Study Guide US Gov EOY
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
MAIN IDEAS
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1. Among the broad purposes of the United States government spelled out in the Preamble to the Constitution is
the obligation to
a. keep the executive and legislative branches of government separate.
b. create an autocratic form of government.
c. defend the country against Americans who oppose its policies.
d. provide for justice and the people's general welfare.
2. Locke, Harrington, Hobbes, and Rousseau would most likely agree that
a. the state developed out of force.
b. those of royal birth should rule the state.
c. the state exists to serve the will of the people.
d. government should be eliminated.
3. The theory underlying modern democracies was developed to challenge the idea that
a. those of royal birth have absolute authority to rule.
b. the people as a whole are the sole source of political power.
c. the head of a family, clan, or tribe has the natural right to govern.
d. the strongest person or group has the right to control others by force.
4. The dominant political unit in the world today is the
a. government.
b. nation.
c. Constitution.
d. state.
5. A federal government is one in which
a. all power is concentrated in the central government.
b. limited powers are assigned to a central agency by independent states.
c. power is divided between a central government and local governments.
d. powers are divided between a legislative branch and an executive branch.
6. Which of the following statements is NOT true of parliamentary government?
a. The executive is chosen by the legislature.
b. The legislature is subject to the direct control of the executive.
c. The prime minister and cabinet are part of the legislative branch.
d. The prime minister and cabinet must resign if they lose the support of a majority of the
legislature.
7. The individual 50 States lack which basic characteristic of a state?
a. government
b. sovereignty
c. Constitution
d. defined population
8. The Internet seems especially suited to satisfy which of these needs in a democracy?
a. to control the lives of citizens
b. to be informed about the many different institutions and policies of the government
c. the need for accurate, and always reliable, information on which to base decisions
d. the need for an uneducated elite to run the government
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9. In the charter colonies, most governmental matters were handled by
a. the British monarch.
b. Parliament.
c. a proprietor.
d. the colonists.
10. Which idea is NOT included in the Declaration of Independence?
a. People have certain natural rights.
b. God gives certain people the right to govern.
c. Government can exist only with the people's permission.
d. The people may change or abolish the government.
11. All of the following influenced the Framers in developing the Constitution EXCEPT
a. State constitutions.
b. John Locke's Two Treatises of Government.
c. Virginia's royal charter.
d. British tradition.
12. Which colony was founded mainly as a place for personal and religious freedom?
a. Virginia
b. Georgia
c. Massachusetts
d. New York
13. Which feature did the State constitutions and the Articles of Confederation have in common?
a. royal governors
b. bill of rights
c. principle of popular sovereignty
d. a strong executive elected by popular vote
14. Which of these State constitutions is the oldest and still in force today?
a. Massachusetts
b. South Carolina
c. New Hampshire
d. Virginia
15. After the Revolutionary War, the National Government
a. proved too weak to deal with growing economic and political problems.
b. refused to repay the war debt it owed to the States.
c. permitted the States to make agreements with foreign governments.
d. began imposing harsh tax policies on property owners and merchants.
16. In Benjamin Franklin's opinion, the final Constitution created by the delegates can best be summarized as
a. absolutely perfect.
b. as near perfect as possible.
c. showing errors of opinion and self-interest.
d. as full of imperfections as those who assembled it.
17. Which of the following statements about the inauguration of George Washington as the first U.S. president is
NOT true?
a. It followed his unanimous election in the Electoral College.
b. It took place in New York City, the country's temporary capital.
c. It came after the ratification of the Constitution.
d. It followed Washington's appointment of James Madison as the first Vice President.
18. A major objective of both the Annapolis Convention and the Philadelphia Convention was to
a. determine how the States should be represented in Congress.
b. recommend a federal plan for regulating interstate trade.
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c. raise an army for quelling incidents like Shay's Rebellion.
d. limit the growing power of the National Government.
The government set up by the Articles of Confederation had
a. no legislative or judicial branch.
b. only a legislative and an executive branch.
c. only a legislative branch, consisting of a unicameral Congress.
d. only a legislative branch, consisting of a bicameral Congress.
Which was an achievement of the Second Continental Congress?
a. preparing a Declaration of Rights
b. raising an American army
c. establishing a strong central government
d. passing the Intolerable Acts
With the words, "We the People," the Constitution establishes its authority on the basis of
a. popular sovereignty.
b. the rule of law.
c. the separation of powers.
d. limited government.
Which statement about the Bill of Rights is NOT true?
a. The amendments arose from the controversy over ratification of the Constitution.
b. The amendments were ratified at the same time as the Constitution.
c. The amendments guarantee such basic rights as freedom of expression and fair and equal
treatment before the law.
d. The amendments are the first ten of the Constitution.
The informal ammendment process
a. involves changing the written words of the Constitution.
b. has been used very little in the past 200 years.
c. can occur only with the approval of the States.
d. results from the daily experiences of government.
The President's Cabinet is an example of constitutional change by
a. unwritten custom.
b. court decision.
c. State action.
d. basic legislation.
In most cases involving judicial review, the courts have
a. had their decisions overturned by Congress.
b. found the governmental actions in question to be unconstitutional.
c. found the governmental actions in question to be constitutional.
d. had their decisions vetoed by the President.
Which of the following best describes the concept of limited government?
a. Powers are divided among three independent branches of government.
b. All political power belongs to the people.
c. Government must operate within certain bounds set by the people.
d. The people must behave according to rules set by the government.
Which of the following is a method of formal amendment?
a. proposal by three-fourths of the House of Representatives and ratification by conventions
in three-fourths of State legislatures
b. proposal by two-thirds of the Senate and ratification by two-thirds of State legislatures
c. proposal by two-thirds of Congress and ratification by three-fourths of State legislatures
d. all of the above
____ 28. Which of the following constitutional changes was a result of party practices?
a. the use of the electoral college as a "rubber stamp" for the popular vote
b. the revised structure of the federal court system
c. executive agreement
d. the practice of senatorial courtesy
____ 29. The basic constitutional rights of the people were FIRST set out in the
a. 13th, 14th, and 15th amendments.
b. 10th Amendment.
c. Bill of Rights.
d. Equal Rights Amendment.
____ 30. Which of the following is NOT true of the use of executive agreement?
a. It extends the President's power.
b. It carries the same legal force as a treaty.
c. It can be used to avoid the lengthy treaty-making process.
d. It is among the executive powers listed in Article II of the Constitution.
____ 31. The legislative branch can check the judicial branch by its power to
a. name federal judges.
b. remove judges through impeachment.
c. declare executive actions unconstitutional.
d. override a presidential veto.
____ 32. Which of the following is the subject of a constitutional amendment?
a. the prohibition of alcohol
b. repeal of a previous amendment
c. presidential term limits
d. all of the above
____ 33. The Judiciary Act of 1789 was an example of
a. a formal amendment to the Constitution.
b. congressional change to the Constitution.
c. an executive agreement.
d. a court decision.
____ 34. The system of federalism provides for all of the following EXCEPT
a. local action in matters of local concern.
b. a dual system of government.
c. uniform laws among the States.
d. strength through unity.
____ 35. Concurrent powers are those that are
a. exercised simultaneously by the National and the State governments.
b. exercised by State governments alone.
c. exercised by the National Government alone.
d. denied to both the National and the State governments.
____ 36. An enabling act directs any area desiring Statehood to
a. prepare a constitution.
b. become an organized territory.
c. give up its territory.
d. submit the act to a popular vote.
____ 37. States must honor the legality of one another's civil laws because of the
a. Necessary and Proper Clause.
b. Full Faith and Credit Clause.
c. Supremacy Clause.
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d. Interstate Compacts Clause.
Local governments derive their power from
a. the Constitution and federal laws.
b. State constitutions and State laws.
c. both State constitutions and the National Government.
d. city and county governments.
Which of the following is an expressed power of the National Government?
a. the power to coin money
b. the power to license doctors
c. the power to acquire territory
d. the power to grant divorces
Citizens who commit a crime in one State and then flee to another State to escape prosecution are to be
returned to the original State under
a. the Full Faith and Credit Clause.
b. the Privileges and Immunities Clause.
c. extradition.
d. any interstate compact involving all 50 States.
The Constitution requires the National Government to guarantee
a. block grants to every State.
b. schools for every community.
c. an equal number of representatives for every State.
d. a republican form of government for every State.
Which of the following is the earliest and one of the most significant agents in the political socialization
process?
a. family
b. place of residence
c. group affiliation
d. gender
Which of the following is NOT a shortcoming of current scientific polls?
a. They have difficulty measuring the relevance of opinions to the people who hold them.
b. They cannot accurately measure the intensity of opinions.
c. They have difficulty measuring the stability of opinions.
d. They cannot accurately measure political preferences.
Polls are taken to
a. guarantee the constitutional rights of all people.
b. determine people's attitudes and viewpoints.
c. further the political socialization of individuals.
d. provide a system of checks and balances.
The impact of the mass media on the public agenda can best be described as its ability to
a. tell people whom to vote for.
b. focus the public's attention on specific issues.
c. tell people what opinions to have about those issues.
d. focus the public's attention on how to vote.
Which of the following does NOT limit the influence of the mass media on public opinion?
a. Only a small part of the public pays attention to politics.
b. Voters tend to pay attention to sources with which they disagree.
c. Most television programs have little to do with public affairs.
d. Voters tend to pay attention to sources with which they agree.
____ 47. Attitudes held by a significant number of people concerning governmental and political questions
are known as
a. the mass media.
b. public opinion.
c. interest groups.
d. public policies.
____ 48. "Universe" is a term used to describe
a. a politician's constituency.
b. the entire group of persons sampled in a given poll.
c. the entire group of persons whose opinions a poll seeks to measure.
d. the group that supports the activities of an interest group.
____ 49. Public opinion is made known through all of the following EXCEPT
a. interest groups.
b. personal contacts.
c. the media.
d. peer groups.
____ 50. What would be your BEST advice to a person who wants to learn more about political issues?
a. Watch only television news and commentary shows daily.
b. Pay attention only to newspaper stories.
c. Explore a variety of sources of political information.
d. Regularly read the major newspapers and news magazines.
____ 51. The influence of public opinion on public policy is limited by what?
a. religious leaders.
b. peer groups.
c. historic events.
d. interest groups.
____ 52. The lawmaking function of Congress is central to democracy because
a. it enables elected representatives to do the daily work of government.
b. legislative powers are necessary to check the power of the President.
c. it frees members of Congress from the pressures of public opinion.
d. it is the means by which the public will becomes public policy.
____ 53. Which qualification for House members is NOT in the Constitution?
a. must be at least 25 years old
b. must have been a citizen for at least seven years
c. must live in the district being represented
d. must live in the State from which chosen
____ 54. Which statement about the Senate is true?
a. It has two members from each State.
b. Its members are chosen by State legislatures.
c. Each member represents one congressional district.
d. Seats are apportioned among the States according to their populations.
____ 55. Which fact disqualifies a person from representing Utah in the Senate?
a. The candidate was born in Guatemala.
b. The candidate is 43 years old.
c. The candidate lives in Utah but works in Idaho.
d. The candidate has been a citizen for eight years.
____ 56. The fact that all congressional districts in a State must have about the same number of people so that one
person's vote is equal to another's, is due to the
a. Reapportionment Act of 1929.
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b. Wesberry v. Sanders ruling.
c. 17th Amendment.
d. Census Bureau.
Compensation for senators is
a. set by the Constitution.
b. higher than for representatives.
c. set by the President.
d. the same as for representatives.
In Congress, screening bills for floor consideration is a major duty of
a. committee members.
b. constituent servants.
c. constituent representatives.
d. politicians.
The regular period of time during which Congress conducts its business is called a
a. prorogue.
b. session.
c. special session.
d. congressional meeting.
The House may refuse to seat a member-elect only if he or she
a. has engaged in disorderly behavior.
b. has violated the code of ethics passed by the House in 1977.
c. does not meet constitutional standards of age, citizenship, and residency.
d. does not meet informal standards set by two-thirds of the members.
The number of Senate seats held by each State is
a. set by the Census Bureau.
b. based on State populations.
c. the same as the number of House seats.
d. fixed by the Constitution.
Few members of Congress today
a. are minorities.
b. have college degrees.
c. are white males.
d. are married.
Members of Congress fill all of the following roles EXCEPT that of
a. legislator.
b. committee member.
c. Cabinet member.
d. servant to constituents.
Supreme Court rulings have been key to broadening the scope of which expressed power?
a. the postal power
b. the power to tax
c. the commerce power
d. eminent domain
The powers of Congress are affected by all of the following EXCEPT what the
a. Constitution expressly says Congress may do.
b. Constitution says only the States may do.
c. States’ constitutions say Congress may do.
d. Constitution is silent about.
In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court
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a. ruled the doctrine of implied powers to be unconstitutional.
b. upheld the doctrine of implied powers.
c. upheld the right of the State of Maryland to tax a federal agency.
d. ruled the creation of a bank by Congress to be unconstitutional.
The level of the nation's debt
a. is limited by the Constitution.
b. is always limited by Congress.
c. is not limited by any government agency.
d. may not exceed $10 billion.
Since 1789, the expansion of power of the National Government has been caused by all of the following
EXCEPT
a. strict construction of the Constitution.
b. liberal construction of the Constitution.
c. technological advances.
d. economic crises.
For what purpose does the Constitution give Congress the power to regulate bankruptcy?
a. to finance projects that current revenues cannot cover
b. to establish uniform procedures for dealing with insolvent debtors
c. to coin money and regulate its value
d. to act on matters affecting the nation's security
The Supreme Court ruling in Gibbons v. Ogden expanded the
a. currency power by including paper money as legal tender.
b. power to tax by allowing a tax on incomes.
c. commerce power to include all commercial interactions.
d. power over territories to include the taking of private property.
According to the Constitution, who has the sole power to impeach the President?
a. The House of Representatives
b. the Vice President
c. the Supreme Court
d. State courts
Which of the following nonlegislative powers may be exercised solely by the Senate?
a. the power to propose constitutional amendments
b. the power to elect a President if the electoral college fails to do so
c. the power to approve or reject major presidential appointments
d. the power to investigate the activities of public officials
Which of the following is an example of the investigatory powers of Congress?
a. accepting a treaty made by the President
b. the power to regulate commerce with foreign nations
c. the power to lay and collect taxes
d. gathering information useful in making legislative decisions
All the following expressed powers belong to Congress EXCEPT
a. the power to declare war.
b. the power to tax exports.
c. the power to naturalize citizens.
d. the power to raise an army.
Under the Constitution, Congress has the sole power to
a. act as the commander in chief.
b. meet with foreign leaders.
c. declare war.
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d. none of the above.
In case the President is disabled, the way the Vice President becomes President is determined by the
a. original Constitution.
b. Presidential Succession Act.
c. 25th Amendment.
d. Congress.
According to the Constitution, the President must
a. be a man who owns property.
b. be at least 35 years of age.
c. have held one major public office.
d. have lived in the U. S. for at least 20 years.
As of January 20, 2001, the President receives a yearly salary of
a. $50,000.
b. $99,500.
c. $400,000.
d. $900,000.
The electoral system broke down in the election of 1800 because of the
a. rise of political parties.
b. 12th Amendment.
c. use of the national convention as a nominating device.
d. appearance of a presidential primary.
If an incumbent President is seeking another term in office, who will his party likely nominate?
a. the Vice President
b. the President
c. the Speaker of the House
d. the House majority leader
A State's presidential electors are chosen by
a. the State legislature.
b. its members in Congress.
c. popular vote.
d. a State convention.
A President can serve no more than ____ years in office.
a. 8
b. 4
c. 10
d. 12
According to the Presidential Succession Act of 1947, which of these officers follows the Vice President in
the line of presidential succession?
a. Speaker of the House
b. secretary of state
c. president pro tempore of the Senate
d. secretary of the treasury
The President may decide to resume duties after an illness by informing Congress that no inability exists, but
that decision can be challenged by
a. Congress.
b. the Vice President.
c. the Vice President and a majority of the Cabinet.
d. any representative in the House of Representatives.
____ 85. Most presidential caucuses differ from Statewide presidential primaries in all of the following ways EXCEPT
the
a. number of States that hold caucuses.
b. ways in which delegates to the national convention are chosen.
c. main purpose for which the delegates are chosen.
d. number of steps taken in choosing delegates to the national convention.
____ 86. During the nomination process, political battles are most likely to occur in
a. presidential primaries in the President's party.
b. presidential primaries in the party out of power.
c. the Cabinet.
d. the electoral college.
____ 87. The national convention is held to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT
a. unify the party behind its candidates.
b. pick its presidential candidate.
c. select the party's delegates.
d. adopt the party's platform.
____ 88. The least number of presidential electors a State can have is
a. one.
b. two.
c. three.
d. four.
____ 89. Which of the following statements is NOT an argument against the electoral college system?
a. A candidate who loses the popular vote may still be elected President.
b. An elector may vote for someone other than the voter-selected candidate.
c. A strong third-party effort might throw the election into the House.
d. The results depend upon how State congressional districts are drawn.
____ 90. The Federal Government is considered a bureaucracy primarily because it
a. was established according to the practice and traditions set by past Presidents as they
fulfilled their executive functions.
b. consists of many agencies that do not function very efficiently in the performance of their
duties.
c. is a complex system of organization based on certain principles.
d. is headed by the President, who represents the main bureau, or office.
____ 91. Unlike staff agencies, line agencies
a. serve in a support capacity by offering advice.
b. are directly responsible for administering programs.
c. help advise private programs of public interest.
d. primarily assist in the overall management of the executive branch.
____ 92. In the executive branch, the title of department is reserved for
a. agencies of Cabinet rank.
b. independent agencies.
c. agencies of the judicial branch.
d. agencies of congressional rank.
____ 93. Which one of the following is an example of an independent agency?
a. Department of State
b. National Aeronautics and Space Administration
c. National Security Council
d. Office of Management and Budget
____ 94. The civil service system was finally established because of
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a. President Washington's actions creating the tradition.
b. President Jefferson's support of political acceptability.
c. President Jackson's development of the spoils system.
d. President Garfield's assassination by an angry office seeker.
The civil service was created partly to ensure that federal employees
a. may run in partisan political elections.
b. are promoted based on loyalty to a political party.
c. are allowed full participation in party activities.
d. are promoted based on merit.
Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the Federal Government's classification as a
bureaucracy?
a. The government has three branches with checks and balances.
b. Each government worker has defined responsibilities.
c. The government has formal rules for operation.
d. Government officials at the top control those in the middle.
Which of the following was one of the original executive departments set up by Congress in 1789?
a. Department of Justice
b. Department of Treasury
c. Department of Agriculture
d. Department of Education
Which one of the following groups of advisors is NOT part of the Executive Office of the President?
a. chief of staff, press secretary, legal advisor
b. National Security Council, Office of Management and Budget
c. Council of Economic Advisers, Office of National Drug Control Policy
d. General Service Administration, NASA, EPA
Which of the following is NOT a reason that independent agencies exist outside of Cabinet departments?
a. Some independent agencies just do not fit within any department.
b. Congress seeks to protect certain agencies from the influence of partisan and pressure
politics.
c. The Constitution specifically provided for the independent existence of some agencies.
d. Some agencies are independent because of the peculiar and sensitive nature of their
functions.
Historically, the role of the Cabinet in the President's decision making may be described as
a. dependent on a President's use of it.
b. essential to the presidency.
c. unnecessary and a waste of time.
d. a key factor in the Framers' thinking.
The MAIN goal of the civil service today is to
a. do away with the spoils system and other forms of patronage.
b. provide jobs for people seeking federal positions.
c. make sure that federal employees are not partisan.
d. recruit and keep the best available people in the federal work force.
Which of the following are functions of employees working in the White House Office?
a. advise the President on foreign, domestic, and defense matters
b. preside over certain congressional hearings and legislative matters
c. report to the President on the purchase of supplies for the government
d. prosecute those accused of spying and treason against the government
The members of the President's Cabinet, after being appointed by the President, are then subject to
a. approval by public caucus.
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b. Senate approval.
c. House approval.
d. approval by the Vice President.
The first reform that successfully laid the foundation for the present civil service system was
a. President Jefferson's policy of political acceptability.
b. the establishment of the Civil Service Commission in 1871.
c. the Pendleton Act.
d. the setting up of the Office of Personnel Management.
A key role of the secretary of state is
a. being the operating head of the Defense Department.
b. offering advice on foreign affairs to the President.
c. overseeing the issuing of patents and censuses.
d. dividing the State Department into its geographic components.
The United States does not have a major strategic military alliance in the Middle East mainly because
a. the United States wants to maintain friendly relations with both Arabs and Israelis.
b. there is no potential for military conflict in the region.
c. the United States victory in the Gulf War has eliminated the need for alliances in this area.
d. Israel is capable of defending itself.
During the cold war, American relations with the Soviet Union were dominated by
a. détente.
b. foreign aid.
c. containment.
d. collective security.
Which is NOT a stated purpose of the United Nations?
a. to maintain international peace and security
b. to develop friendly relations among nations
c. to promote justice and cooperation
d. to promote free trade throughout the world
A major feature of American foreign policy since World War II has been
a. deterrence.
b. the Roosevelt Corollary to the Monroe Doctrine.
c. support for the League of Nations.
d. renewed isolationism.
The secretary of defense is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT
a. advising the President in the carrying out of defense policy.
b. selecting the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
c. running the Defense Department.
d. advising the President in the formation of defense policy.
Which historic world event finally ended the United States' commitment to a policy of isolationism?
a. World War II
b. the Vietnam War
c. the Korean War
d. the Persian Gulf War
The United States offers foreign aid MOSTLY to
a. improve the image of the United States abroad.
b. support struggling democracies and countries that are critical to foreign policy objectives.
c. protect ambassadors and citizens traveling abroad.
d. fund overseas military operations.
Since the end of the cold war, American foreign policy has recognized that
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a. the world has entered a new phase of peace and stability.
b. the United States no longer needs to be the world's policeman.
c. there are several new threats to world security.
d. the primary threat to world peace is world poverty.
Five member nations hold the veto power in the United Nations
a. Security Council.
b. International Court of Justice.
c. Trusteeship Council.
d. General Assembly.
Since 1965 the immigration policy of the United States, as enforced by the Immigration and Naturalization
Service, has emphasized
a. ethnicity and nationality.
b. economic and social status.
c. refugee status and family reunification.
d. health and intelligence assessment.
What do the Customs Service, Public Health Service, and Coast Guard have in common?
a. a suspicion of foreigners entering the United States
b. a concern that all visitors to the United States feel welcome
c. an exclusive involvement with the domestic affairs of the United States
d. an involvement with the foreign and defense policies of the United States
All of the following statements about the Court of Federal Claims are true EXCEPT:
a. Congress almost always appropriates money to satisfy upheld claims.
b. Decisions from the Court of Federal Claims cannot be appealed.
c. The Court of Federal Claims hears trials involving claims for damages against the Federal
Government.
d. Judges for the Court of Federal Claims are appointed by the President and approved by the
Senate.
One weakness of the Articles of Confederation was that
a. it established a dual court system.
b. it did not provide for a national judiciary.
c. Congress could create only a few lower federal courts.
d. the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was not clearly defined.
Which of the following federal courts exercises both original and appellate jurisdiction?
a. the Supreme Court
b. court of appeals
c. district court
d. the Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit
Which of the following statements about federal judges is TRUE?
a. They must have had previous service as State court judges or attorneys.
b. They serve a fixed term of office, set by Congress.
c. They are appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate.
d. All of the above are true.
Which federal court has original jurisdiction over MOST cases heard in federal court?
a. district court
b. court of appeals
c. the Supreme Court
d. the Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit
Most importantly, the Supreme Court is called the High Court because it is the
a. best court in the country.
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b. only court established by the Constitution.
c. first court in which most of the important federal cases are heard.
d. last court in which federal questions can be decided.
The Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit differs from the other 12 federal courts of appeals because it
a. does not hear appeals from regulatory agencies.
b. can have original jurisdiction over federal cases.
c. hears cases from across the country.
d. only hears appeals from the Supreme Court.
The purposes of the 12 federal courts of appeals include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. to relieve the work load of the Supreme Court.
b. to hear appeals from the district courts.
c. to consider cases from several regulatory agencies.
d. to hear original cases that have bypassed lower courts.
The term of office for constitutional court judges is determined by
a. the Constitution.
b. Congress.
c. the Department of Justice.
d. the President.
Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by a United States magistrate?
a. issuing arrest warrants
b. setting bail
c. trying some cases concerning minor offenses
d. recording court proceedings
The United States Tax Court hears
a. criminal cases.
b. civil cases.
c. no cases generated by the Internal Revenue Service.
d. all of the above.
The Supreme Court's decision in Marbury v. Madison
a. enabled William Marbury to become a justice of the peace.
b. stripped the President of his power to appoint federal judges.
c. established the Court's power of judicial review.
d. none of the above.
Legal cases in the District of Columbia and the territories that belong to the United States are settled in:
a. the courts of the State nearest the district or territory.
b. a separate system of courts for each territory and each district like those at the State and
federal levels.
c. a system of local courts like those in a city or town.
d. a system based on mediation and arbitration rather than legal confrontation.
Which statement about differences between constitutional courts and special courts is TRUE?
a. Constitutional courts do not exercise broad judicial power.
b. Only constitutional courts hear cases arising out of expressed congressional powers.
c. Special courts have special powers granted under Article III.
d. Special courts hear a much narrower range of cases.
A federal court has jurisdiction over a case if
a. a citizen of one State is suing a citizen from another State.
b. a State is suing a resident of another State.
c. a State is suing another State.
d. all of the above.
____ 132. Which of the following statements about civil rights is NOT true?
a. Each person's rights are relative to the rights of others.
b. Rights sometimes conflict with one another.
c. Some rights may be limited in wartime.
d. Rights are extended only to citizens.
____ 133. The Free Exercise Clause gives people the right to
a. assemble and express their views on public matters.
b. hold meetings and parades on public streets without permits.
c. believe whatever they choose to believe in matters of religion.
d. exercise anywhere they choose.
____ 134. Which of the following statements about prior restraint is TRUE?
a. Prior restraints are usually upheld by the Supreme Court.
b. The Constitution guarantees the right of prior restraint.
c. The Supreme Court has only rarely upheld prior restraints.
d. Prior restraints are necessary to prevent censorship.
____ 135. Laws against editious speech have been uhheld by the Supreme Court if they
a. disagree with the government in public.
b. urge people to vote against the government.
c. urge people to overthorow the government.
d. support the party out of power.
____ 136. Government has the right to make reasonable rules regulating assemblies
a. to uphold its limits on free speech.
b. to protect against the inciting of violence or the endangerment of life.
c. in situations that may involve protest against government policies.
d. if rules are applied individually regarding content.
____ 137. The Due Process Clause guarantees that
a. the National Government will not interfere with constitutional rights.
b. States are not bound by their State constitutions in matters of individual rights.
c. States will not deny people any basic or essential liberties.
d. State governments will police the National Government.
____ 138. A democracy must allow freedom of expression, otherwise
a. a dictatorship cannot exist.
b. office seekers cannot run for office.
c. government will collapse.
d. democracy does not really exist.
____ 139. Which of the following statements about commercial speech is TRUE?
a. It is legal to print false or misleading advertising only to benefit government-funded
products.
b. Cigarette ads are permitted on radio and television.
c. Federal law forbids pharmacies from advertising prescription drug prices.
d. Commercial speech is protected by the 1st and 14th amendments.
____ 140. Which has received the most limited 1st Amendment protection?
a. radio and television
b. magazines
c. movies
d. newspapers
____ 141. The Supreme Court has ruled that demonstrations on private property
a. are protected by the 1st Amendment.
b. are not protected by the 1st Amendment if demonstrators are trespassing.
____ 142.
____ 143.
____ 144.
____ 145.
____ 146.
____ 147.
____ 148.
____ 149.
____ 150.
c. have the same protections as those on public property.
d. are legal if speeches are given.
The main reason that there is no exact definition of the due process guarantees is that the
a. Constitution is too specific.
b. guarantees protect citizens against unfair processes, but not unfair laws.
c. Supreme Court only defines the guarantees on a case-by-case basis.
d. courts do not want to give away too much specific information to potential lawbreakers.
The right to privacy inherent in the concept of due process has been applied with the most controversy
recently in cases involving
a. abortion.
b. searches and seizures.
c. bearing arms.
d. school attendance.
Under the 2nd Amendment,
a. there is no limitation on the free flow of guns within the United States.
b. the States cannot limit a person's right to own a gun.
c. each State has the right to have a militia.
d. no citizen may own a gun.
A(n) ____, requires the police to bring a prisoner before the court and explain why he or she should not be
released.
a. writ of habeas corpus
b. bill of attainder
c. ex post facto law
d. indictment
To have a fair trial, a person is guaranteed all of the following EXCEPT
a. trial within a reasonable time.
b. trial by a jury.
c. adequate defense.
d. media coverage if demanded.
The main reason the Constitution dealt specifically with the crime of treason was that
a. treason was not considered a serious crime before the Constitution was written.
b. treason is a crime against the country, not against individuals.
c. the Framers knew the charge of treason can be used for political reasons.
d. the Framers wanted to prevent all treason in order to protect the democracy.
Which of the following was declared by the Supreme Court to be "cruel and unusual punishment"?
a. denying inmates needed medical treatment
b. use of the electric chair as a form of execution
c. placing two inmates in a cell built for one
d. use of the firing squad as a form of execution
The main purpose of the exclusionary rule is to
a. deter police misconduct.
b. prevent people who are clearly guilty from going free.
c. allow certain kinds of "tainted" evidence to be used in court.
d. allow for honest mistakes by police officers.
The most important difference between procedural and substantive due process is that
a. substantive due process was recognized first by the Supreme Court.
b. procedural due process deals with governmental methods and how they are used, whereas
substantive due process deals with the fairness of laws.
c. the Supreme Court can rule on cases involving procedural due process but the States rule
____ 151.
____ 152.
____ 153.
____ 154.
____ 155.
____ 156.
____ 157.
____ 158.
____ 159.
on cases of substantive due process.
d. only procedural due process is covered under the 14th Amendment Due Process Clause.
The guarantee against double jeopardy protects a person from being tried
a. for more than one crime committed at any one time.
b. twice for the same crime.
c. for a crime the person did not commit.
d. for a federal crime in a State court.
According to the Supreme Court, capital punishment
a. is most fairly applied through use of a two-stage trial.
b. is cruel and unusual punishment.
c. is unconstitutional.
d. can be a mandatory penalty for certain crimes.
The Supreme Court cases Jones v. Mayer (1968) and Runyon v. McCrary (1976) have
a. avoided dealing with the problem of discrimination by individuals against minorities.
b. strengthened the 13th Amendment by upholding the right of Congress to outlaw
discrimination against minorities.
c. weakened the 13th Amendment by denying Congress the right to outlaw discrimination.
d. said that charges of on-the-job discrimination should be handled according to the
discretion of the individual States.
Which is the MOST accurate description of the way minority groups historically have been treated in the
United States?
a. with complete equality
b. with reluctance to accept their equality
c. with a sincere recognition of their cultural differences
d. with willing acceptance of immigrants, but only forced acceptance of those minorities
already residing in the United States
In regard to the issue of equality, the Constitution states that
a. all people are equal in all ways.
b. slaves should be equal to free people.
c. no person can be denied equal protection of the laws.
d. government cannot draw distinctions between persons and groups.
With ____, the Federal Government hopes to overcome effects of past discrimination.
a. affirmative action
b. de facto segregation
c. reverse discrimination
d. denaturalization
A person can become a citizen of the United States by all of the following means EXCEPT
a. being born in the United States.
b. being born beyond American jurisdiction to American parents.
c. by an act of Congress or a treaty.
d. illegally crossing the Mexican border into Texas.
Over time, the makeup of the American population has become
a. more diverse.
b. more stable.
c. less heterogeneous.
d. less ethnic.
In the past, women have been denied which of the following?
a. the right to own property
b. educational opportunities
____ 160.
____ 161.
____ 162.
____ 163.
____ 164.
____ 165.
____ 166.
____ 167.
____ 168.
____ 169.
c. suffrage
d. all of the above
Laws that treat men and women differently
a. are always constitutional.
b. are always unconstitutional.
c. may be upheld by the Supreme Court if they meet certain criteria.
d. may be passed by Congress but not by States.
De jure segregation
a. no longer exists in this country.
b. existed only in the South.
c. is caused mainly by housing patterns.
d. was the result of laws or other government actions.
The Civil Rights Act of 1964
a. outlaws discrimination in public accommodations and hiring practices.
b. is not a meaningful piece of civil rights legislation.
c. does not apply to restaurants and eating-places.
d. does not include voting rights provisions.
An amnesty program was established by the Immigration and Reform Act of 1986 to address which of the
following problems?
a. Undocumented aliens had troubled and divided many groups.
b. There was not enough border patrol officers to combat the problem of illegal immigration.
c. Employers were unwilling to hire undocumented aliens.
d. The establishment of a quota system had angered many immigrants.
The continuing theme of immigration policy in the United States has been to
a. allow all refugees a safe haven.
b. help many from other countries become citizens of the United States.
c. exert limited control over who can enter the country.
d. adapt regulations to fit changing conditions at a particular time.
Citizenship by birth is determined by the rules
a. of naturalization and denaturalization.
b. of jus soli and jus sanguinis.
c. set forth in the amendments to the Constitution.
d. of individual or collective naturalization.
Which of the following is NOT true of each State's constitution?
a. Each State constitution details the means by which it may be amended.
b. Each State constitution takes priority over all provisions of federal law.
c. Each State constitution contains a bill of rights guaranteeing certain rights to the public.
d. Each State constitution distributes power among the three branches of State government.
In States that have a bicameral legislature, the lower house
a. elects a speaker to preside.
b. elects a president to preside.
c. has two presiding officers.
d. always has nonpartisan leadership.
In most State governments, the secretary of state
a. acts as the chief clerk and record-keeper.
b. presides over the Senate.
c. is the chief tax collector.
d. acts as the legal advisor to all State officers.
All of the following are nonlegislative powers held by State legislatures EXCEPT the
____ 170.
____ 171.
____ 172.
____ 173.
____ 174.
____ 175.
____ 176.
____ 177.
____ 178.
a. power to approve certain gubernatorial appointments.
b. power of impeachment.
c. power to make and revise constitutional amendments.
d. police power.
Unlike a grand jury, a petit jury
a. always has 12 jurors.
b. is used only in civil cases.
c. may question witnesses and summon others to testify against a suspect.
d. is a trial jury used in both civil and criminal cases.
Today, the most widely used method for selecting judges to sit in State and local courts is
a. popular election.
b. selection by the legislature.
c. selection by the governor.
d. selection by judicial commission.
In some States, a serious criminal case may be heard without a petit jury if the
a. judge orders that a grand jury be used instead.
b. State permits the prosecuting attorney to use information instead.
c. accused waives the right to a trial by jury.
d. jurors waive their right to hear and decide the case.
The branch of law called equity
a. consists of rules and regulations based on the United States Constitution.
b. consists of statutes enacted by legislative bodies or by the people.
c. is used to settle disputes after they happen.
d. is used to prevent potential wrongs before they occur.
Which State was the first in which popular approval played a direct role in the adoption and ratification of a
State constitution?
a. Massachusetts
b. New York
c. Georgia
d. Connecticut
According to most State constitutions, if a governor resigns or leaves office midterm the ____ serves the
remainder of his term.
a. attorney general
b. secretary of state
c. lieutenant governor
d. president of the senate
The ____ is the usual device by which new State constitutions are written and older constitutions revised.
a. constitutional convention
b. selection by public initiative
c. selection by legislature
d. selection by governor
The primary cause of long State constitutions is
a. the desire to be thorough.
b. distrust of the government.
c. too much stress on fundamental law.
d. the successful separation of fundamental law from statutory law.
How long are the terms of State legislators?
a. 1 or 2 years
b. 2 or 3 years
c. 1 or 3 years
d. 2 or 4 years
INTERPRETING TABLES
Use the chart to answer the following questions.
____ 179. Government in which power is limited to a single person or very small group exists in
a. Cuba.
b. Costa Rica.
c. the United States.
d. Brazil.
____ 180. Which form of government does Cuba, Costa Rica, and France have in common?
a. parliamentary
b. democratic
c. unitary
d. dictatorial
____ 181. Which characteristic do the United States and Botswana have in common?
a. Both countries are democratic.
b. Both countries have a presidential form of government.
c. Both countries have a unitary form of government.
d. Both countries have parliamentary governments.
____ 182. All of the following countries are democracies EXCEPT
a. France.
b. India.
c. Syria.
d. Brazil.
INTERPRETING DIAGRAMS
Use the diagram to answer the following questions.
____ 183. What label should appear at the place marked by the letter D?
a. Concurrent Powers
b. Powers reserved to the States
c. Powers denied both the National Government and the States
d. Powers denied the National Government
____ 184. What label should appear at the place marked by the letter B?
a. Concurrent Powers
b. Powers denied the National Government
c. Powers reserved to the States
d. Powers denied both the National Government and the States
____ 185. What label should appear at the place marked by the letter C?
a. Concurrent Powers
b. Powers denied the National Government
c. Powers reserved to the States
d. Powers denied both the National Government and the States
INTERPRETING GRAPHS
Use the graph to answer the following questions.
____ 186. Which form of mass media did Americans spend the most time using?
a. radio
b. daily newspapers
c. television
d. consumer magazines
____ 187. How many hours did Americans spend listening to the radio in the year 2000?
a. 1571
b. 900
c. 1056
d. 154
____ 188. How many more hours did the average American spend watching television than listening to the radio in
2000?
a. 154
b. 802
c. 515
d. 80
INTERPRETING POLITICAL CARTOONS
Use the cartoon to answer the following questions.
____ 189. What attitude toward the senator does the cartoon seem to convey?
a. approval
b. disapproval
c. sympathy
d. objectivity
____ 190. Which of the following characteristics does NOT describe this senator?
a. He is white, male, and middle-aged.
b. He has access to the media.
c. He is relatively free from concern about his constituents' interests.
d. He considers himself to be the servant of his constituents.
INTERPRETING GRAPHS AND POLITICAL CARTOONS
Use the graph and cartoon to answer the following questions.
____ 191. Which of the following expenditures was greater than the expenditure on health?
a. net interest on the public debt
b. income security
c. administration of justice
d. international affairs
____ 192. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the cartoon?
a. It is selfish to expect anything from the government.
b. The government takes, but does not give.
c. The government wants to meet your needs.
d. Paying taxes is an enjoyable experience and brings out the best in people.
INTERPRETING MAPS
Use the map to answer the following questions.
____ 193. The number of electoral votes that Iowa has is
a. five.
b. seven.
c. nine.
d. twelve.
____ 194. The States with the largest electoral vote include
a. Pennsylvania and Illinois.
b. Alaska and Hawaii.
c. Texas and Florida.
d. California and New York.
INTERPRETING GRAPHS
Use the graph to answer the following questions.
____ 195. What percentage of civil service employees are women?
a. 56%
b. 16.7%
c. 44%
d. 71.5%
____ 196. What ethnic group makes up the smallest percentage of the civil service?
a. Native Americans
b. Hispanics
c. Men
d. Women
IDENTIFYING KEY TERMS
____ 197. The court that first hears a case is said to have
a. appellate jurisdiction.
b. exclusive jurisdiction.
c. original jurisdiction.
d. concurrent jurisdiction.
____ 198. The list of cases to be heard by a court is called a
a. civil case list.
b. certificate.
c. writ of certiorari.
d. docket.
INTERPRETING POLITICAL CARTOONS
Use the cartoon to answer the following questions.
____ 199. The cartoonist depicts the democratic process as
a. delicate.
b. dying.
c. strong.
d. insensitive.
____ 200. In the cartoon, mass marching
a. is used to represent a democratic freedom.
b. endangers the democratic process.
c. is done to support only certain causes.
d. creates risks for the marchers.
____ 201. The cartoonist seems MOST concerned about
a. the rights of people demonstrating for causes.
b. the status of changes to the democratic process.
c. the strength of the democratic process.
d. the causes for which people choose to march.
INTERPRETING CHARTS
Use the chart to answer the following questions.
____ 202. In the chart, what label should appear in the box marked W?
a. Right to appeal
b. Verdict of jury
c. No third degree or coerced confession
d. Arrest on warrant or probable cause
____ 203. Another label for the second box from the top would be
a. Exclusionary rule in effect.
b. Police follow Mirando Rule.
c. Defendant invokes the 5th Amendment.
d. Informed of custody rights.
____ 204. The secod box from the bottom describes rights protected by
a. preventive detention.
b. the 8th Amendment
c. the Miranda Rule
d. the use of two-stage trials.
INTERPRETING DIAGRAMS
Use the diagram to answer the following questions.
____ 205. Which label should appear at the place marked by the letter W?
a. Court of Appeals
b. Small Claims
c. Municipal Courts
d. Justice Courts
____ 206. What structure does the diagram represent?
a. the appeals process under criminal law
b. the organization of a typical city court system
c. the organization of a typical State court system
d. the structure of judicial appointment under the Missouri plan
MAIN IDEAS
____ 207. All of the following include examples of the common functions of counties EXCEPT the
a. maintaining of jails and correctional facilities.
b. assessing of property for tax purposes.
c. issuing of marriage and hunting licenses.
d. dividing of land into residential, commercial, and industrial zones.
____ 208. State budgets vary greatly according to the degree of ____ in each State.
a. entitlement
b. incorporation
c. urbanization
d. assessment
____ 209. City zoning is most often opposed on the grounds that it
a. typically raises property values.
b. is used primarily to benefit real estate developers.
c. denies people the right to use their property as they choose.
d. has been declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
____ 210. Many weaknesses of county government are caused by the lack of
a. a centralized executive authority.
b. power to levy taxes.
c. elected officers authorized to perform countywide duties.
d. commissions authorized to regulate county services.
____ 211. Which of the following include examples of the ways in which metropolitan areas attempt to meet fiscal
challenges?
a. the annexation of outlying areas
b. the creation of special districts in heavily populated urban areas
c. the increase of authority given to local county governments
d. all of the above
____ 212. Which statement is true about all counties in the United States?
a. Their size is based on the size of the State.
b. Their size is based on the population of the State.
c. They can only be created by the State.
d. They serve only a judicial function.
____ 213. The shift from rural to urban society in the United States was due to
a. the invention of labor-reducing farm devices.
b. improvements in transportation.
c. growth in factory-based industries.
d. all of the above.
____ 214. The main purpose of a city's charter is to
a. establish the city as a legal body.
b. set out the city's basic laws.
c. provide a forum for public debate.
____ 215.
____ 216.
____ 217.
____ 218.
d. provide for the election of city officers.
The main reason that States hold many important powers is that the
a. Framers distrusted a strong central government.
b. Constitution does not grant many States' rights.
c. Constitution describes a unitary State.
d. States have accrued these powers over the years.
The purpose of a State budget is to
a. give the appearance of order to a chaotic series of steps in spending.
b. list expenses that have already been made.
c. divide the previous year's surplus among the local units of government.
d. decide which agencies receive money and how much.
State constitutions may limit taxes for
a. interstate commerce.
b. federal property taxes.
c. religious and other nonprofit groups.
d. private purposes only.
At the State and local level, the first step in the typical budget process is that
a. the budget is considered part-by-part by the legislature.
b. spending estimates are reviewed by an executive budget agency.
c. the governor reviews spending estimates and presents the information to the legislature.
d. each agency prepares estimates of its needs and expenditures for the upcoming year.
INTERPRETING DIAGRAMS
Use the diagram to answer the following questions.
____ 219. Under the weak mayor-council plan, department administrators are directly accountable to the
a. mayor only.
b. municipal judges.
c. mayor and council.
d. council and other officials.
____ 220. Under the strong mayor-council plan, what formal power does the mayor have to check the policies of the city
council?
a. the veto power
b. the power to appoint judges
c. the power to make policy
d. no formal power is provided
Study Guide US Gov EOY
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
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2. ANS:
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22. ANS:
D
DIF: Average
Government
C
DIF: Average
Origins of State
A
DIF: Average
Origins of State
D
DIF: Average
Government
C
DIF: Average
Federal Government
B
DIF: Average
Parliamentary Government
B
DIF: Average
Sovereignty
B
DIF: Average
Internet
D
DIF: Average
Charter Colonies
B
DIF: Average
Declaration of Independence
C
DIF: Average
Framers
C
DIF: Average
Royal Colonies
C
DIF: Average
Articles of Confederation
A
DIF: Average
Royal Colonies
A
DIF: Average
First National Government
B
DIF: Average
Framers
D
DIF: Average
Presidential Inauguration
B
DIF: Average
Annapolis Convention
C
DIF: Average
Articles of Confederation
B
DIF: Average
Second Continental Congress
A
DIF: Average
Popular Sovereignty
B
DIF: Average
REF: 5
OBJ: 1.1.4
REF: 8
OBJ: 1.1.3
REF: 8
OBJ: 1.1.3
REF: 5
OBJ: 1.1.2
REF: 14
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REF: 16
OBJ: 1.2.4
REF: 6
OBJ: 1.1.2
REF: 22
OBJ: 1.3.3
REF: 32
OBJ: 2.2.1
REF: 38
OBJ: 2.2.4
REF: 48
OBJ: 2.4.4
REF: 31
OBJ: 2.1.3
REF: 44
OBJ: 2.2.5
REF: 31
OBJ: 2.3.1
REF: 37
OBJ: 2.3.2
REF: 49
OBJ: 2.4.5
REF: 59
OBJ: 2.5.2
REF: 46
OBJ: 2.3.2
REF: 44
OBJ: 2.3.1
REF: 37
OBJ: 2.2.3
REF: 73
OBJ: 3.1.2
REF: 76
OBJ: 3.2.3
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45. ANS:
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46. ANS:
Bill of Rights
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Bill of Rights
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Constitutional Change by Other Means
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Judicial Review
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Limited Government
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Formal Amendment
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Constitutional Change by Other Means
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Bill of Rights
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Executive Agreement
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Checks and Balances
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Formal Amendment
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Constitutional Change by Other Means
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Federalism
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Concurrent Powers
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Enabling Act
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Full Faith and Credit Clause
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Reserved Powers
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Expressed Powers
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Extradition
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Federalism
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Political Socialization
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Scientific Polling
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Public Opinion Polls
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Mass Media
B
DIF: Average
REF:
76
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81
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69
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65
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72
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81
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76
OBJ: 3.2.3
80
OBJ: 3.3.2
67
OBJ: 3.1.2
72
OBJ: 3.2.3
79
OBJ: 3.3.1
88
OBJ: 4.1.1
93
OBJ: 4.1.3
99
OBJ: 4.2.2
106
OBJ: 4.3.2
92
OBJ: 4.1.4
89
OBJ: 4.1.2
107
OBJ: 4.3.3
88
OBJ: 4.2.3
210
OBJ: 8.1.2
217
OBJ: 8.2.4
217
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211
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Mass Media
B
DIF: Average
Public Opinion
C
DIF: Average
The Polling Process
D
DIF: Average
Public Opinion
C
DIF: Average
Public Opinion
D
DIF: Average
Public Opinion
D
DIF: Average
Congress
C
DIF: Average
Qualifications for House Members
A
DIF: Average
The Senate
D
DIF: Average
Qualifications for Senate Members
B
DIF: Average
Wesberry v. Sanders
D
DIF: Average
The Senate
A
DIF: Average
Congress
B
DIF: Average
Session
C
DIF: Average
Qualifications for House Members
D
DIF: Average
The Senate
A
DIF: Average
Congress
C
DIF: Average
Congress
C
DIF: Average
Commerce Power
C
DIF: Average
Congressional Power
B
DIF: Average
McCulloch v. Maryland
C
DIF: Average
Public Debt
A
DIF: Average
Strict Constructionalists
B
DIF: Average
Bankruptcy
C
DIF: Average
REF: 209
OBJ: 8.1.1
REF: 218
OBJ: 8.2.3
REF: 209
OBJ: 8.2.1
REF: 209
OBJ: 8.3.2
REF: 209
OBJ: 8.2.5
REF: 262
OBJ: 10.1.1
REF: 272
OBJ: 10.2.4
REF: 275
OBJ: 10.3.2
REF: 277
OBJ: 10.3.4
REF: 271
OBJ: 10.2.3
REF: 275
OBJ: 10.4.3
REF: 262
OBJ: 10.4.2
REF: 264
OBJ: 10.1.3
REF: 272
OBJ: 10.2.4
REF: 275
OBJ: 10.3.1
REF: 262
OBJ: 10.4.1
REF: 262
OBJ: 10.4.2
REF: 297
OBJ: 11.2.3
REF: 290
OBJ: 11.1.1
REF: 306
OBJ: 11.4.2
REF: 296
OBJ: 11.1.1
REF: 291
OBJ: 11.1.2
REF: 300
OBJ: 11.2.5
REF: 297
OBJ: 11.2.3
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TOP:
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Commerce Power
A
DIF: Average
Impeachment
C
DIF: Average
Nonlegislative Powers of the Senate
D
DIF: Average
Investigatory Powers of Congress
B
DIF: Average
Expressed Powers of Congress
C
DIF: Average
Expressed Powers of Congress
C
DIF: Average
Presidential Succession
B
DIF: Average
Presidential Qualifications
C
DIF: Average
Presidential Pay and Benefits
A
DIF: Average
Election of 1800
B
DIF: Average
Incumbent
C
DIF: Average
Presidential Electors
C
DIF: Average
President's Term
A
DIF: Average
Presidential Succession Act of 1947
C
DIF: Average
Presidential Disability
C
DIF: Average
The Caucus-Convention Process
B
DIF: Average
Presidential Nomination
C
DIF: Average
National Convention
C
DIF: Average
Presidential Electors
D
DIF: Average
Electoral College
C
DIF: Average
Bureaucracy
B
DIF: Average
Staff and Line Agencies
A
DIF: Average
Executive Departments
B
DIF: Average
Independent Agencies
D
DIF: Average
REF: 311
OBJ: 11.5.2
REF: 313
OBJ: 11.5.3
REF: 314
OBJ: 11.5.4
REF: 294
OBJ: 11.3.1
REF: 301
OBJ: 11.3.2
REF: 359
OBJ: 13.2.1
REF: 356
OBJ: 13.1.2
REF: 358
OBJ: 13.1.4
REF: 366
OBJ: 13.3.1
REF: 374
OBJ: 13.4.5
REF: 366
OBJ: 13.5.1
REF: 357
OBJ: 13.1.3
REF: 360
OBJ: 13.2.1
REF: 360
OBJ: 13.2.2
REF: 372
OBJ: 13.4.3
REF: 368
OBJ: 13.4.2
REF: 372
OBJ: 13.4.1
REF: 365
OBJ: 13.5.1
REF: 366
OBJ: 13.5.3
REF: 414
OBJ: 15.1.1
REF: 418
OBJ: 15.1.4
REF: 424
OBJ: 15.1.3
REF: 430
OBJ: 15.4.2
REF: 437
OBJ: 15.5.1
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Civil Service
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Civil Service
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Bureaucracy
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Executive Departments
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Executive Office of the President
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Independent Agencies
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Executive Departments
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Civil Service
A
DIF: Average
REF:
White House Office
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Executive Departments
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Civil Service
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Secretary of State
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Foreign Affairs
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Containment
D
DIF: Average
REF:
United Nations
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Deterrence
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Secretary of Defense
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Isolationism
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Foreign Aid
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Foreign Policy
A
DIF: Average
REF:
UN Security Council
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Immigration and Naturalization Service
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Foreign Policy
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Court of Federal Claims
B
DIF: Average
REF:
437
OBJ: 15.5.3
414
OBJ: 15.1.1
424
OBJ: 15.3.1
419
OBJ: 15.2.3
430
OBJ: 15.4.1
424
OBJ: 15.3.3
437
OBJ: 15.5.2
419
OBJ: 15.2.2
424
OBJ: 15.3.2
437
OBJ: 15.5.1
470
OBJ: 17.1.2
468
OBJ: 17.4.3
486
OBJ: 17.3.4
494
OBJ: 17.4.4
485
OBJ: 17.3.3
473
OBJ: 17.1.3
468
OBJ: 17.3.2
491
OBJ: 17.4.1
469
OBJ: 17.3.5
496
OBJ: 17.4.4
478
OBJ: 17.2.3
469
OBJ: 17.2.1
524
OBJ: 18.3.4
506
OBJ: 18.1.1
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National Judiciary
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Supreme Court
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Appointment of Federal Judges
A
DIF: Average
REF:
District Court
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Supreme Court
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Courts of Appeals
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Terms of Judges
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Court Officers
B
DIF: Average
REF:
United States Tax Court
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Marbury v. Madison
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Federal Judicial Districts
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Constitutional Courts
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Federal Jurisdiction
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Civil Rights
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Free Exercise Clause
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Prior Restraint
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Seditious Speech
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Assemble
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Due Process Clause
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Freedom of Expression
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Commercial Speech
A
DIF: Average
REF:
First Amendment and the Media
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Private Property
C
DIF: Average
REF:
517
OBJ: 18.1.2, 18.3.2
509
OBJ: 18.1.3, 18.1.4
512
OBJ: 18.2.1
517
OBJ: 18.3.1
515
OBJ: 18.2.3
513
OBJ: 18.2.2
510
OBJ: 18.1.4
511
OBJ: 18.1.5
526
OBJ: 18.2.2, 18.4.4
518
OBJ: 18.3.1
512
OBJ: 18.4.2
507
OBJ: 18.1.2, 18.4.3
508
OBJ: 18.1.2
533
OBJ: 19.1.2
542
OBJ: 19.2.4
549
OBJ: 19.3.3
547
OBJ: 19.3.2
555
OBJ: 19.4.2
535
OBJ: 19.1.3
537
OBJ: 19.2.1
553
OBJ: 19.3.4
550
OBJ: 19.3.3
557
OBJ: 19.4.3
564
OBJ: 20.1.1
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Due Process
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Due Process
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Right to Keep and Bear Arms
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Writ of Habeas Corpus
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Rights of the Accused
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Treason
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Cruel and Unusual Punishment
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Exclusionary Rule
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Due Process
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Double Jeopardy
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Capital Punishment
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Discrimination
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Discrimination in American Society
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Discrimination in American Society
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Affirmative Action
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Citizen
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Heterogeneous
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Discrimination Against Women
C
DIF: Average
REF:
Discrimination Against Women
D
DIF: Average
REF:
De Jure Segregation
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Civil Rights Act of 1964
A
DIF: Average
REF:
Immigration and Reform Act of 1986
D
DIF: Average
REF:
Immigration Policy
B
DIF: Average
REF:
Jus Sanguinis and Jus Soli
B
DIF: Average
REF:
564
OBJ: 20.1.3
571
OBJ: 20.2.2
576
OBJ: 20.3.1
576
OBJ: 20.3.3
588
OBJ: 20.4.4
586
OBJ: 20.4.2
573
OBJ: 20.2.3
564
OBJ: 20.1.1
578
OBJ: 20.3.2
587
OBJ: 20.4.3
570
OBJ: 20.2.1
594
OBJ: 21.1.2
594
OBJ: 21.2.1
609
OBJ: 21.3.2
613
OBJ: 21.4.1
594
OBJ: 21.1.1
598
OBJ: 21.1.3
598
OBJ: 21.2.3
604
OBJ: 21.2.2
608
OBJ: 21.3.1
618
OBJ: 21.4.5
616
OBJ: 21.4.4
613
OBJ: 21.4.2
684
OBJ: 24.1.2
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State Constitutions
A
DIF: Average
State Legislatures
A
DIF: Average
State Secretary of State
D
DIF: Average
State Legislatures
D
DIF: Average
Petit Jury
A
DIF: Average
Selection of Judges
C
DIF: Average
Petit Jury
D
DIF: Average
Equity
A
DIF: Average
Early State Constitutions
C
DIF: Average
Lieutenant Governor
A
DIF: Average
Constitutional Change
B
DIF: Average
State Constitutions
D
DIF: Average
State Legislators
A
DIF: Average
Dictatorship
C
DIF: Average
Unitary Government
A
DIF: Average
Democracy
C
DIF: Average
Democracy
D
DIF: Average
Division of Powers
C
DIF: Average
Division of Powers
A
DIF: Average
Division of Powers
C
DIF: Average
Mass Media
C
DIF: Average
Mass Media
C
DIF: Average
Mass Media
B
DIF: Average
The Senate
D
DIF: Average
REF: 689
OBJ: 24.2.1
REF: 700
OBJ: 24.3.3
REF: 689
OBJ: 24.2.3
REF: 705
OBJ: 24.4.3
REF: 711
OBJ: 24.5.2
REF: 705
OBJ: 24.4.3
REF: 703
OBJ: 24.4.1
REF: 685
OBJ: 24.1.1
REF: 699
OBJ: 24.3.1
REF: 687
OBJ: 24.1.3
REF: 684
OBJ: 24.1.4
REF: 695
OBJ: 24.2.2
REF: 5
OBJ: 1.2.1
REF: 14
OBJ: 1.2.3
REF: 5
OBJ: 1.2.4
REF: 5
OBJ: 1.2.1
REF: 89
OBJ: 4.1.2
REF: 89
OBJ: 4.1.2
REF: 89
OBJ: 4.1.3
REF: 211
OBJ: 8.3.2
REF: 211
OBJ: 8.3.2
REF: 211
OBJ: 8.3.2
REF: 275
OBJ: 10.4.1
REF: 275
OBJ: 10.4.2
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The Senate
B
DIF: Average
Expressed Powers of Congress
B
DIF: Average
Expressed Powers of Congress
B
DIF: Average
Electoral Votes
D
DIF: Average
Electoral Votes
C
DIF: Average
Civil Service
A
DIF: Average
Civil Service
C
DIF: Average
Original Jurisdiction
D
DIF: Average
Docket
A
DIF: Average
Civil Rights
B
DIF: Average
Civil Rights
C
DIF: Average
Civil Rights
D
DIF: Average
Rights of the Accused
D
DIF: Average
Rights of the Accused
D
DIF: Average
Rights of the Accused
A
DIF: Average
State Court Systems
C
DIF: Average
State Court Systems
D
DIF: Average
Counties
C
DIF: Average
Urbanization
C
DIF: Average
Zoning
A
DIF: Average
Counties
A
DIF: Average
Metropolitan Areas
C
DIF: Average
Counties
D
DIF: Average
Urbanization
B
DIF: Average
REF: 294
OBJ: 11.1.2
REF: 294
OBJ: 11.2.1
REF: 365
OBJ: 13.5.1
REF: 365
OBJ: 13.5.1
REF: 437
OBJ: 15.5.2
REF: 437
OBJ: 15.5.2
REF: 509
OBJ: 18.1.2
REF: 513
OBJ: 18.4.1
REF: 533
OBJ: 19.4.1
REF: 533
OBJ: 19.4.1
REF: 533
OBJ: 19.4.1
REF: 576
OBJ: 20.2.3
REF: 576
OBJ: 20.2.3
REF: 576
OBJ: 20.2.3
REF: 702
OBJ: 24.5.1
REF: 702
OBJ: 24.5.1
REF: 718
OBJ: 25.1.3
REF: 737
OBJ: 25.3.3
REF: 730
OBJ: 25.2.4
REF: 718
OBJ: 25.1.4
REF: 731
OBJ: 25.2.5, 25.4.3
REF: 718
OBJ: 25.1.2
REF: 737
OBJ: 25.2.1
REF: 726
OBJ: 25.2.2
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Charter
A
DIF: Average
REF: 733
State Government's Role
D
DIF: Average
REF: 744
State Budgets
C
DIF: Average
REF: 740
State Tax Limitations
D
DIF: Average
REF: 744
State Budgets
D
DIF: Average
REF: 727
Strong-Mayor Government, Weak-Mayor Government
A
DIF: Average
REF: 727
Strong-Mayor Government, Weak-Mayor Government
OBJ: 25.3.1
OBJ: 25.4.4
OBJ: 25.4.1
OBJ: 25.4.5
OBJ: 25.2.3
OBJ: 25.2.3