Ans wer: d
Page: 39
9. All of the following are part of the Command Staff EXCEPT which one?
a. Safety officer
b. Liaison officer
c. Public Information officer
d. Police officer
Ans wer: d
Pages: 43, 44
10. Which of the following is a specific location or marshaling area for units to proceed to
and await further orders?
a. Level 1 staging
b. Level 2 staging
c. Level 3 staging
d. Area command
Ans wer: b
Page: 47
Chapter 3 – Test Questions
1. Which of the following would NOT be considered one of the five levels of the command
sequence?
a. Incident priorities
b. Size-up
c. Strategy
d. Rescue
Ans wer: d
Pages: 76, 77
2. Wallace Was Hot is a mnemonic used as an aid for remembering which of the following?
a. The 13 points of command
b. The 13 points of rescue
c. The 13 points of safety
d. The 13 points of size-up
Ans wer: d
Page: 80
3. Overall goals or what you want to accomplish best describes which of the following?
a. Strategy
b. Tactics
c. Tasks
d. Incident action plan
Ans wer: a
Page: 90
4. Performing a search and rescue of a fire area is an example of:
a. Strategy
b. Tactics
c. Tasks
d. Incident action plan
Ans wer: b
Page: 91
5. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the four basic modes of fire attack for
structural firefighting?
a. Offensive
b. Interior
c. Defensive
d. Offensive/defensive
Ans wer: b
Page: 98
6. Which of the following is considered the first step in gaining control of a building?
a. Ventilation
b. Rescue
c. Gaining control of the stairs
d. Size-up
Ans wer: c
Page: 98
7. You are an engine company responding to a building on fire in an area of town known
for abandoned buildings. The determination has been made that there are no civilians in the
fire building. What should you do?
a. Initiate offensive operations
b. Initiate truck company operations
c. Initiate defensive operations
d. Do nothing—let the building burn to the ground
Ans wer: c
Page: 103
8. If the fire is beyond the ability of hand-lines to control, master streams can be utilized to
attack the fire. What is this mode of attack known as?
a. Blitzkrieg mode
b. Offensive mode
c. Defensive mode
d. Defensive/offensive mode
Ans wer: c
Page: 108
9. Of the seven strategic concerns, which of the following is NOT considered an initial
concern?
a. Rescue
b. Exposures
c. Confinement
d. Salvage
Ans wer: d
Page: 91
10. What is the number-one priority at an emergency incident?
a. Incident stabilization
b. Life safety
c. Property conservation
d. Safeguarding the environment
Ans wer: b
Page: 77
Chapter 4 – Test Questions
1. What is an apparatus that is both a combination of engine and truck companies called?
a. Hybrid
b. Squad
c. Special utility vehicle
d. Quint
Ans wer: d
Page: 114
2. Which of the following would NOT be considered a duty of an engine company?
a. Locating the fire
b. Confinement
c. Utilizing the water supply for control and extinguishment
d. Ventilation
Ans wer: d
Page: 115
3. Which of the following hose-lines is considered the workhorse of the fire service?
a. 1½-inch or 1¾-hose-line
b. Large-diameter hose
c. 2½-inch hose-line
d. Master stream
Ans wer: d
Page: 118
4. What can closing a nozzle too quickly cause?
a. The hose-line to burst
b. Damage to the apparatus
c. Damage to the water mains
d. All of the above
Ans wer: a
Page: 119
5. A master stream is capable of water flows in excess of which of the following?
a. 100 gpm
b. The same volume as a handheld hose-line
c. 200 gpm
d. 300 gpm
Ans wer: d
Page: 121
6. The typical primary duties assigned to a truck company include all of the following
EXCEPT which one?
a. Overhaul and salvage
b. Rescue
c. Medical assist
d. Forcible entry
Ans wer: c
Pages: 122, 123
7. When a ladder is placed for rescue from a window, where should the top of the ladder
be?
a. Three rungs above the window sill
b. Extending three rungs above the roof
c. Even with the window sill
d. Alongside the window sill
Ans wer: c
Page: 130
8. The correct position of the heel or base of the ladder will ensure that a proper climbing
angle is achieved. What is the desired angle?
a. 70 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 80 degrees
d. 75 degrees
Ans wer: d
Page: 130
9. Which of the following is NOT considered a means of ventilation?
a. Negative ventilation
b. Positive–pressure ventilation
c. Conventional ventilation
d. Vacuum
Ans wer: d
Pages: 144, 142
10. Hydraulic ventilation is achieved by utilizing hose-lines with a nozzle set on a fog
pattern that should cover about ________ % of the window or door opening.
a. 85
b. 90
c. 95
d. 75
Ans wer: b
Page: 144
Chapter 5 – Test Questions
1. What is a system that utilizes a continuous wall stud from the lowest level through the
roof area known as?
a. Balloon frame
b. Log frame
c. Post and beam
d. Platform frame
Ans wer: a
Page: 115
2. The most common type of new frame construction is the ___________ frame.
a. post and beam
b. log
c. platform
d. balloon
Ans wer: c
Page: 175
3. What is a lightweight component that is a flat parallel chord truss, where the top and
bottom chords are steel plates, called?
a. I beam
b. Gussett plate
c. Steel bar joist
d. Triangular chord truss
Ans wer: c
Page: 172
4. Mill buildings are an example of what type of construction?
a. Noncombustible
b. Heavy timber
c. Steel
d. Concrete
Ans wer: b
Page 172
5. A wood frame building in which all members are made of wood or a similar material is
an example of what type of building?
a. Mill
b. Frame
c. Steel
d. Joist
Ans wer: b
Page: 175
6. Which of the following is a characteristic of post and beam construction?
a. The walls are nonbearing, similar to curtain walls in a high-rise building
b. Utilizes a continuous wall stud from the lowest level through the roof area
c. Typically uses tongue and groove planks that are a minimum of 2 inches thick
d. Uses logs in a tongue and grove design on the top and bottom to interlock each
post.
Ans wer: a
Page: 175
7. Which types of construction are considered the most common type of frame
construction?
a. Plank and beam
b. Post and beam
c. Balloon and platform
d. Concrete and steel
Ans wer: c
Pages: 175, 177
8. Which of the following would be considered the weakest support for a structure?
a. Heavy beams
b. Exterior wall
c. Truss roof
d. Brick veneer
Ans wer: d
Page: 179
9. What is a truss with framing members measuring 4 inches by 6 inches called?
a. Heavy timber truss
b. Timber truss
c. Lightweight truss
d. Bowstring truss
Ans wer: b
Page: 181
10. The main weakness of all trusses and the major reason for truss failure lies in which of
the following?
a. Web members
b. The geometric triangle shape
c. Connection points
d. All wooden member truss construction
Ans wer: c
Page: 183
Chapter 6 – Test Questions
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic types of wall collapse?
a. 90-degree collapse
b. Inward-outward collapse
c. Curtain collapse
d. Outward collapse
Ans wer: d
Page: 209
2. A typical exterior wall collapse indicator would be which of the following?
a. Smoke showing through walls
b. Visible spalling of a brick wall
c. The presence of wall spreaders
d. All of the above
Ans wer: d
Page: 209
3. Spalling of a brick or concrete wall could be an indicator of which of the following?
a. Sustained heat
b. Poor construction technique
c. Chemical damage
d. Inadequate rebar reinforcement
Ans wer: a
Page: 219
4. The ________ load of a building is the weight of the material in a building that is not
permanent in nature.
a. dead
b. eccentric
c. impact
d. live
Ans wer: d
Page: 230
5. Large ornate cornices are an example of which of the following?
a. Dead load
b. Impact load
c. Live load
d. Eccentric load
Ans wer: d
Page: 232
6. _______ collapse occurs near the middle of the floor and creates voids on the
perimeters.
a. Pancake
b. Lean-to
c. V-type
d. Unsupported floor
An s wer: c
Page: 240
7. Which of the following types of hepatitis is typically contracted due to contact with an
infected person, usually a sexual partner?
a. Hepatitis B
b. Hepatitis C
c. Hepatitis A
d. Non A, non B hepatitis
Ans wer: c
Page: 245
8. Which of the following chemicals is one of the top chemicals produced and imported in
the United States and may cause leukemia in as little as 6 years?
a. Creosote
b. Carbon tetracholoride
c. Asbestos
d. Benzene
Ans wer: d
Page: 246
9. Ignition of combustibles in an area heated by convection, radiation, or a combination of
the two can result in which of the following?
a. Rollover
b. Backdraft
c. Ignition point
d. Flashover
Ans wer: d
Page: 259
10. Which of the following would be an imminent sign of flashover?
a. Intense heat
b. Free-burning fire
c. Unburned article starting to smoke
d. All of the above
Ans wer: d
Page: 259
Chapter 7 – Test Questions
1. What is the greatest challenge for firefighters at garden apartment fires?
a. The hours between midnight and 8 AM—the time when most residential deaths
occur
b. Delayed alarms
c. Assumption that the fire department has already been called
d. All of the above
Ans wer: d
Page: 277
2. A fire in a cellar of an older row house demands that firefighters check for what?
a. Dead loads
b. Discoloration of plaster
c. Signs of backdraft
d. Fire extension into the void areas
Ans wer: d
Page: 289
3. A fire that extends from the original room into the hallway or upward through
stairways in a hotel should be attacked using which of the following?
a. 2½-inch hose-line
b. 1½-inch hose-line
c. High rise pack
d. Cellar nozzle
Ans wer: a
Page: 308
4. What is generally an effective tool in ventilating a stairway in a hotel fire?
a. Vertical ventilation
b. Hydraulic ventilation
c. Negative ventilation
d. Horizontal ventilation
Ans wer: a
Page: 309
5. What is the best method of controlling garden apartment fires?
a. Defensive mode
b. Exterior attack
c. Use of high expansion foam
d. An aggressive interior attack
Ans wer: d
Page: 280
6. A fire originating in the storage area in a garden apartment can threaten the occupants
due to which of the following?
a. The possibility of fire spreading upward
b. Storage of flammable liquids
c. The door to the room is often propped open
d. All of the above
Ans wer: d
Page: 279
7. Which of the following is NOT generally considered a strategic goal for fires in row
houses and town houses?
a. Evacuate and perform search and rescue for occupants
b. Check exposures on sides B and D for extension of fire
c. Place ladders to the exposures across the street on side A
d. Horizontal ventilation
Ans wer: c
Page: 294
8. A standpipe that could require pressurization by the fire department is known as which
of the following?
a. Wet system
b. Dry system
c. Looped system
d. All of the above
Ans wer: d
Page: 295
9. Exterior access to hotels may be restricted by which of the following?
a. Narrow alleyways or driveways
b. Parked vehicles
c. Large trash containers
d. All of the above
Ans wer: d
Page: 307
10. Which of the following is NOT a typical building construction found in hotels?
a. Ordinary
b. Frame
c. Fire resistive
d. Lattice
Ans wer: d
Page: 308
Chapter 8 – Test Questions
1. Which of following would NOT be considered a strategic goal for a localized fire in a
hospital?
a. Locate and confine the fire to area of origin, if possible
b. Support sprinkler systems with a secondary water supply
c. Evacuate all patients from the hospital
d. Lateral evacuation
Ans wer: c
Page: 309
2. Which of the following statements concerning strategic goals for nursing home fires is
a TRUE statement?
a. 2½-inch hose-lines are the preferred hand line to use in fighting nursing home fires.
b. If multiple stairways are present, designate all for evacuation. Firefighters should
use only the elevators.
c. All doors leading to the roof from stairways should be closed.
d. Before using positive pressure ventilation, determine the exact location of the fire.
Ans wer: d
Page: 341
3. Which of the following best describes an MCI?
a. Responding units can sufficiently handle the many injured.
b. Nearby hospitals will be overloaded.
c. The number of patients matches the level of stabilization and care that can normally
be provided in a fast and timely manner.
d. Single vehicle rollover, with patient entrapment.
Ans wer: b
Page: 342
4. Identify the TRUE statement concerning trauma centers in the United States.
a. There are five levels of trauma centers in the United States.
b. Level 4 trauma centers provide the highest level of trauma care available.
c. Level 3 trauma centers provide stabilization and treatment of severely injured
patients in remote areas where no alternative care is available.
d. Level 1 trauma centers have a full range of specialists and equipment available 24/7
and must admit a minimum volume of severely injured patients annually.
Ans wer: d
Page: 349
5. A patient is tagged with a yellow triage tag. What does this mean?
a. Patient is first priority—immediate transport
b. Patient is third priority—minor/delayed transport
c. Patient is fourth priority—no injury
d. Patient is second priority—transport as soon as possible
Ans wer: d
Page: 349
6. A conscious patient with several major fractures should be triaged and tagged as which
of the following?
a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Black
Ans wer: c
Page: 349
7. Which of the following concerning ventilation of a gothic church fire is FALSE?
a. It is OK to break a few stained glass windows.
b. During an offensive attack, ventilation is a must.
c. It is OK to send firefighters on steep sloped roofs, as long as they operate safely.
d. Lexan® covering may make it difficult to break stained glass windows.
Ans wer: c
Page: 355
8. What is the most common cause of church fire?
a. Arson
b. High fire load
c. Use of candles
d. Faulty wiring
Ans wer: a
Page: 356
9. Which of the following fires did NOT result in mass fatalities in public assembly
buildings?
a. Cocoanut Grove nightclub in Boston, 1942
b. Beverly Hills Supper Club in Southgate, Kentucky, 1977
c. Station Nightclub, in Providence, Rhode Island, 2003
d. Flexbourough Refinery, 1921
Ans wer: d
Page: 378
10. How often should school fire drills be conducted?
a. Annually
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Semi-annually
Ans wer: b
Page: 383
Chapter 9 – Test Questions
1. Which of following is considered FALSE in connection with sprinkler systems at
commercial building or warehouse fires?
a. If the sprinklers are supplied by the same water main feeding the immediate hydrant
system in the area, hooking up pumpers to these hydrants could rob the sprinklers
of water.
b. Sprinkler systems produce a large amount of steam and smoke, restricting visibility.
c. Immediately shutting down the sprinkler to reduce water and improve visibility is a
priority.
d. It is important to determine if the sprinkler system has sectional stop valves before
shutting down the system.
Ans wer: c
Page: 397
2. If initially encountering a large volume of fire pushing from multiple windows in an
unoccupied warehouse, which of the following attacks may be used?
a. Foam attack
b. Blitz attack
c. Interior attack
d. Defensive/interior attack
Ans wer: b
Page: 399
3. Size-up factors for commercial buildings and warehouses include all of the following
EXCEPT which one?
a. Firefighters must supply water to the sprinkler intakes to supplement the system.
b. Interior attacks will demand 1-¾-inch hose-line attacks.
c. Fire doors may be secured in an open position.
d. Building layout may be irregular and, if the building is surrounded by other
buildings, difficult to ascertain without a preplan.
Ans wer: b
Page: 400
4. All of the following are important strategic considerations for an offensive fire attack in
commercial buildings and warehouses EXCEPT which one?
a. The most effective hose-line for a fire of any consequence in these structures is 1¾inch.
b. Depending on the conditions found, both vertical and horizontal ventilation might
be needed.
c. Positive pressure ventilation may be effective if the building openings can be
controlled.
d. Anticipate the use of steel bar joists supporting the roof of a noncombustible
building and an early failure if attacked by fire.
Ans wer: a
Page: 402
5. All of the following are strategic considerations for fires in enclosed malls EXCEPT
which one?
a. Hose-lines of 1½-inch or 1¾-inch may be ineffective. Instead, 2½-inch hose-line
may be needed.
b. Ventilation may be difficult. The use of positive pressure ventilation is doubtful.
c. Salvage can be tremendous. Overall, it will be extensive.
d. Confine the fire to the store of origin. This can be best accomplished by a
simultaneous attack on the fire and an immediate check of adjacent stores on sides B
and C.
Ans wer: d
Page: 417
6. In lumberyard fires, which of the following hose-lines is the MOST effective?
a. 1-inch
b. 1½-inch
c. 1¾-inch
d. 2½-inch
Ans wer: d
Page: 420
7. Which of the following best describes a high-rise building?
a. More than 50 feet tall
b. A satisfactory evacuation time, if stairways are used
c. Independence from the buildings system
d. Part of the building is beyond the reach of the fire department’s longest ladder.
Ans wer: d
Page: 426
8. The base at a high-rise fire should be located at what minimum distance from the fire
building?
a. 50 feet
b. 100 feet
c. 200 feet
d. 500 feet
Ans wer: c
Page: 448
9. Which of the following documents instructs firefighters regarding the size and capacity
of the building’s standpipe systems and the pumps supplying these systems?
a. Building documentation
b. IAP
c. PCR
d. Fire department preplan
Ans wer: d
Page: 439
10. The space created between the concrete ceiling and the suspended ceiling is called a
______.
a. plenum
b. HVAC
c. cockloft
d. false ceiling
Ans wer: a
Page: 438
Chapter 10 – Test Questions
1. Material stored in tanks at fixed facilities is marked with what placarding system?
a. Yellow signs marked dangerous
b. NFPA 720 placards
c. NFPA704 placards
d. NFPA 700 placards
Ans wer: c
Pages: 461, 462
2. Hazmat incidents dictate the setting up of zones. What are these called?
a. Zone 1, zone 2, zone 3
b. Hot, warm, cold
c. Inner perimeter zone, outer perimeter zone
d. Red, yellow, green
Ans wer: b
Page: 464
3. Which of the following is NOT a common type of flammable liquid storage tank you
would typically find at a refinery or tank farm?
a. Open top floating roof
b. Covered top floating roof
c. Cone roof
d. Pressurized gasoline storage tank
Ans wer: d
Pages: 473, 474
4. Which of the following is considered FALSE when it comes to storage tank
firefighting?
a. Maintaining a foam blanket for period of 30–60 minutes is often necessary
b. Firefighting foams are the principal agents used to control these types of fires.
c. If a polar solvent is involved, topside application is required when using alcoholresistant foam.
d. It is better to start an offensive attack and begin applying whatever foam is available
than to risk losing the tank by waiting for sufficient foam supplies to arrive.
Ans wer: d
Pages: 475, 476
5. Ground fires at storage tank facilities may be controlled with which of the following?
a. Foam
b. Dry chemical
c. Water spray
d. All of the above
Ans wer: d
Page: 477
6. A fire in an open-top tank containing crude oil can generate a heat wave within the
product in the tank, which can travel downward to the bottom of the tank and may
result in which of the following?
a. Frothover
b. Spillover
c. Boilover
d. Rollover
Ans wer: c
Page: 479
7. ________ can occur if a fire stream is applied to the hot surface of burning oil,
provided the oil is viscous and its temperature exceeds 212 degrees.
a. Slopover
b. Frothover
c. Boilover
d. Spillover
Ans wer: a
Page: 479
8. Weapons of a terrorist can be remembered using which mnemonic?
a. B-NICE
b. NORAD
c. NICE
d. WMD
Ans wer: a
Page: 488
9. Which of the following is the weapon of choice for the greatest number of terrorist
acts?
a. AK-47s
b. Chemical weapons
c. Explosives
d. Nuclear weapons
Ans wer: c
Page: 488
10. Emergency responders who may be exposed to nerve gas are treated with which of the
following?
a. Oxygen
b. Mark IV kit
c. Atropine and epinephrine 5 mg
d. Mark I kit
Ans wer: d
Page: 493
Chapter 11 Questions
1. Which of the following is the purpose of incident critiques?
a. Reconstruct events and assess how the fire department performed.
b. Embarrass officers in order to get them to shape up.
c. Punish poor performance.
d. Determine if errors were made, and take appropriate disciplinary action.
Ans wer: a
Page: 512
2. Which of the following is NOT a type of incident critique?
a. Informal critique
b. Formal critique
c. Self-critique
d. Disciplinary critique
Ans wer: d
Page: 510
3. Which incident is most likely to be a catalyst for generating critical incident stress?
a. A plane crash with no survivors and mutilated bodies
b. Multiple child deaths in a house fire
c. Death to a firefighter
d. All of the above
Ans wer: d
Page: 515
4. Which of the following is NOT considered an immediate indicator of critical incident
stress?
a. Severe thirst
b. Shaking or trembling
c. Blurred vision
d. Frustration
Ans wer: a
Page: 516
5. How can Incident Commanders help alleviate stress on-scene?
a. Keep the firefighters so busy that they will not ponder on their stress.
b. Purchase plenty of soda drinks with caffeine to keep firefighters alert.
c. Schedule five-minute breaks for units as often as possible.
d. Do nothing; the Incident Commander should focus on his or her job. Firefighters
are tough and manage their stress well.
Ans wer: c
Page: 515
6. What is a formal technique that can help reduce incident stress?
a. Critical action stress reduction
b. Critical incident stress debriefing
c. Athletic competition
d. Sleep therapy
Ans wer: b
7. When conducting a CISD, which of the following should NOT be done?
a. Encourage members to vent their frustration, anger, fears and other emotions.
b. Take accurate records of discussions.
c. Ensure only the firefighters who were directly involved in the incident attend.
d. Maintain confidentiality
Ans wer: b
Page 516
8. Which of the following is NOT considered a mandatory reason for CISD?
a. Death or serious injury to a firefighter
b. Death of a child
c. Mass casualty incident
d. A five-alarm fire that resulted in the complete loss of the structure
Ans wer: d
Page: 516
9. Firefighter McMillan is exhibiting signs of rage, respiratory difficulties, and sexual
disturbances weeks after a firefighter died on the job. He is most likely suffering from
which of the following?
a. Delayed stress
b. Shock
c. A metabolic disorder
d. Lack of sleep
Ans wer: a
Page: 516
10. A plan that addresses the need for psychological assistance for firefighters suffering
from critical incident stress should consist of which two parts?
a. Education and counseling
b. Rehabilitation and counseling
c. Physical exercise and nutrition
d. Education and treatment
Ans wer: d
Page: 517