Practice Questions
GEOGRAPHY
Geography of the World
1. The world’s longest undersea rail tunnel-Seikan
Tunnel is between _______.
(a) Honshu and Shikoku
(b) Honshu and Kyushu
(c) Hokkaido and Shikoku
(d) Hokkaido and Honshu
2. Lake Biwa, the largest lake in Japan is in _______
island.
(a) Hokkaido
(b) Honshu
(c) Kyushu
(d) Shikoku
3. Mount Fujiyama, the highest point in Japan is in
________.
(a) Hokkaido
(b) Shikoku
(c) Kyushu
(d) Honshu
4. Ryukyus islands lie between Japan and _____.
(a) South Korea
(b) Russia
(c) China
(d) Taiwan
5. The Kanto plain, which is the largest in Japan, is in
________ island.
(a) Shikoku
(b) Kyushu
(c) Hokkaido
(d) Honshu
6. Tsugaru strait is in between ________ and _______.
(a) Hokkaido and Honshu
(b) Kyushu and Ryukyus
(c) Honshu and Shikoku
(d) Kyushu and Shikoku
7. ‘Minas Gerais’ means __________.
(a) many minerals
(b) valuable minerals
(c) no minerals
(d) cheap minerals
8. Who of the following named the continent
Australia?
(a) Abel Tasman
(b) Captain Cook
(c) Flanders
(d) Magellan
9. Which of the states in Australia, is the largest in
terms of area?
(a) Queensland
(b) New South Wales
(c) Western Australia (d) Northern Territory
10. _________ mountains make the border between
France and Spain.
(a) Carpathians
(b) Alps
(c) Pyrenees
(d) Zagros
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
1
11. Match the following
Islands
Country
A. Corsica
1. Italy
B. Sardinia
2. Greece
C. Crete
3. France
D. Balearic Island
4. Spain
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
1
2
4
(b)
3
2
1
4
(c)
3
4
1
2
(d)
3
2
4
1
12. The ________ is the most important river in Russia;
Russians call it Matushka – “Mother”. It empties
itself into Caspian Sea.
(a) Dnieper
(b) Don
(c) Volga
(d) Ob
13. Which is the most urbanized Arab state?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Bahrain
(c) Kuwait
(d) Qatar
14. Which is the largest Arab state in terms of area?
(a) Sudan
(b) Egypt
(c) Algeria
(d) Saudi Arabia
15. Which is the most populated Arab state?
(a) Egypt
(b) Sudan
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Iraq
16. Rub Al Khali (the Empty Quarter) is in _______.
(a) Sahara
(b) Arabian Peninsula
(c) Horn of Africa
(d) Botswana
17. Mt. Ararat is an extinct, glacier covered volcano of
16,804 feet towering over the border region between
Armenia and _________.
(a) Iraq
(b) Syria
(c) Jordan
(d) Turkey
18. Assertion (A): Mesopotamia, literally means “the
land between the rivers”.
Reason (R): Egypt and Mesopotamia are among the
world’s great culture hearths.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
19. Match the following
A. Strait of Tiran
1. Mediterranean Sea
B. Strait of Gibraltar 2. Red Sea
C. Bab-El-Mandeb
3. Persian Gulf
D. Strait of Hormuz
4. Gulf of Aqaba
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General Knowledge Manual
Codes:
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
1
2
4
(b)
4
1
2
3
(c)
4
1
3
2
(d)
2
1
4
3
The Greek historian and geographer _______ called
Egypt “the gift of the Nile”.
(a) Homer
(b) Eratosthenes
(c) Anaximander
(d) Herodotus
The enormous Aswan High Dam is located on a
stretch of the river Nile known as the _______
cataracts (cataracts are areas where the valley
narrows and rapids form in the river).
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Assertion (A): The Nile Valley may appropriately be
described as a “river oasis”.
Reason (R): Only 2% of Egypt is cultivated and nearly
all this land lies along Nile and is watered by it.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
The Nile’s main branches – the White Nile and Blue
Nile – originate respectively at the outlets of Lake
Victoria in Uganda and Lake ______ in Ethiopia and
flow eventually into Sudan.
(a) Albert
(b) Turkana
(c) Edward
(d) Tana
The largest block of irrigated land in Sudan is found
in the ________ (Arabic for “island”) between the
Blue and White Niles.
(a) Girba
(b) Gezira
(c) Khartoum
(d) Wadi Halfa
The ________ fringes of Africa are referred to as the
“Maghreb”.
(a) northeastern
(b) northwestern
(c) southeastern
(d) southwestern
The coastal belt of Mediterranean climate is referred
to as “_______” in Algeria.
(a) The Tell
(b) The Sudd
(c) The Maquis
(d) The Chapparal
The barren gravel plain, which occupy portions of
the Algerian Sahara are referred to as _________.
(a) ergs
(b) tanezrouft
(c) hamada
(d) foggaras
Most of Saudi Arabia’s oil fields including the
world’s largest, the Ghawar field, are located in the
_______ margins of the country.
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2
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
(a) eastern
(b) western
(c) southern
(d) northern
The Anatolian plateau, an area of wheat and barley
fields and grazing lands, is bordered on the north by
the lofty Pontic Mountains and on the south by the
_______ Mountains.
(a) Taurus
(b) Zagros
(c) Elburz
(d) Tibesti
Which of the following is the most urbanized in
Southeast Asia?
(a) Singapore
(b) Malaysia
(c) Brunei
(d) Philippines
Which of the following countries is the most
populous in Southeast Asia?
(a) Vietnam
(b) Philippines
(c) Indonesia
(d) Thailand
Identify the correct decreasing order in terms of area
of countries in the Indian subcontinent.
(a) India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh.
(b) India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal.
(c) India, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal.
(d) India, Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh.
Identify the correct decreasing order in terms of
population of countries in the Indian subcontinent.
(a) India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh.
(b) India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Pakistan.
(c) India, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal.
(d) India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal.
The term ‘Monsoon Asia’ is generally used for ___.
(a) Indian subcontinent
(b) South Asia
(c) East Asia, South Asia, Southeast Asia and the
islands that rings Southeast Asia.
(d) South Asia and East Asia
Which of the following is the most urbanized in
Africa?
(a) Western Sahara
(b) Djibouti
(c) South Africa
(d) Libya
The Horn of Africa includes–Ethiopia, Eritrea,
Somalia and ___________.
(a) Malawi
(b) Uganda
(c) Kenya
(d) Djibouti
A Latin American farmer who engages in swidden
or shifting cultivation in forest lands is referred to
as _________.
(a) Fellahin
(b) Lumberjack
(c) Milpero
(d) Mestizo
A person of mixed European and black ancestry is
referred to as _________.
(a) Mestizo
(b) Mulatto
(c) Zionist
(d) Fellahin
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Practice Questions: Geography 1.3
39. The main belt of cattle ranching in Australia extends
east-west across the northern part of the country,
with the greatest concentration in Queensland.
Aborigines are the principal ranch hands, known as
“drovers” and ________.
(a) Jackaroos
(b) Lumberjacks
(c) Fellahin
(d) Milpero
40. Which of the following rivers, is used more for
transportation than is any other river in the region
south of Sahara?
(a) Congo
(b) Zambezi
(c) Orange
(d) Limpopo
41. Kruger National Park is in ________.
(a) Namibia
(b) Congo
(c) South Africa
(d) Tanzania
42. Ngorogoro Crater National Park is in ______.
(a) Tanzania
(b) South Africa
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) Angola
43. Devil’s Island, an isolated island prison in the past,
is a part of _______.
(a) French Guiana
(b) Suriname
(c) Guyana
(d) Venezuela
44. Paraiba Valley, famous for steel is in ______.
(a) Brazil
(b) Colombia
(c) Venezuela
(d) Peru
45. Match the following
Volcano
Location
A. St. Helens
1. Iceland
B. Surtsey
2. Indonesia
C. Tambora
3. Papua New Guinea
D. Ritter Island
4. Washington
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
2
1
3
(b)
4
2
3
1
(c)
4
3
2
1
(d)
4
1
2
3
46. Match the following
Island Groups
Location
A. Aleutian Islands
1. Mediterranean Sea
B. Ionian Islands
2. Atlantic Ocean
C. New Hebrides
3. Arctic Ocean
D. Spitsbergen
4. Pacific Ocean
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
1
2
3
(b)
4
1
3
2
(c)
4
2
1
3
(d)
4
2
3
1
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
3
47. Which of the following places is known for maximum thunderstorms activity annually?
(a) Texas, U.S.
(b) Calcutta, India
(c) Kampala, Uganda (d) Dhaka, Bangladesh
48. Which of the following cities in U.S. is known for
maximum number of tornadoes?
(a) Oklahoma
(b) Kansas
(c) Texas
(d) Florida
49. Which of the following urban – agglomeration ranks
as the most populous metropolitan area in the
world?
(a) Tokyo–Yokohama (b) Osaka–Kobe–Kyoto
(c) New York City
(d) Seoul
50. Which country has the world’s largest percentage of
total cattle in the world?
(a) India
(b) Brazil
(c) China
(d) U.S.
51. Which country has the maximum percentage of
world’s total hogs?
(a) China
(b) U.S.
(c) Brazil
(d) India
52. Which country produces the maximum percentage
of world’s total hydroelectricity?
(a) Canada
(b) U.S.
(c) Brazil
(d) China
53. Which country produces the maximum percentage
of world’s total nuclear energy?
(a) U.S.
(b) France
(c) Japan
(d) Germany
54. Which country produces the maximum percentage
of world’s total petroleum production?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) U.S.
(c) Russia
(d) Iran
55. What is Canada’s smallest province?
(a) Price Edward island
(b) Quebec
(c) Alberta
(d) Saskatchewan
56. Which of the following calls itself as the “Land of
10,000 lakes” in North America?
(a) North Dakota
(b) Washington
(c) Montana
(d) Minnesota
57. Which is the most densely populated country in
North America?
(a) U.S.
(b) El Salvador
(c) Mexico
(d) Guatemala
58. Which is the only Caribbean island with large oil
reserves?
(a) Trinidad
(b) Cuba
(c) Jamaica
(d) Puerto Rico
59. Which U.S. state has the highest average elevation?
(a) Alaska
(b) Colorado
(c) Utah
(d) Washington
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General Knowledge Manual
60. Which South American country is the longest when
measured from north to south?
(a) Brazil
(b) Peru
(c) Chile
(d) Argentina
61. What was discovered in Venezuela’s lake Maracaibo
in 1914?
(a) Gold
(b) Natural Gas
(c) Polymetallic nodules(d) Petroleum
62. Give the correct sequence of Islands west to East.
(a) Java, Bali, Sulawesi, Irianjaya
(b) Irianjaya, Bali, Sulawesi. Java
(c) Sulawesi, Java, Irianjayam Bali
(d) Bali, Irianjaya, Java, Sulawesi
63. Match the following.
River
Country
A. Salween
1. Indonesia
B. Yuan
2. Myanmar
C. Chao Phraya
3. Vietnam
D. Mamberamo
4. Thailand
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
4
2
1
(b)
4
3
1
2
(c)
1
4
2
3
(d)
2
3
4
1
64. Consider the following Statements:
(i) No other continent has such a great percentage
of temperate areas as Europe.
(ii) Europe is called peninsula of peninsulas.
(iii) In Europe, length of the coast per unit area is
the longest among all continents.
(iv) Europe is also called the ‘dynamic continent’.
Which of the statements are true?
(a) All statement are true (b) (ii) & (iii) are true
(c) (i) & (iv) are true
(d) (i), (ii) & (iii)
65. Match the following
Mountains
Countries
A. Cantabrian
1. Britain
B. Harz
2. Germany
C. Pindhos
3. Spain
D. Pennines
4. Greece
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
1
3
2
(b)
3
2
4
1
(c)
1
2
3
4
(d)
4
3
2
1
66. Match the following
Industrial Region
Country
A. Silesia
1. Germany
B. Krivoy Rog
2. Sweden
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
4
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
C. Leipzig
3. Ukraine
D. Kiruna
4. Poland
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
4
2
1
(b)
1
4
3
2
(c)
4
3
1
2
(d)
2
1
4
2
Match the following
A. Murmansk
1. Sea of Okhotsk
B. Magadan
2. Gulf of Finland
C. St. Petersberg
3. White Sea
D. Arkhangelsk
4. Barent sea
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
2
4
1
(b)
2
3
1
4
(c)
1
4
3
2
(d)
4
1
2
3
Give correct sequence west to east
(a) White sea, Kara sea, Gulf of Yenisei, Laptev sea.
(b) Laptev sea. Kara sea, White sea, Yenisei Gulf.
(c) Yenisei Gulf, Kara sea, White sea, Laptev sea.
(d) Kara sea. White sea, Laptev sea, Yenesei Gulf.
Which of the following is the world’s southernmost
national capital?
(a) Canberra
(b) Wellington
(c) Santiago
(d) Beunos Aires
Which of the following is the largest source of world
electricity production?
(a) thermal
(b) hydro
(c) nuclear
(d) geothermal
Match the following
World Record
Place
(A) Least Annual
1. El Azizia
Average Precipitation
(B) Highest Average
2. Cilaos, La Reunion
Annual Wind Speed
(C) Highest One – Day
3. Cape Dennison
Rainfall Total
(D) Highest Temperature 4. Arica
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
3
4
1
(b)
4
3
2
1
(c)
4
2
3
1
(d)
2
3
4
1
Which of the following is the world’s flattest
continent?
(a) Europe
(b) Asia
(c) Australia
(d) South America
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Practice Questions: Geography 1.5
73. The Ruwenzori Range in Africa is a ________.
(a) a non volcanic massive produced by faulting.
(b) a volcanic cone.
(c) a series of folded mountains.
(d) none of these.
74. Which of the following is the largest copper
producer in the World?
(a) Brazil
(b) Venezuela
(c) Bolivia
(d) Chile
75. Match the following
River
Empties into
A. Yangtze
1. Kara Sea
B. Ob – Irtysh
2. East China Sea
C. Hwango Ho
3. Yellow Sea
D. Amur
4. Tartar Strait
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
4
3
1
(b)
4
2
3
1
(c)
2
1
3
4
(d)
1
4
3
2
76. Which one of the following sets of lakes is of
tectonic origin?
(a) Baikal, Tanganyika and Rudolf
(b) Chilka, Pulicat and Dal
(c) Ladoga, Onega and Superior
(d) Chad, Biwa and Sambar
77. Which of the following regions has the minimum
cropland per capita in the world?
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Oceania (including Australia) (d) Europe
78. Which of the following islands’ name means “sheep
islands”?
(a) Faroe islands
(b) Canary islands
(c) Madeira islands
(d) Wellington island
79. Identify the correct decreasing order of the first four
largest countries in terms of population size.
(a) India, Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh.
(b) India, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal.
(c) India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal.
(d) India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh.
80. Identify the correct decreasing order in terms of
population density of the first four most densely
populated countries in South Asia.
(a) Maldives, Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka.
(b) Bangladesh, Maldives, India, Sri Lanka.
(c) Maldives, India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka.
(d) Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Maldives.
81. The South Asian countries: India, Pakistan,
Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Maldives
constitute approximately___% of world’s population.
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
5
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
(a) 35%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 20%
Which of the following two crops dominate the
economy of Uplands of Sri Lanka?
(a) Coconuts and Rice (b) Rice and Rubber
(c) Tea and Rubber
(d) Rubber and Coconuts
Assertion (A): Opium is a major illegal crop for
export in Pakistan.
Reason (R): Opium cultivation is restricted to the
North-west Frontier Province.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Who of the following has referred South Asia as
“Large area with well-defined boundaries”?
(a) L.D. Stamp
(b) R.L. Singh
(c) O.H.K. Spate
(d) Pt. Nehru
Assertion (A): Sri Lanka island is of continental
origin.
Reason (R): Sri Lanka was earlier a part of
Peninsular India.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Pedro Point is in
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Maldives
(d) Nepal
Sri Lanka has predominantly ______ type of
drainage pattern.
(a) Centripetal
(b) Radial
(c) Dendritic
(d) Parallel
Identify the south east province of Pakistan.
(a) Baluchistan
(b) Punjab
(c) Sind
(d) NWFP
Assertion (A): Pakistan is the gift of the Indus and its
tributaries.
Reason (R): Despite industrialization, irrigated
farming is vital in Pakistan.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Which of the following country is the most “rural”?
(a) Nepal
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Maldives
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General Knowledge Manual
91. Which of the following passes connects Darjeeling
through Chumbi valley to Tibet?
(a) Burzil pass
(b) Shipki pass
(c) Nathu La
(d) Niti pass
92. Which of the following countries has maximum
percentage of its area under forests’ cover?
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan
93. Which of the following countries has the maximum
% of irrigated land (of its cropland)?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) Nepal
(d) India
ANSWERS
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
6.
7.
8.
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
(d)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
Physical Geography
1. A steep- sided valley carved by water from a melting
glacier is called
(a) Coulee
(b) Fjord
(c) Hanging Valley
(d) Cirque
2. Toba in north-central _________ has the largest
volcanic crater with an area of 1775 sq. km.
(a) Java
(b) Iceland
(c) Sumatra
(d) Italy
3. Red sea is an example of _____.
(a) Volcanic Structure (b) Rift Valley
(c) Fold Valley
(d) Eroded Valley
4. Which of the following landforms is an intermont
plateau?
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
5.
6
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
(a) The Deccan Plateau (b) The Tibetan Plateau
(c) The Meseta of Spain (d) The Arabian Plateau
Who stated “The Present is the key to the Past”?
(a) Sir Charles Lyell (b) W.M. Davis
(c) Thornbury
(d) James Hutton
Which of the following lakes is not permanent?
(a) Cirque Lake
(b) Playa
(c) Caldera
(d) Ox Bow Lake
The two common rock-forming minerals from the
carbonate group are:
(a) hematite and magnetite
(b) calcite and dolomite
(c) clay and feldspar
(d) halite and gypsum
The two most abundant elements in Earth’s crust
are:
(a) iron and calcium
(b) iridium and platinum
(c) oxygen and silicon
(d) potassium and magnesium
A lava flow with a smooth, ropy surface is termed:
(a) a spatter cone
(b) lapilli
(c) pahoehoe
(d) pillow lava
A nuee ardente is a (an):
(a) thick accumulation of volcanic bombs
(b) type of eruption likely to produce a basalt
plateau
(c) underwater eruption that yields bulbous
masses of lava
(d) incandescent cloud of gases and particles
Most active volcanoes are found in the:
(a) mid-oceanic ridge volcanic zone
(b) Sierra Nevada-Cascade volcanic province
(c) Mediterranean divergence boundary
(d) circum-Pacific belt
An earthquake’s epicenter is:
(a) usually in the lower part of the mantle
(b) a point on the surface directly above the focus
(c) is same as the focus of the earthquake
(d) a measure of energy released during an earthquake
Earthquake waves travel at different speeds, so they
arrive at a seismograph in which order?
(a) S-wave first followed by R-wave and P-wave.
(b) L-wave first followed by P-wave and R-wave.
(c) Body wave first followed by surface wave and
S-wave.
(d) P-wave first followed by S-wave and surface
wave.
With few exceptions, the most damaging earthquakes are:
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
Practice Questions: Geography 1.7
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
(a) deep focus
(b) caused by volcanic eruptions
(c) those occurring along spreading ridges
(d) shallow focus
A P-wave is one in which:
(a) movement is perpendicular to the direction of
wave travel
(b) Earth’s surface moves as a series of waves
(c) Materials move forward and back along a line
in the same direction that the wave moves
(d) Movement at the surface is similar to that in
water waves
Earth’s internal heat comes from _____ and ______:
(a) radioactive decay/the core
(b) the magnetic field/gravity
(c) seismic waves/earthquakes
(d) plate tectonics/meteorite impacts
The ancient stable core of a continent is known as its:
(a) platform
(b) craton
(c) active interior
(d) thrust belt
Which of the following best represents a biochore?
(a) An area of vegetation having uniformity of life
form.
(b) An area of vegetation having same type of
climate.
(c) An area of vegetation having large trees.
(d) An area of vegetation having grasslands.
The term ecology was first used by
(a) G. Taylor
(b) Tansley
(c) Ernst Haeckel
(d) Jean Brunhes
Who form the first trophic level in any ecosystem?
(a) Herbivores
(b) Plants
(c) Carnivores
(d) Omnivores
The ecological pyramid of numbers or biomass has
a lesson for us that we should have _____ food
habits.
(a) non-vegetarian
(b) vegetarian
(c) high consumption (d) intensive
Which one is supposed to be the most stable
environment?
(a) Tropical rainforest (b) Temperate grasslands
(c) Hilly regions
(d) Deep sea regions
Going from poles to the equator the variety of plants
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same (d) may increase or decrease
Which regions are known for having pure strands of
single species of trees?
(a) Equatorial forests (b) Monsoon forests
(c) Temperate forests (d) Savannas
The term ‘taiga’ means
(a) tall trees
(b) coniferous trees
(c) unexploited forests (d) evergreen trees
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
7
26. Assertion (A): There would be no monsoon if the
earth’s surface were composed of either land or all
water.
Reason (R): Monsoons are to a large extent, the
result of differential heating of the land and water.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
27. Identify the wrong pair:
(a) North-East Pacific— Dogger Bank
(b) North-West Atlantic— Grand Banks
(c) North-East Atlantic— Great Fisher Bank
(d) North-West Atlantic— Chesapeake Bay
28. In the Grand Banks, the warm Gulf stream and the
cold current ______ converge.
(a) California
(b) Labrador
(c) Falkland
(d) Oyashio
29. A Mediterranean Climate is characterized by very
dry summers because _______.
(a) The relative humidity is low
(b) The skies are cloudless
(c) The trade winds blow from the land to the sea
(d) There are no off-shore winds
30. A specific type of natural vegetation is known by all
of the following names, except _______.
(a) Veldt
(b) Steppe
(c) Campos
(d) Downs
31. Identify the correct decreasing order of salts in
terms of % in sea water.
(a) Sodium Chloride, Magnesium Sulphate,
Calcium Sulphate, Magnesium Chloride.
(b) Calcium Sulphate, Sodium Chloride,
Magnesium Sulphate, Magnesium Chloride.
(c) Sodium Chloride, Magnesium Chloride,
Magnesium Sulphate,, Calcium Sulphate.
(d) Sodium Chloride, Magnesium Chloride,
Calcium Sulphate, Magnesium Sulphate.
32. The water surface in the Southern Hemisphere
accounts for as much as ____ of its total surface area.
(a) 80%
(b) 70%
(c) 60%
(d) 75%
33. The average height of land on the earth is
approximately _______.
(a) 900 m
(b) 800 m
(c) 700 m
(d) 775 m
34. Which of the following factors is primarily
responsible for the planetary wind belts?
(a) the Earth’s rotation.
(b) alternate areas of low and high pressure.
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
1.8
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
General Knowledge Manual
(c) differential rates of heating of water and land
surfaces.
(d) the tilt of Earth’s axis.
Match the following
(i) Caledonian orogeny 1. about 240 million
years ago.
(ii) Hercynian orogeny 2. about 320 million
years ago.
(iii) Alpine orogeny
3. about 30 million
years ago.
Codes:
(a) (i-1), (ii-2), (iii-3) (b) (i-2), (ii-1), (iii-3)
(c) (i-3), (ii-2), (iii-1) (d) (i-1), (ii-3), (iii-2)
Which of the following tectonic lakes is the highest
tectonic lake in the world?
(a) Caspean Sea
(b) Lake Victoria
(c) Lake Chad
(d) Lake Titicaca
The average depth of the oceans on the earth is
approximately __________.
(a) 3,800 m
(b) 3,900 m
(c) 4,000 m
(d) 4,100 m
Match the following columns
1. Kariba dam
A. Colorado river
2. Aswan dam
B. Columbia river
3. Hoover dam
C. Nile river
4. Grand Coulee dam D. Zambezi river
Codes:
(a) 1-A,2-C,3-D, 4-B
(b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
(c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B (d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
Which of the following rocks has a “Salt and
Pepper” appearance?
(a) Granite
(b) Gabbro
(c) Peridotite
(d) Basalt
The most common metamorphic rocks are Gneiss
and _______.
(a) Slate
(b) Marble
(c) Quartzite
(d) Schist
Match the following
List I
List II
A. Shale
1. Quartzite
B. Granite
2. Schist
C. Basalt
3. Gneiss
D. Sandstone
4. Slate
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
3
4
1
(b)
1
3
2
4
(c)
3
3
4
1
(d)
4
3
2
1
Which of the following constitutes the agents of
Metamorphism?
(a) Heat and Fluid Activity
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
8
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
(b) Heat and Pressure
(c) Heat, Pressure and Fluid Activity
(d) Pressure and Fluid Activity
Sedimentary rocks constitute ______ of the total
volume of the crust.
(a) 95%
(b) 5%
(c) 75%
(d) 10%
Waves at the Ocean surface are ______.
(a) Longitudinal
(b) Transverse
(c) Orbital
(d) None of these
The Wentworth scale _____.
(a) Classifies particles ranging from boulders to
colloids.
(b) Classifies metamorphic rocks as per degree of
foliation.
(c) Classifies sedimentary rocks as Clastic,
Chemical and Organic.
(d) Classifies the marine deposits from
Continental Shelf to Abyssal plains.
The thin warm layer on the ocean surface is called
_______.
(a) Epilimnion
(b) Hypolimnion
(c) Current
(d) Hypolimnion
Which of the following is the most widespread
mineral families on Earth?
(a) Silicates
(b) Nitrate
(c) Phosphates
(d) Carbonates
Assertion (A): It is difficult to piece together the
planet’s history from rocks.
Reason (R): The subsequent metamorphism of
earlier rocks has erased much of geologic history.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Assertion (A): Anthracite is a metamorphic rock.
Assertion (R): The metamorphism of Bituminous
coal results in anthracite coal.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Which of the following factors is considered as a
passive soil former?
(a) Climate
(b) Tim
(c) Biota
(d) Parent material
The most suitable measure for soil conservation is
(a) Afforestation
(b) Irrigatio
(c) Crop rotation
(d) Contour farming
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
Practice Questions: Geography 1.9
52. The dominant Mediterranean scrub vegetation in
Southern California is
(a) Chaparral
(b) Muskg
(c) Fynbos
(d) Campos
53. Terra Rossa typically develops in terrains composed
of
(a) Limestone
(b) Basal
(c) Granite
(d) Red sandstone
54. How much percentage of Earth’s land surface,
approximately covered with loess?
(a) 10%
(b) 12
(c) 14%
(d) 16%
55. The major amount of wheat, in Ukraine is produced
in area of
(a) Acidic soil
(b) Podzol soil
(c) Black earth(soil) (d) Red soil
56. The term “Regur” refers to
(a) Deltaic alluvial soils (b) Laterite soils
(c) Black cotton soils
(d) Red and yellow soils
57. The substance of the soil exists in
(a) Solid state
(b) Solid and liquid states
(c) Solid, liquid and gaseous states.
(d) Solid and gaseous states
58. The capacity of a soil to hold water against the pull
of gravity is called as
(a) Storage capacity (b) Wilting capacity
(c) Wilting point
(d) Hygroscopic capacity
59. “Frost Hollows” is / relates to _____.
(a) from of precipitation
(b) temperature inversion
(c) a type of cloud
(d) none of the above
60. The general classification of clouds used in the
International Atlas of Clouds was proposed by
_____ in 1803.
(a) Bergeron
(b) Howar
(c) Longmuir
(d) Findeisen
61. Blizzard refers to a _______.
(a) form of precipitation (b) blinding snow-storm
(c) cold katabatic wind (d) sudden, violent wind
62. Which one of the Cloud types is an indicator of a
bright brisk weather?
(a) Cumulus
(b) Cumulonimbus
(c) Alto-stratus
(d) Cirrus
63. Which one of the following currents moves as cool
current, passing between the Azores islands and
Spain?
(a) Azores current
(b) Canary current
(c) Benguela current (d) Gulf stream
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
9
64. Assertion (A): The Brazil current is much smaller
than its Northern Hemisphere counterpart, the Gulf
Stream.
Reason (R): The South Equatorial Current splits,
when it hits the South American landmass.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
65. Assertion (A): Without ocean currents, there would
not have been Oxygen supply possible for life in
deep sea.
Reason (R): The Oxygen is carried by cold, dense
water currents that sink in polar regions and spread
across the deep sea floor.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
66. Assertion (A): The old saying that “it is too cold to
snow” has some basis of truth.
Reason (R): When it is very cold, the air holds very
little water vapours.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
67. Identify the wrong statement
(a) In North America, a fine drizzle is referred to as
Sleet.
(b) In America, Sleet refers to small rain drops that
freeze during descent.
(c) Diamond dust is the name given to fine ice
prisms that glitter in sunlight.
(d) Glaze is the term used for rain that freezes when
it comes in contact with the Earth’s Surface.
68. Match the following:
List I
List II
A. Mare’s tail
1. Cumulonimbus
B. Mackerel sky
2. Cirrostratus
C. Halo
3. Cirrus
D. Cauliflower top
4. Cirro-cumulus
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
2
4
1
(b)
2
4
3
1
(c)
3
4
2
1
(d)
2
3
4
1
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1.10 General Knowledge Manual
69. Match the following
A. Ice Pack 1. A chunk of floating ice that
breaks off from an ice shelf or
glacier.
B. Ice Shelf 2. A large flattish mass of ice that
breaks off from larger ice bodies
and floats independently.
C. Ice Floe 3. A massive portion of an ice
sheet that project out over the
sea.
D. Iceberg
4. An extensive and cohesive mass
of floating ice.
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
3
4
1
(b)
4
2
3
1
(c)
2
4
3
1
(d)
4
3
2
1
70. Identify the correct order of fresh water lakes in
terms of decreasing surface area.
(a) Lake Superior, Lake Michigan, Lake Victoria,
Lake Huron.
(b) Lake Superior, Lake Huron, Lake Michigan,
Lake Victoria.
(c) Lake Superior, Lake Victoria, Lake Michigan,
Lake Huron.
(d) Lake Superior, Lake Victoria, Lake Huron,
Lake Michigan.
71. Mt. Fuji (Japan), Mt. Rainier (Washington), Mt.
Shasta (California), Mt. Vesuvius (Italy), Mt. St.
Helens (Washington) are all examples of _______
volcano type.
(a) Strato Volcano
(b) Lava Dome
(c) Shield
(d) Cinder Cone
72. The Great Geysir in _________ is the namesake
origin for the term Geyser.
(a) New Zealand (b) Yellowstone National Park
(c) Iceland
(d) Chile
73. In Australia, regions where ________ are widespread, they are called Gibber plains.
(a) Reg
(b) Ergs
(c) Hamada
(d) Sands
74. California’s Sierra Nevada is a classic example of
a ______ mountain range.
(a) volcanic
(b) fold
(c) fault – block
(d) none of the above
75. Before today’s Tsunami warning system existed,
the first notice of a Tsunami to most observers would
be ________.
(a) the large swell on the coast.
(b) the rapid seaward recession of the shore line.
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
10
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
(c) a series of sea waves reaching the coast.
(d) a tidal bulge.
Tsunami are an example of _______.
(a) Shallow – water waves
(b) Deep – water waves
(c) Transitional waves
(d) None of the above mentioned categories
The tropical cyclones are known as _____ in the
Philippines.
(a) Typhoons
(b) Bora
(c) Maquios
(d) Baguios
The National Mangrove Genetic Resources
Centre has been established in ________.
(a) Orissa
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) West Bengal
(d) New Delhi
Which of the world’s continents has the maximum
mean elevation?
(a) Africa
(b) Europe
(c) Antarctica
(d) Asia
The international protocol to protect the ozone layer
is _______ protocol.
(a) Montreal
(b) Kyoto
(c) Cartagena
(d) Stockholm
Which particular year has been referred to as the
Year without summer (when glaciers became most
active after Pleistocene ice age due to extreme cold
winter and cool summer mainly in North America)?
(a) 1876
(b) 1976
(c) 1776
(d) 1576
Match the following
(A) Fujita Scale
1. Measures hurricane
damage
(B) Saffir-Simpson Scale 2. Magnitude of an
earthquake
(C) Richter Scale
3. Intensity of an
earthquake
(D) Mercalli Scale
4. Measures relative
severity and damage
of tornado
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
1
4
2
3
(b)
4
1
2
3
(c)
4
3
2
1
(d)
4
2
1
3
Commensalism involves _______
(a) a mutually beneficial relationship between the
two organisms.
(b) two dissimilar organisms living together with
no injury to either.
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
Practice Questions: Geography 1.11
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
(c) one organism living on or in another, obtaining
nourishment from the host.
(d) none of these.
The famous “Agenda-21” was adopted in which of
the following conventions
(a) Earth Summit
(b) Ramsar Convention
(c) Rotterdam Convention
(d) Stockholm Convention
Which is the most abundant green house gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Water vapor
(d) Nitrous Oxide
‘Guano’ forms a significant component of
(a) Phosphate cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Sulfur cycle
(d) Asphalt cycle
Desert animals may avoid the hottest, driest season
by the process of
(a) Aestivation
(b) Ephemering
(c) Thermoperiodism (d) Interception
Two or more populations which live together is
called
(a) Commensalism
(b) Community
(c) Protocooperation (d) Amensalism
The ratios of energy flowing between various trophic
levels are called.
(a) ecological efficiency
(b) ecological productivity
(c) productivity efficiency
(d) Trophic efficiency
ANSWERS
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
11
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(a)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
Geography of India
1. Approximately how much part of Indian
subcontinent is constituted by India?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 75%
2. Identify the island, which is an extension of the
peninsular surface in the Ramnad district of Tamil
Nadu.
(a) Pamban
(b) Narcondom
(c) Rameswaram
(d) Sriharikota
3. The newer alluvium is called ____ in Punjab.
(a) Khadar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Bet
(d) Chhos
4. Which of the following is the main stream of the
Avadh Plains and its course has been shifting
considerably suggesting that it is an aggrading river?
(a) Kosi
(b) Ghaghara
(c) Gandak
(d) Chambal
5. Which of the following rivers and its distributaries
has carved the Mewar upland into a rolling
peneplain?
(a) Saraswati
(b) Chambal
(c) Parbati
(d) Banas
6. Choose the correct north to south order group
(a) Zaskar, Ladakh, Karakoram, Pir Panjal.
(b) Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar, Pir Panjal.
(c) Ladakh, Karakoram, Pir Panjal, Zaskar.
(d) Ladakh, Karakoram, Zaskar, Pir Panjal.
7. The Mandovi-Zuari Creek in ________ is an
important embayment in the coastline.
(a) Goa
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujrat
8. The Pulicat Lake, north of Madras, is a typical
lagoon separated from the sea by the _______ island.
(a) Sriharikota
(b) Pamban
(c) Mannar
(d) Madras
9. Parasnath Hill is situated in _________ plateau.
(a) Hazaribagh
(b) Malwa
(c) Ranchi
(d) Chhatisgarh
10. The Kaimur Hills belong to the _______ range.
(a) Satpura
(b) Vindhyan
(c) Maikala
(d) Rajmahal
11. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Imphal basin —— Lacustrine.
(b) Ladakh plain —— Glacial
(c) Konkan coast —— Alluvial.
(d) Ganga Plain —— Alluvial.
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1.12 General Knowledge Manual
12. Which of the following soils is regarded as negative
land?
(a) Bhangar
(b) Regur
(c) Kallar
(d) Khadar
13. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
Wetland/LakeZ
State
(a) Pichola
—
Rajasthan.
(b) Ashtamudi —
Kerala
(c) Ujni
—
Maharashtra
(d) Kabar
—
U.P.
14. Match the following
(A) Manikaran
1. Kulu
(B) Tatapani
2. Shimla
(C) Jwalamukhi
3. Patna
(D) Rajgir
4. Kangra
Codes:
(a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3. (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4. (d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1.
15. Identify the river which has its source near Ajmer in
the Aravalli Range.
(a) Luni
(b) Mahi
(c) Narmada
(d) Tapti
16. Siachen glacier is in _______ valley.
(a) Nubra
(b) Kulu
(c) Parbati
(d) Kashmir
17. __________ soils occupy over two-thirds of the
total area of T.N.
(a) Lateritic
(b) Red
(c) Alluvial
(d) Peaty and Organic
18. India is called a tropical country mainly on account
of its ________.
(a) Latitudinal extent
(b) Longitudinal extent
(c) Areal size
(d) Tropical monsoon climate
19. Where is the longest beach of India situated?
(a) Madras
(b) Bombay
(c) Mangalore
(d) Tuticorin
20. Which of the following rivers is believed not to be
older than the Himalayas?
(a) Beas
(b) Sutlej
(c) Teesta
(d) Kosi
21. Where is the Raman Peak situated?
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Island
(c) Siwaliks
(d) Zaskar
22. Which prominent geomorphic feature separates
Siwaliks from the Middle Himalayan Range?
(a) Fault basins
(b) Lacustrine basins
(c) Glacial valleys (d) Terai and bhabar regions.
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
12
23. Which peninsular river is least seasonal in flow?
(a) Narmada
(b) Krishna
(c) Godavari
(d) Cauvery
24. The highest peak of Nilgiris is ______.
(a) Dodabetta
(b) Anaimudi
(c) Palni
(d) Gurushikhar
25. Which of the following forms the highest peak in the
Zaskar Range?
(a) Namcha Barwa
(b) Kamet
(c) Dhaulagiri
(d) Kanchenjunga
26. The river Bhima is an important tributary of ______.
(a) Krishna
(b) Godavari
(c) Ganga
(d) Mahanadi
27. __________ is often referred to as Vridha Ganga or
Dakshina Ganga because of its large size and
extent.
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Krishna
(c) Cauveri
(d) Godavari
28. Dense forests are the forests that have a tree canopy
cover of more than ______%.
(a) 40
(b) 60
(c) 50
(d) 70
29. The true dense forest cover is about ______% of
the total land area in India.
(a) 12
(b) 22
(c) 18
(d) 19
30. Which of the following has the maximum Mangrove
vegetation?
(a) Andaman & Nicobar Islands (b) Orissa
(c) Gujarat
(d) Maharashtra
31. Which of the following states has the maximum
dense forest cover (sq kms)?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Kerala
32. Which of the following states has the maximum total
forest cover in India?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
33. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) covers
approximately _____ million sq.kms area.
(a) 2
(b) 2.5
(c) 1.5
(d) 3.5
34. Dal Lake in Kashmir is _______ type of lake.
(a) Glacial
(b) Crater
(c) Ox-bow
(d) Tectonic
35. Assertion (A): Groundwater offers a number of
advantages when compared with surface water.
Reason (R): Groundwater reservoirs do not suffer
losses – seepage and evapotranspiration, as high as
surface water and also these can be developed near
the place of use.
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
Practice Questions: Geography 1.13
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Assertion (A): Surface water resources are to be
exploited from available potential sources.
Reason (R): India wastes a lot of water resources, as
huge quantities of water are left to the seas annually.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Assertion (A): The loss of forest cover in India has
been directly associated with the Demographic
Transition in India.
Reason (R): The forest cover is negatively related
with population growth.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Assertion (A): The crushing season for sugar
industry is much longer in south than in the north.
Reason (R): The sucrose content of sugarcane is
higher in south than in the north.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Assertion (A): There is a great regional imbalance
in sugar production in India.
Reason (R): The per capita consumption of sugar in
India varies regionally.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
The irrigation potential through minor, medium and
major projects has increased from 22.6 million
hectare in 1951 to _____ million hectare at the end
of Ninth Plan.
(a) 52.35
(b) 110.54
(c) 93.95
(d) 80.57
The Acceleration Irrigation Benefits Programme
(AIBP) was launched during ________ to give loan
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
13
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
assistance to the states to help them complete some
of the major/medium irrigation projects which were
in advance stage of completion.
(a) 1987 – 88
(b) 1973 – 74
(c) 1983 – 84
(d) 1996 – 97
The Centrally – sponsored Command Area
Development (C.A.D.) Programme was launched
in the year _______.
(a) 1987 – 88
(b) 1973 –74
(c) 1983 – 84
(d) 1996 – 97
The assessment units for Groundwater resource
which have been declared as ‘DARK’ are those ___.
(a) Where the stage of ground water development
is more than 85%
(b) Where the stage of ground water development
is more than 50%
(c) Where there is no usable water.
(d) Where groundwater development exceeds the
annual replenishable recharge.
How many Biosphere Reserves have been set up so
far in India?
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 14
(d) 12
Out of Biosphere Reserves established three have
been recognized on World Network of Biosphere
Reserves by UNESCO, namely, Sunderbans, Nilgiri
and ______.
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Nanda Devi
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Manas
The Environment Ministry has established a
National Mangrove Genetic Resource Centre in
_______.
(a) West Bengal
(b) Orissa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat
Match the following
Wetland
Location
A. Harike
1. Manipur
B. Nalsarovar
2. Himachal Pradesh
C. Renuka
3. Gujarat
D. Loktak
4. Punjab
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
3
4
1
(b)
2
4
3
1
(c)
3
4
2
1
(d)
4
3
2
1
The alluvial soils of the Gangetic Valley are
described as
(a) Intrazonal
(b) Azonal
(c) Zonal
(d) None of the above
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
1.14 General Knowledge Manual
49. Which of the following factors have caused water
logging in the black lava soil of Deccan:
1. Introduction of irrigation
2. Sugarcane cultivation
3. High rainfall
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) only 1
(d) 1 and 3
50. The typical area of ‘Sal’ forest in the Indian
Peninsular upland occurs
(a) on the Western Ghats
(b) between the Tapti and the Narmada
(c) to north-east of the Godavari
(d) on the Malwa Plateau
51. On which of the following river deltas are the
mangrove forests found?
1. Narmada
2. Subarnarekha
3. Krishna
4. Ganga
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
52. Tuticorin, an important fishing harbour of India is
situated along the
(a) Malabar Coast
(b) Coromandel Coast
(c) Konkan Coast
(d) Gulf of Kutch Coast
53. Which of the following has a potentiality for
harnessing of tidal energy in India?
(a) Gulf of Cambay
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Backwaters of Kerala (d) Chilka lake
54. Which one of the following major sea ports of India
does not have a natural harbour?
(a) Bombay
(b) Cochin
(c) Marmagao
(d) Paradeep
55. Diesel locomotives are manufactured at
(a) Chittaranjan
(b) Jamshedpur
(c) Varanasi
(d) perambur
56. Match the following
List I
List II
A. Dodabetta
1. Nilgiri Hills
B. Nanda Devi
2. Himalaya Mountains
C. Amar Kantak
3. Aravalli Range
D. Guru Sikhar
4. Maikal Range
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
1
3
4
(b)
3
2
1
4
(c)
1
2
4
3
(d)
4
1
2
3
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
14
57. Match the following
Town
Industry
A. Kalpakkam
1. Newsprint
B. Jharia
2. Oil Refining
C. Mathura
3. Coal Mining
D. Nepanagar
4. Nuclear Power Plant
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
2
1
3
(b)
4
3
2
1
(c)
1
2
3
4
(d)
3
4
1
2
58. Assertion (A): Cyclonic activity in India is
characteristic of the pre- and post-monsoon periods.
Reason (R): These are the periods of transition
between the seasonal circulations.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
59. Assertion (A): India has a tropical monsoon climate.
Reason (R): India is located within tropical latitudes.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
60. Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India is affected
by tropical cyclones more than the western coast.
Reason (R): Tropical cyclones originate only in the
Bay of Bengal.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
61. Assertion (A): The Regur soils of the Deccan
Plateau are black in colour.
Reason (R): They contain a lot of humus.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
62. The Indus and Brahmputra rivers are examples of
(a) subsequent drainage
(b) super-imposed drainage
(c) consequent drainage
(d) antecedent drainage
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Practice Questions: Geography 1.15
63. Which one of the following states does not form part
of the Narmada basin?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat
(d) Maharashtra
64. Western Ghats are
(a) mountains
(b) plateaus
(c) escarpment of the plateaus
(d) hills
65. The Siwalik Hills have been made out of the debris
coming from the
(a) Himalayas
(b) Sutlej Valley
(c) Ganga Valley
(d) Southern Peninsula
66. Which one of the following physiographic units has
been created by both exogenic and endogenic forces?
(a) The Peninsular Plateau
(b) The Thar Desert
(c) The Indo-Gangetic Plain
(d) The Himalayas
67. Soil erosion in India occurs in almost all the littoral
states but it is most serious along the coast of
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Orissa
(d) Karnataka
68. Which one of the following factors is responsible for
excessive soil erosion in Chota Nagpur plateau?
(a) Heavy rain throughout the year
(b) Loose sandy soil
(c) Deep ploughing by tractors
(d) Large scale felling of trees
69. Which of the following measures are effective for
soil conservation in India?
1. Avoiding crop rotation
2. Afforestation
3. Encouraging the use of chemical fertilizers
4. Limiting shifting cultivation
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
70. The Ban Sagar project, is on the river
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Indravati
(c) Sone
(d) Tapti
71. Which of the following natural characteristics are
associated with the dry monsoon forests of India?
1. Annual rainfall is below 50 cm
2. The trees have short roots
3. Thorny shrubs and grasslands grow between
the trees
4. Mango, mahua, sisam, keekar etc. are the
prominent trees
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
15
72.
73.
74.
75.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Consider the following statements about Indian
forestry:
1. About 40% of the Indian forests are in the
inaccessible mountainous regions which
impede the speedy transfer of felled trees
2. Although according to India’s forest policy, a
high proportion of the land area shall be
covered by forest except in some States, the
percentage of forest cover is precariously low
3. Exploitation of forests is less time consuming
and less costly, as almost in every forest a
single type of tree dominates
4. The annual productivity of the forests is 3.5
cubic metres per hectare
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Match List I (Forms of non-conventional energy)
with List II (Areas in India which are developed or
can be developed) and select the correct answer
from the codes given below the lists:
List I
List II
A. Geothermal
1. Lamba
B. Tidal
2. Ahmedabad
C. Wind
3. Madras
D. Solar
4. Manikaran
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
1
2
3
4
(b)
1
4
2
3
(c)
4
1
3
2
(d)
4
3
1
2
Assertion (A): The Rajasthan desert is covered with
shifting sand dunes.
Reason (R): For want of rain and surface flowing of
water, the work of wind is felt everywhere.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) Himalayas…..... Tertiary fold mountain
(b) Deccan Trap.… Volcanic fissure eruption
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1.16 General Knowledge Manual
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
(c) Western Ghat ... Palaeozoic fold mountains
(d) Aravalli…….. Pre-Cambrian relict mountain
The expression of earliest volcanic activity in India
is found in
(a) Dalma hill of Bihar
(b) North Western Deccan Plateau
(c) Buldana district of Maharashtra
(d) Kumaon Hill region
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) Laterite…….Uttar Pradesh
(b) Sandy Soil…….South Punjab
(c) Red Soil…….Tamil Nadu
(d) Black Soil……..Madhya Pradesh
A person overflying India saw the natural vegetation
below in the sequential order of tropical evergreen
forest, savanna, dry deciduous and deciduous. His
flight was from
(a) Calcutta to Delhi
(b) Bombay to Bhubaneshwar
(c) Trivandrum to Delhi
(d) Delhi to Madurai
Which one of the following problems is not
encountered in Indira Gandhi Canal Command
area?
(a) Increase in soil salinity
(b) Progressive waterlogging
(c) Aeolian silting of the canal
(d) Decline in water supply
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
from the codes given below the lists:
Waterfalls
Rivers
A. Jog
1. Narmada
B. Bheraghat
2. Cauvery
C. Sivasamudram
3. Subarnarekha
D. Hundru
4. Sharavati
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
1
4
3
2
(b)
1
4
2
3
(c)
4
1
3
2
(d)
4
1
2
3
Under Thornthwaite’s classification of climate,
almost the entire state of Orissa comes under
(a) dry subhumid
(b) moist subhumid
(c) semi-arid
(d) humid
Koeppen’s Amw type of climate prevails over
(a) the interior peninsula of India
(b) the Coromandal coast of India
(c) Western coast of India, south of Goa
(d) Eastern coast of India, south of Calcutta
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
16
83. The Zonal Soil type of peninsular India belongs to
(a) Red Soil
(b) Yellow Soils
(c) Black Soils
(d) Older Alluvium
84. The major forest product in India is
(a) Timber
(b) Fuel Wood
(c) Cane products
(d) Resins
85. Consider the following statements:
The SouthWest Monsoon originates in India
primarily due to
1. low pressure in the Punjab plain
2. high pressure in areas south of 8°N latitude
3. equatorial low being filled up by descending
currents
4. The Himalayas
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 4 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (d) 3 and 4 are correct
86. The correct sequence in descending order of the
given soils with respect to areal coverage of India is
(a) Alluvial, black, red, laterite
(b) Alluvial, red, black, laterite
(c) Alluvial, red, laterite, black
(d) Red, alluvial, black, laterite
87. ‘Sal’ trees are concentrated in
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Assam
(c) Bihar
(d) Madhya Pradesh
88. Which one of the following mountain chains has two
dissimilar types of vegetation on its two slopes?
(a) Aravallis
(b) Vindhyas
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Western Ghats
89. The greatest potential for the generation of tidal
power in India is available in the
(a) Malabar coast
(b) Konkan coast
(c) Gujarat coast
(d) Coromandal coast
90. Assertion (A): The desert soils of India are poor in
mineral nutrients and hence infertile.
Reason (R): The dearth of rainfall and humus does
not allow good soil formation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
91. Assertion (A): Forest cover in India needs to be
increased from 22% to 33% level of the total land.
Reason (R): This will provide enough fuel wood to
the rural poor.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
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Practice Questions: Geography 1.17
92. The largest portion of India’s wasteland occurs in
(a) upland without scrub
(b) water-logged and marshy lands
(c) degraded pastures and grazing land
(d) wastelands created by shifting cultivation
93. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
from the codes given below the lists:
List I
List II
Projects
Location
A. Sardar Sarovar
1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Dulhasti
2. Karnataka
C. Kadam
3. Gujarat
D. Gerosoppa
4. Jammu and Kashmir
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
4
1
2
(b)
3
1
2
4
(c)
1
4
3
2
(d)
4
2
1
3
94. Karewas are terraces of glacial origin found in
(a) Teesta valley
(b) Ravi valley
(c) Jhelum valley
(d) Alaknanda valley
95. Consider the following statements:
The type of natural vegetation in India varies due to
variation in
1. the amount of rainfall
2. soil types
3. mean annual temperature
4. altitude
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
96. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
from the codes given below the lists:
Name of forest
Location
A. Manas
1. West Bengal
B. Betla
2. Assam
C. Gorumara
3. Bihar
D. Mudumalai
4. Tamil Nadu
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
3
1
4
(b)
1
2
3
4
(c)
4
3
1
2
(d)
2
1
4
3
97. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
from the codes given below the lists:
Dam
River
A. Nagarjunasagar
1. Mahanadi
B. Matatilla
2. Barakar
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
17
C. Maithon
3. Krishna
D. Hirakud
4. Betwa
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
1
2
4
(b)
1
4
3
2
(c)
3
4
2
1
(d)
4
2
3
1
98. The group of states which has forest coverage of
more than 75% of the total geographical area is
(a) Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland
(b) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland
(c) Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland
(d) Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh,
Nagaland
99. Which one of the following is not a causative factor
with respect to poor coverage of forest area in
Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Low amount of rainfall
(b) Large area under cultivation
(c) Steep barren slopes
(d) Snow covered peaks
100. Assertion (A): More cyclones hit the eastern coast
of India than the western coast.
Reason (R): The eastern coast of India lies in the
path of the North-East Trade Winds.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
101. Assertion (A): The Western Disturbances cause
winter rain in North-West India.
Reason (R): The South-West monsoon starts
retreating from north-west India during winter.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
102. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
from the codes given below the lists:
(Characteristics)
Area
(A) Superimposed Drainage 1. Peninsular India
(B) Antecedent drainage
2. Himalayan region
(C) Jet Stream
3. Desert area
(D) Inland drainage
4. Glacial region
5. Upper
atmospheric zone
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1.18 General Knowledge Manual
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
1
2
5
3
(b)
1
2
3
4
(c)
4
5
2
3
(d)
3
1
5
2
103. Which of the following statements regarding lateritic
soils of India are correct?
1. These are generally red in colour.
2. These are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. These are well developed in Rajasthan and U.P.
4. Tapioca and cashewnuts grow well on this soil
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
104. The Amarkanatak Hill is the source of two rivers
flowing in two different directions (west and east).
They are
(a) Narmada and Tapti
(b) Narmada and Son
(c) Tapti and Betwa
(d) Tapti and Son
105. Badland topography is characteristic of the
(a) Gulf of Kutch
(b) Sundarban Delta
(c) Konkan Coast
(d) Chambal valley
106. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Winter rain in
North-West India
: Western disturbance
2. Summer rain in
Malabar coast
: Retreating monsoon
3. Summer rain in
Bengal basin
: Northwesterly
4. Winter rain in
Tamil Nadu coast
: N.E. Monsoon
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
107. Assertion (A): The origin of Himalayas is due to the
collision of the Indian subcontinent with Eurasian
landmass.
Reason (R): The convergence of crustal plates is
often associated with mountain building.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
108. Shillong Plateau is also known as ‘Meghalaya’
meaning ‘abode of clouds’. It was so named by
(a) O.H.K. Spate
(b) S.P. Chatterjee
(c) D.N. Wadia
(d) R.L. Singh
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
18
109. Which one of the following places is located at the
confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?
(a) Vishnuprayag
(b) Devaprayag
(c) Rudraprayag
(d) Karnaprayag
110. Alluvial cone is predominant in
(a) coastal belt
(b) piedmont zone
(c) delta region
(d) pediment region
111. After Gujarat, which one of the following states has
the longest coastline?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
112. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Peninsular India has not undergone
marine submergence since Archean times.
2. The Aravalli mountains were one of the oldest
geosynclines of the world.
3. Dharwar system is rich in minerals.
4. The Peninsular block of India is an
earthquake-free zone.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
113. In India, the tropical deciduous forests form the
natural cover in nearly all the places where the
annual rainfall is between
(a) 201 cm and 250 cm (b) 251 cm and 300 cm
(c) 70 cm and 100 cm (d) 101 cm and 200 cm
114. Which one of the following regions of India has the
potentiality of harnessing tidal power?
(a) Gulf of Khambhat (b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Palk Strait
(d) Kerala Coast
115. India’s Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats meet at
the
(a) Cardamon hills
(b) Annamalai hills
(c) Nilgiri hills
(d) Palani hills
116. Which one of the following characteristics is not
relevant to Ganga river?
(a) It is a braided river with numerous channels
(b) It has multiple inter-twined sand-bars
(c) It has extensive gully erosion
(d) Deposits enormous sediments annually into
the Bay of Bengal
117. During winter, north-western part of India gets
rainfall from
(a) thunderstorms
(b) retreating monsoon
(c) western disturbances (d) tropical cyclones
118. The Palghat Gap serves inland communications
from
(a) Madurai to Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Chennai to Kochi
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Practice Questions: Geography 1.19
(c) Pune to Mumbai
(d) Bangalore to Mangalore
119. Consider the following statements:
Majuli, the largest river island in the world is
environmentally degraded due to
1. floods
2. erosion
3. increasing population pressure
4. development of transport activities
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
120. Match List I (Wildlife Sanctuaries) with List II
(States) and select the correct answer from the codes
given below the lists:
List I
List II
A. Namdapha
1. Karnataka
B. Periyar
2. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Bandipur
3. Manipur
D. Lamjao
4. Kerala
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
4
1
3
(b)
4
2
3
1
(c)
4
2
1
3
(d)
2
4
3
1
121. Kathiawar Peninsula is an example of
(a) Emerged shoreline (b) Submerged shoreline
(c) Ria shoreline
(d) Dalmatian shoreline
122. Match List I (River) with List II (their tributaries)
and select the correct answer from the codes given
below the lists:
List I
List II
A. Krishna
1. Chambal
B. Brahmaputra
2. Indravati
C. Godavari
3. Tista
D. Yamuna
4. Bhima
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
3
2
1
(b)
3
4
1
2
(c)
4
3
1
2
(d)
3
4
2
1
123. The course of Damodar river occupies a
(a) rift valley
(b) synclinal valley
(c) eroded valley
(d) depositional valley
124. Large areas in India are subjected to considerable
rainfall variability. Rainfall variability is likely to be
the greatest in the areas of
(a) very high rainfall (b) high rainfall
(c) medium rainfall
(d) very low rainfall
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
19
125. Match List I (Geographical Characteristics) with
List II (Area/Region/Source) and select the correct
answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I
List-II
(A) Longest navigable
1. Gondwana area
waterway
(B) Bhangar soils
2. Indravati region
(C) Rock formations for 3. Higher tracts of
coal deposits in India
plains
(D) Dandakaranya region 4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Bihar
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
3
2
5
(b)
3
4
1
2
(c)
3
4
2
5
(d)
4
3
1
2
126. Bhakra Nangal Project is a joint venture of the
Punjab, Haryana and ______.
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttaranchal
127. The river Damodar is a tributary of _______.
(a) Hugli
(b) Son
(c) Gandak
(d) Kosi
128. Match the following:
A. Pong Dam
1. Damodar
B. Tehri Dam
2. Narmada
C. Sardar Sarovar Project 3. Bhagirathi
D. Konar Dam
4. Beas
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
1
3
2
4
(b)
1
4
2
3
(c)
4
1
2
3
(d)
4
3
2
1
129. The river Rihand is a tributary of the river ______.
(a) Son
(b) Gandak
(c) Kosi
(d) Chambal
130. Which of the following states has the largest
percentage area under Tank Irrigation?
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
131. Which type of Irrigation covers the largest area of
the Net Sown Area?
(a) Canal
(b) Tank
(c) Well and tube wells (d) Others (springs etc)
132. Assertion (A): One of the major sources of
irrigation in Peninsular India is Tank Irrigation
Reason (R): Most of the rivers in Peninsular Region
are seasonal.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
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1.20 General Knowledge Manual
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
133. Which of the following states has the largest area
under Well irrigation in India?
(a) Punjab
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
134. Which of the following Canals irrigate major part of
Belgaum, Dharwar and Bijapur districts?
(a) Visveswaraya Canal (b) Tandula Canal
(c) Mettur Canal
(d) Malprabha Project
135. Which one of the following pairs is not correct?
(a) Midnapur Canal – Kosi river
(b) Tawa Project – Krishna river
(c) Mettur Dam – Cauvery river
(d) Ukai Project – Tapi river
136. Assertion (A): Except for the Himalayas, the
growing period almost extends over whole of the
year.
Reason (R): Agriculture and Allied Activities
account for about half of India’s total income.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
137. Assertion (A): The growth rate of rice has not kept
pace with the growth rate of wheat.
Reason (R): Green Revolution has failed to
increase the production of rice substantially in the
rainfed areas of eastern India.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
138. Assertion (A): The climatic conditions for wheat
are below optimum in India.
Reason (R): Indian winter is short, relatively warm
and dry than what wheat needs.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
139. _______ is the ideal station for sugarcane research
in India.
(a) Kanpur
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Lucknow
(d) Ludhiana
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
20
140. Who of the following started the statistical approach
in Crop combination studies?
(a) J.C. Weaver
(b) Jasbir Singh
(c) Rafiullah
(d) O.H.K. Spate
141. Assertion (A): Tea planters, especially in Darjiling
district have discounted the use of chemical manures
and chemical pesticides and have started using
organic manures and biopesticides.
Reason (R): Countries of European Union now
prefer to buy teas raised in the soil fertilized with
organic fertilizers.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
142. Which of the following states is the leading producer
of ‘beedi’ tobacco in India?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Bihar
(d) West Bengal
143. Which of the following is the leading oilseed in
India?
(a) Mustard
(b) Sunflower
(c) Groundnut
(d) Soya bean
144. Assertion (A): Area under sugarcane is relatively
small in south than in north India.
Reason (R): Irrigation facilities, comparatively are
lesser in south than in north.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
145. Assertion (A): Soft woods grow on the slopes of the
Himalayas.
Reason (R): Himalayan region supplies soft wood
to the adjoining plains for Paper Industry.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
146. Assertion (A): Production cost of sugar in India is
higher than in Cuba and Java.
Reason (R): Crushing season in India generally
varies from two to eight months for sugarcane.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
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Practice Questions: Geography 1.21
147. Naihati is famous for ________ industry.
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Paper
(d) Tobacco
148. Wattle, a tanning material used in leather industry,
is grown in _______ and from where major supplies
are done for the entire country.
(a) Nilgiri and Palni hills
(b) Aravallis
(c) Satpuras
(d) Vindhyas and Maikala
149. Pithampur (M.P.) is known today for ______
industry.
(a) Automobile
(b) Paper
(c) Jute
(d) Aluminium
150. Match the following
A. Naini
1. Bicycle parts
B. Bhopal
2. Precision Instruments
C. Kota
3. Heavy Electric Machinery
D. Ludhiana
4. Compressors and Pumps
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
4
2
1
(b)
3
2
4
1
(c)
2
4
3
1
(d)
4
3
2
1
151. Match the following
A. Saharanpur
1. Sugar industry
B. Panki
2. Woollen
C. Dhariwal
3. Aluminium
D. Renukoot
4. Automobile
Codes:
(a) A – 1, B – 4, C – 2, D – 3
(b) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2, D – 4
(c) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3
(d) A – 1, B – 4, C – 3, D – 2
152. Match the following
A. Alleppey
1. Silk
B. Rishra
2. Synthetic fibre
C. Rayapuram
3. Cotton
D. Kolar
4. Jute
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
2
3
1
(b)
1
4
3
2
(c)
3
4
2
1
(d)
2
4
3
1
153. Match the following
A. Bhilai Steel Plant 1. Bolani and Mayurbhanj
B. Rourkela Steel
2. Dalli – Rajhara range
Plant
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
21
C. Durgapur Steel 3. Sundargarh
Plant
D. Indian Iron and 4. Singhbhum district
Steel Co.
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
3
1
4
(b)
2
3
4
1
(c)
2
4
3
1
(d)
1
2
3
4
154. Match the following
A. Bokaro Steel Plant 1. D.V.C. power supply
B. Bhilai Steel Plant 2. Sharavati Power
project
C. Indian Iron and
3. Korba
Steel Co.
D. Visweswaraya Iron 4. Jharia
and Steel Co.
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
1
4
3
2
(b)
4
3
1
2
(c)
4
1
3
2
(d)
1
3
4
2
155. Which of the following factors is not favourable for
marine salt production?
(a) high temperature (b) high relative
humidity
(c) high wind velocity (d) low soil permeability
156. Which of the following places is famous for salt
production in India?
(a) Didwana
(b) Tehri Garhwal
(c) Salem
(d) Anantpur
157. The Chalk Hills, famous for magnesite are in _____
district.
(a) Mysore
(b) Bellary
(c) Hassan
(d) Salem
158. Which of the following places is famous for Gypsum
production in Rajasthan?
(a) Udaipur
(b) Nagaur
(c) Ajmer
(d) Bikaner
159. Match the following
(A) Agnigundala
(i) Chromite
(B) Koraput
(ii) Lead
(C) Zowar
(iii) Bauxite
(D) Keonjhar
(iv) Copper
Codes:
(a) (A-iv), (B-i), (C-ii), (D-iii)
(b) (A-ii), (B-i), (C-iii), (D-iv)
(c) (A-iv), (B-ii), (C-iii), (D-i)
(d) (A-iv), (B-iii), (C-ii), (D-i)
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1.22 General Knowledge Manual
160. Which of the following states is the largest producer
of silver in India?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Goa
161. Match the following
(A) Limestone
(i) Kerala
(B) Kyanite
(ii) Madhya
PradeshChhatisgarh
(C) Sillimanite
(iii) Gujarat
(D) Salt
(iv) Jharkhand
Codes:
(a) (A-ii), (B-iv), (C-i), (D-iii)
(b) (A-iv), (B-ii), (C-i), (D-iii)
(c) (A-i), (B-ii), (C-iv), D-iii)
(d) (A-i), (B-iv), (C-ii), (D-iii)
162. Which of the following states is the largest producer
of Rock Phosphate in India?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Chhatisgarh
(c) Kerala
(d) Rajasthan
163. Which of the following is not known for copper
production in India?
(a) Balaghat
(b) Jhunjhunu
(c) Singhbum
(d) Katni
164. Identify the wrong statement with respect to gold in
India?
(a) Gold occurs in India both as native gold and
alluvial gold.
(b) The principal source is the quartz-reefs of
Tertiary rocks.
(c) India’s production of gold has been declining.
(d) Some Gold occurs in the Gadag field in
Dharwad district.
165. Identify the one, which is not known for gold in
India.
(a) Anantpur district (b) Raichur district
(c) Gulbarga district (d) Vishakhapatam district
166. Which of the following is not famous for Iron-ore
reserves?
(a) Guma and Darang (b) Bababudan hills
(c) Bailadila range
(d) Dhalli-Rajhara range
167. Match the following lists and choose the correct
answer
List-I
List-II
(A) Bababudan Hills
1. Orissa
(B) Bailadila Range
2. Tamil Nadu
(C) Chalk Hills
3. Karnataka
(D) Bonaigarh Hills
4. Chhatisgarh
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
4
2
1
(b)
3
1
2
4
(c)
3
4
1
2
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
22
(d)
3
1
4
2
168. Match the following
(A) Bauxite
(i) Dariba
(B) Mica
(ii) Singhbhum
(C) Iron ore
(iii) Hazaribagh
(D) Copper
(iv) Koraput
Codes:
(a) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (b) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(c) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (d) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-I
169. Ghatsila in Bihar is known for _______ production.
(a) Copper
(b) Mica
(c) Manganese
(d) Lead and Zinc
170. Uranium is mined in _______.
(a) Gadag
(b) Zawar
(c) Jaduguda
(d) Bellary
171. Wajrakarur Kimberlite mine in Anantpur district
in Andhra Pradesh is known for ________.
(a) Oil
(b) Monazite
(c) Diamonds
(d) Gas
172. _________ is the largest producer of dolomite and
accounts for almost 50% of total production of
dolomite in India.
(a) Orissa
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
173. Identify the wrong statement
(a) Zinc is found in veins in association with
Galena.
(b) Major production of zinc is from Zawar area in
Rajasthan.
(c) Small quantities of zinc are exported to
countries like Canada, Australia and Russia.
(d) Some deposits containing zinc are also found
in Udhampur district of J&K.
174. Goa is one of the leading producer of _____ in India
(a) Iron-Ore
(b) Manganese
(c) Limestone
(d) Dolomite
175. _______ is the largest producer of Asbestos in
India.
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Karnataka
(c) Bihar
(d) Madhya Pradesh
176. ________ is the largest producer of Limestone.
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar
177. The oldest coal-field in India is ________.
(a) Raniganj
(b) Jharia
(c) Bokaro
(d) Karanpura
178. Which soil group in India is comparable with the
“Chernozems” of Russia and the “Prarie soil” of
U.S.?
(a) Black Cotton
(b) Alluvial
(c) Peat and Organic (d) Red
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Practice Questions: Geography 1.23
179. Identify the wrong statement.
(a) Khadar soils are more sandy in composition
than bhangar soils.
(b) Regur is an Intrazonal soil.
(c) Red soil is a zonal soil.
(d) The areas affected by wind erosion on an
extensive scale in northern Haryana and
Punjab are called Chhos.
180. In the Telengana districts of Andhra Pradesh, the
red soils generally known as ___________ are
found at higher level, whereas shallow black earth’s
occupy the lower areas.
(a) Lametas
(b) Kari
(c) Chalkas
(d) Sholas
181. Consider the following statements.
(i) Humus is not a mineral.
(ii) Humus helps to retain moisture in the soil.
(iii) It helps the plant in absorbing materials from
the soil for building its body.
(iv) A soil looks dark on account of the presence of
humus.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii), and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), and (iv)
182. What is the geomorphic characteristic of Ganga
plain?
(a) a peneplain
(b) a geosyncline
(c) a lacustrine plain (d) a Karst plain
183. Identify the wrong statement.
(a) The Mandovi—Zuari creek in Pondicherry is
an important embayment in the coastline.
(b) The Parasnath Hill is situated in Hazaribagh
Plateau.
(c) The Kaimur hill belongs to the Vindhyas.
(d) Mahendergiri is the highest peak of Eastern
Ghats.
184. Identify the correct statement.
(a) K2 is the highest peak of Karakoram Range.
(b) Khadar in U.P. is referred to as Kallar.
(c) Barren island is an extinct volcano
(d) The Maikala range reaches its culmination
point near Sangli.
185. Match the following
(A) Burzil La
(i) Uttranchal
(B) Bara Lacha La
(ii) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Lipu Lekh,
(iii) Sikkim
(D) Jelep La
(iv) Jammu and Kashmir
Codes:
(a) (A-iv), B-ii), (C-i), (D-iii)
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
23
(b) (A-iii), (B-ii), (C-i), (D-iv)
(c) (A-iv), (B-ii), (C-iii), (D-i)
(d) (A-ii), (B-i), (C-iv), (D-iii)
186. Which of the following statement/statements is/are
correct?
1. The Garo-Rajmahal gap separates the
Meghalaya plateau from the main block of the
Peninsular Plateau.
2. The Karnataka plateau’s hilly region is known
as Malnad.
3. The backwaters in Kerala are locally known as
Kayals.
4. Kolleru lake was once far inland, but now it is
a lagoon.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
187. Which of the following statement/statements is/are
correct?
1. The western part of Marusthali is covered by
shifting sand dunes called Dhrian.
2. The bhangar lands in Punjab are called as
Betlands.
3. Amarkantak is the highest peak of Satpura
range.
4. Vindhya range acts as a watershed between the
Ganga system and the river systems of south
India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3and4
188. Jamshedpur in Jharkhand is located near which
river?
(a) Brahmni
(b) Subarnrekha
(c) Baitarni
(d) Damodar
189. The river Indravati originates from the district ____.
(a) Koraput, Orissa
(b) Raipur, Chhattisgarh
(c) Cuttack,Orissa
(d) Kalahandi,Orissa
190. Which of the following is the highest peak in the
Karakoram Range?
(a) K2
(b) Namcha Barwa
(c) Nanga Parbat
(d) Mashesbrum
191. Which of the following is the highest peak of the
Zaskar range?
(a) Kamet
(b) Dhaulagiri
(c) Kanchenjunga
(d) K2
192. Which of the following rocks are generally present
in the Peninsular Plateau Region?
(a) crystalline
(b) sedimentary
(c) fossiliferrons
(d) argillaceous
193. Rainfall decreases in the Ganga Valley from:
(a) west to east and north to south
(b) west to east and south to north
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1.24 General Knowledge Manual
(c) east to west and north to south
(d) east to west and south to north
194. Gersoppa Fall is made by the river ________.
(a) Cauvery
(b) Sharavati
(c) Godavari
(d) Periyar
195. The crater lake Lonar is situated in
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
196. Which of the following places has the highest
diurnal and annual range of temperature?
(a) Amritsar
(b) Chennai
(c) Cuttack
(d) Pune
197. Which of the following is a lagoon lake?
(a) Didwana
(b) Sukhna
(c) Sambhar
(d) Pulicat
198. What brings most of the rain in coastal Tamil Nadu?
(a) Northeast monsoon
(b) Tropical cyclones
(c) Southwest monsoon
(d) Western Disturbances
199. Identify the wrong statement:
(a) Godavari forms the largest river system of
Peninsular Region.
(b) Narmada river forms Marble Falls.
(c) Cardamom Hills is a branch of Annamalai
Hills.
(d) Karnataka has the largest teak forest in India.
200. Identify the wrong statement:
(a) Erratic behaviour of monsoon is the major
reason for floods and droughts occurring
together in India.
(b) The Maikala Range is situated in Madhya
Pradesh.
(c) The term Bhabar implies Piedmont plain.
(d) Bababudan Hills are situated in Eastern Ghats.
201. What is the last Indian Railway station before
crossing into Pakistan on the Amritsar Lahore line?
(a) Atari
(b) Fazilka
(c) Pathan Kot
(d) Ferozpur
202. Through which districts does the Indira Gandhi
Canal flow?
(a) Ganganagar, Bikaner and Jaisalmer.
(b) Barmer, Jodhpur and Nagaur.
(c) Jhunjhunu, Jaipur and Ajmer.
(d) Tonk, Bundi and Kota.
203. Between which mountain ranges does Leh lie?
(a) Deosai and Karakoram
(b) Siwaliks and Pir Panjal
(c) Zaskar and Ladakh
(d) Pir Punjal and Zaskar
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
24
204. Near which scenic glacier is the Amarnath cave
situated?
(a) Kolahoi
(b) Siachen
(c) Nunkun
(d) Zaskar
205. Which of the following is the “Lake District” of
Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Nizamabad
(b) Eluru
(c) Warangal
(d) Guntur
206. Which lake is a part of the Thekkady wildlife
sanctuary?
(a) Ashtamudi
(b) Periyar
(c) Kayankulam
(d) Vembanad
207. When the Kaveri river drops as soon as it enters
Tamil Nadu, what waterfalls does it create?
(a) Jog Falls
(b) Five Falls
(c) Hoggenakkal Falls (d) Sivasamudram Falls
208. Which of the following states has recorded the
lowest female literacy rate as per Census – 2001?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Uttar Pradesh
209. In ______, there has taken place a noticeable
decrease in growth rate during 1991–2001 decade,
from 24.20% in 1981–91 to 13.86% in 1991–2001.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttar Pradesh
210. The population of India increased by about _____%,
on an average per year during 1991 – 2001.
(a) 1.83
(b) 2.11
(c) 1.73
(d) 1.93
211. During 1901 to 2001, the population of India has
increased by about ______ times.
(a) three
(b) five
(c) four
(d) six
212. Identify the correct decreasing order of states in
terms of their percentage of total population of India,
according to census – 2001.
(a) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal,
Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar,
Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal,
Bihar
(d) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West
Bengal
213. The sex ratio of population varies from country to
country. It has been estimated that around the year
2000, the World had __ females against 1000 males.
(a) 986
(b) 956
(c) 996
(d) 1006
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Practice Questions: Geography 1.25
214. The sex ratio of Sikhs at national level stands at
______ females per 1000 males, according to
Census – 2001.
(a) 793
(b) 853
(c) 893
(d) 843
215. The sex ratio for Jains at the national level stands
at_____ females per 1000 males, according to
Census–2001.
(a) 940
(b) 950
(c) 930
(d) 960
216. The Rural sex ratio for India stands at ______
females per 1000 males, according to Census – 2001.
(a) 946
(b) 966
(c) 956
(d) 976
217. The Urban sex ratio for India, stands at ______
females per 1000 males, according to Census – 2001.
(a) 900
(b) 850
(c) 800
(d) 950
218. The sex ratio of Scheduled Castes at the national
level is _______ (Census – 2001).
(a) 926 females/1000 males
(b) 946 females/1000 males
(c) 936 females/1000 males
(d) 916 females/1000 males
219. The sex ratio among Scheduled Tribes at the
national level is _____ (Census – 2001).
(a) 950 females/1000 males
(b) 972 females/1000 males
(c) 940 females/1000 males
(d) 978 females/1000 males
220. The sex ratio for the Christians in the country as a
whole is ______ (Census – 2001).
(a) 1001 females/1000 males
(b) 995 females/1000 males
(c) 1009 females/1000 males
(d) 997 females/1000 males
221. The sex ratio for the Muslims in the country as a
whole is _____ females/1000 males (Census – 2001)
(a) 916
(b) 906
(c) 926
(d) 936
222. The sex ratio for the Buddhists in the country as a
whole is _____ females/1000 males (Census – 2001)
(a) 953
(b) 973
(c) 963
(d) 983
223. Identify the correct (decreasing) order in terms of
proportion of religious communities to total
population (2001).
(a) Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains
(b) Christians, Jains, Sikhs, Buddhists
(c) Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists, Jains
(d) Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Christians
224. Which of the following religious communities has
the highest literacy rate as per Census – 2001?
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
25
(a) Christians
(b) Hindus
(c) Jains
(d) Buddhists
225. Which of the following religious community has the
highest proportion of children population in their
total population?
(a) Muslims
(b) Buddhists
(c) Hindus
(d) Jains
226. Which of the following religious communities has
the lowest sex ratio (Census – 2001)?
(a) Hindus
(b) Jains
(c) Buddhists
(d) Muslims
227. Which of the following religious communities has
the lowest child sex Ratio (Census – 2001)?
(a) Muslims
(b) Hindus
(c) Christians
(d) Jains
228. The maximum number of persons living in the urban
areas are in ______ state.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kerala
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
229. The least urbanized state in India is ______
(Census – 2001)
(a) Sikkim
(b) Bihar
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Orissa
230. The sex ratio among children (0 – 6 years),
according to Census–2001 is ______ females/1000
males.
(a) 945
(b) 972
(c) 927
(d) 930
231. The minimum gap in male and female literacy has
been found to be in ________ state. (Census – 2001)
(a) Kerala
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Mizoram
(d) Tamil Nadu
232. Which district of India has been found to have least
population density in Census – 2001?
(a) Lahul and Spiti
(b) Dibang Valley
(c) Arunachal
(d) Lohit
233. How many persons got added on an average per
sq.km area, during 1991 – 2001 decade?
(a) 37
(b) 47
(c) 57
(d) 27
234. Identify the correct sequence (decreasing order) of
population density in the newly created states,
according to Census – 2001.
(a) Chhatisgarh, Jharkhand, Uttaranchal.
(b) Uttaranchal, Chhatisgarh, Jharkhand.
(c) Jharkhand, Uttaranchal, Chhatisgarh.
(d) Chhatisgarh, Uttaranchal, Jharkhand.
235. Which of the following states has got minimum
literacy level, according to Census – 2001?
(a) Uttaranchal
(b) Chhatisgarh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Uttar Pradesh
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1.26 General Knowledge Manual
236. Which of the newly created states has got the highest
sex-ratio?
(a) Uttaranchal
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Jharkhand
237. Which of the newly created states has got the highest
decadal growth rate according to Census – 2001?
(a) Uttaranchal
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Jharkhand
238. Identify the sequence, representing the correct
decreasing order in terms of area.
(a) Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Uttaranchal.
(b) Uttaranchal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh.
(c) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Uttaranchal.
(d) Uttaranchal, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand.
239. Which of the following states is the smallest in terms
of population size, according to Census – 2001?
(a) Goa
(b) Sikkim
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Mizoram
240. Which of the following periods has a rapid high
growth of population in India?
(a) 1921 – 51
(b) 1901 – 21
(c) 1951 – 81
(d) 1981 – 2001
241. Which is the smallest Union Territory according to
area?
(a) Dadar and Nagar Haveli (b) Lakshadweep
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Pondicherry
242. The Decadal Population Growth Rate in Urban
Areas was ______% (Census – 2001).
(a) 17.9
(b) 27.8
(c) 21.34
(d) 31.2
243. Which of the Union Territories, is the least literate?
(a) Pondicherry
(b) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
(c) Lakshadweep (d) Andaman and Nicobar
Islands
244. Referral Time for Census – 2001 was _______.
(a) sunrise of 1st March 2001
(b) sunset of 28th February 2001
(c) 00.00 hours of 1st March 2001
(d) 24.00 hours of 27th February 2001
245. ___________ is the state with the least number of
females for every 1000 males (Census – 2001).
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Mizoram
(c) Punjab
(d) Haryana
246. ________ is the Union Territory with the highest
Decadal Population Growth Rate (1991 – 2001).
(a) Dadar and Nagar Haveli (b) Chandigarh
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Daman and Diu
247. Census is conducted under the Census Act of _____.
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1948
(d) 1951
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
26
248. Identify the correct decreasing order, in terms of
population density (Census – 2001)
(a) Delhi, Chandigarh, Pondicherry, Lakshadweep
(b) Delhi, West Bengal, Chandigarh, Pondicherry
(c) Delhi, Pondicherry, Lakshadweep, Chandigarh
(d) Delhi, Chandigarh, West Bengal, Pondicherry
249. Identify the correct decreasing order, in terms of
population density (Census – 2001).
(a) West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala, U.P.
(b) West Bengal, Kerala, U.P., Bihar
(c) Kerala, West Bengal, U.P., Bihar
(d) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, U.P.
250. How much was the sex ratio (females/1000 males)
of India in 1901?
(a) 982
(b) 972
(c) 962
(d) 952
251. Identify the correct decreasing order in terms of
sex-ratio.
(a) Kerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil
Nadu
(b) Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra
Pradesh
(c) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra
Pradesh
(d) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka
252. What is the total number of districts in India (2001)?
(a) 593
(b) 493
(c) 450
(d) 433
253. What is the expectation of life at birth in India
(2001)?
(a) 61 years
(b) 68 years
(c) 58 years
(d) 59 years
254. Assertion (A): India is a case of an ‘overurbanized’ country.
Reason (R): Most of the large cities in India do not
have adequate infrastructure.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
255. Assertion (A): Race has not been a very important
concept in India for social segregation.
Reason (R): There are no pure races in India today.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
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Practice Questions: Geography 1.27
256. Assertion (A): Census data reflects Demographic
Polarisation in India.
Reason (R): Demographic Transition relates
highly, with social elements of Indian population.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
257. Assertion (A): India represents a case of Population
Implosion.
Reason (R): The number of small and medium
towns is not adequate in comparison to total absolute
number of urban dwellers.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
258. Who of the following are believed to be the last to
come to India from the northwest?
(a) The Nordics
(b) The Mediterranean
(c) The Dinarics
(d) The Negritos
259. Who of the following are considered to be the
bearers of the earliest form of Hinduism in India?
(a) The Mediterranean
(b) The Negritos
(c) The Mongoloids
(d) The ProtoAustralaloids
260. Which of the following are considered, to be
constituting the bulk of the population of the lower
castes in northern India?
(a) The Mediterranean (b) The Negritos
(c) The Brachy cephalic (d) The Proto-Australoids
261. When did India formulate its first comprehensive
national level population policy?
(a) 1951 – 52
(b) 1921 – 22
(c) 1975 – 76
(d) 1961 – 62
262. Assertion (A): Parsi population in India – The
writing on the wall ’Signs of definite decline’.
(Census – 2001)
Reason (R): Parsi population needs fertility
improvement innovative initiatives rather than
fertility control measures.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
263. Assertion (A): Jains had a growth rate (Decadal) of
4.6% during 1981 – 91.
Reason (R): Jains in general do not marry.
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
27
264. Who among the following have registered the
minimum gap in literacy levels for males and
females? (Census – 2001)
(a) Christians
(b) Sikhs
(c) Jains
(d) Buddhists
265. Which of the following communities has the lowest
literacy level in India as per Census – 2001?
(a) Buddhists
(b) Hindus
(c) Sikhs
(d) Muslims
266. Which of the following communities has the highest
female literacy rate in India as per Census – 2001?
(a) Jains
(b) Hindus
(c) Christians
(d) Buddhists
267. The agglomeration of saline depressions on the
western side of the Aravallis are generally known as
(a) Bagar
(b) Dhrians
(c) Kallar
(d) Rann
268. The Amindivi and Cannanore islands are separated
from Minicoy island by _______.
(a) Ten Degree Channel
(b) Nine Degree
Channel
(c) Eight Degree Channel (d) Duncan Passage
269. The sand dunes have formed a large number of
shallow lagoons along the Malabar coast, these
lagoons are generally known as _______.
(a) Nads
(b) Kari
(c) Theris
(d) Kayals
270. Which one of the following is not true about
Rajasthan Bagar?
(a) Is drained by the river Luni.
(b) Has thin blanket of sand.
(c) Has salt lakes.
(d) Has longitudinal and crescent shaped sand
dunes.
271. Match the following
List I
List II
A. Godavari
1. Raipur
B. Sabarmati
2. Betul
C. Mahanadi
3. Mewar Hills
D. Tapti
4. Nasik
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
3
2
1
(b)
4
3
1
2
(c)
2
3
1
4
(d)
2
4
4
1
272. Which of the following rivers flows westward
through the Palghat gap?
(a) Manimala
(b) Vaigai
(c) Periyar
(d) Pannani
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273. The word Trap for Deccan Trap region was first
used by _______.
(a) E.H. Pascoe
(b) M.S. Krishnan
(c) W.H. Sykes
(d) D.N. Wadia
274. Match the following
List I
List II
A. Wular
1. Volcanic
B. Lonar
2. Tectonic
C. Rakas
3. Glacial
D. Didwana
4. Aeolian
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
1
2
4
(b)
4
1
2
3
(c)
3
1
4
2
(d)
2
1
3
4
275. Identify the odd one out.
(a) Ghaghara
(b) Gandak
(c) Kosi
(d) Son
276. Which of the following rivers in India has the
maximum storage capacity (million m3)?
(a) Indus
(b) Krishna
(c) Brahmputra
(d) Ganga
277. The highest peak in the Sahyadri i.e. the Western
Ghats is _______.
(a) Kalsubai
(b) Doda Betta
(c) Anai Mudi
(d) Parasnath
278. Match the following (Hot spring and State)
List I
List II
A. Uni
1. Bihar
B. Tapovan
2. Gujarat
C. Jawalamukhi
3. Uttaranchal
D. Shahastradhara
4. Himachal Pradesh
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
1
4
3
(b)
1
2
4
3
(c)
2
3
1
4
(d)
2
1
4
3
279. Match the following (Hot spring and State)
List I
List II
A. Naraini
1. Sikkim
B. Foot Sachu
2. Himachal Pradesh
C. Nimboli
3. Maharashtra
D. Manikaran
4. Rajasthan
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
1
4
2
(b)
4
1
3
2
(c)
1
3
4
2
(d)
1
4
3
2
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
28
280. The Hispar and Batura glaciers lie in ______
Valley.
(a) Hunza
(b) Nubra
(c) Shigar
(d) Parvati
281. Which of the following rivers has the highest rate of
flow of water (m3 / km2)?
(a) Ganga
(b) Indus
(c) Brahmputra
(d) Godavari
282. Identify the correct decreasing order of river basins
area in India.
(a) Ganga Brahmputra, Indus, Godavari.
(b) Ganga, Indus, Brahmputra, Krishna.
(c) Ganga, Brahmputra, Godavari, Indus.
(d) Ganga, Indus, Godavari, Krishna.
283. Identify the correct decreasing order of annual
yield of water in the river systems in India.
(a) Brahmputra, Ganga, Godavari, Indus.
(b) Brahmputra, Indus, Ganga, Godavari.
(c) Ganga, Brahmputra, Godavari, Indus.
(d) Ganga, Brahmputra, Indus, Godavari.
284. Amarkantak peak is the source region of three
important rivers – the Narmada, the Mahanadi and
the _______.
(a) Son
(b) Tapti
(c) Wardha
(d) Ken
285. Identify the incorrect statement about the Karnataka
plateau.
(a) It has an average elevation of 600–900 metres.
(b) It is composed of volcanic lava flow of Deccan
Trap in its northern part.
(c) It has two distinct physiographic features–
Malnad and Maidan.
(d) The highest peak is Kalsubai.
286. Match the following (Peak – Mountain)
List I
List II
A. Dhupgarh
1. Satpuras
B. Mahendragir
2. Baha Budan Hills
C. Mulangiri
3. Garhjat Hills
D. Gorakhnath peak
4. Girnar Hills
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
1
2
3
4
(b)
1
3
4
2
(c)
1
3
2
4
(d)
1
2
4
3
287. Match the following (Glacier – Location)
List I
List II
A. Siachen
1. Kashmir
B. Rimo
2. Kumaon
C. Gangotri
3. Nepal/Sikkim
D. Zemu
4. Karakoram
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Practice Questions: Geography 1.29
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
3
2
1
(b)
1
3
2
4
(c)
1
4
2
3
(d)
4
1
2
3
288. The Malabar coast is characterized by sand dunes
locally known as _______.
(a) Kayals
(b) Kari
(c) Theris
(d) Nads
289. Identify the wrong statement/statements.
(i) The Malabar coastline is emergent type.
(ii) The Konkan coastline is emergent type.
(iii) The Eastern coastline is emergent type.
(iv) Periyar is the longest river along Malabar
coast.
(a) (i)
(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (ii)
(d) (iii)
290. Which of the following lakes is in between the
Godavari and Krishna deltas and is a shallow water
body?
(a) Pulicate
(b) Chilka
(c) Kolleru
(d) Vembanad
291. Which of the following is not correct with respect to
Chilka lake?
(a) It is the largest brackish water lagoon of Asia.
(b) It experiences seasonal fluctuations of water
level.
(c) It is situated south of the Mahanadi delta.
(d) It is situated north of the Mahanadi delta.
292. The residual hillocks, on the Telengana plateau are
locally known as _______.
(a) Konda
(b) Kari
(c) Malai
(d) Nad
293. Which one of the following lakes was formed when
the marine transgression had taken place forming a
lagoon, but at present is almost a fresh water lake?
(a) Pulicate
(b) Sambhar
(c) Kolleru
(d) Vembanad
294. Assertion (A): The Palghat gap has lesser rainfall
than the districts on either side of the gap.
Reason (R): The gap lessens the ascent of air.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
295. Assertion (A): The thunderstorms of Bengal and the
adjoining Bihar, Orissa and Assam are known as
Norwesters.
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
29
Reason (R): The squalls come predominantly from
northwest.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
296. Assertion (A): The Eastern Himalayas particularly
east of Bhutan are a sort of Terra incognita.
Reason (R): The difficult terrain has kept scholars
away.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
297. Match the following Sex Ratios (Females/1000
males) Census 2001
A. 893
1. Rural
B. 946
2. Jains
C. 940
3. Sikhs
D. 900
4. Urban
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
1
2
4
(b)
3
2
1
4
(c)
3
2
4
1
(d)
3
1
4
2
298. Which of the following ports handles exports of
iron-ore from Kudremukhh mines?
(a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Paradeep
(c) New Mangalore
(d) Tuticorin
299. In November 2004, a new biosphere reserve was
inaugurated in ________.
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Uttaranchal
(c) Chhatisgarh
(d) Himachal Pradesh
300. Which of the following states has the distinction of
giving highest yield of sugarcane per hectare?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Uttar Pradesh
301. Department of Land Resources has launched a new
initiative called ____________ with the objective of
empowering Panchayati Raj Institutions both
financially and administratively in implementation
of Watershed Development Programmes.
(a) Hariyali
(b) Warabandi
(c) Pani Panchayat
(d) Pani Vikas
302. Match the following
A. Rohi
1. High level laterite plateau
B. Dhrian
2. The fertile patches of land in
the Rajasthan Bagar
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1.30 General Knowledge Manual
C. Bets
D. Pat
Codes:
3. Khadar flood plains in Punjab
4. Shifting sand dunes in
western Rajasthan
A
B
C
D
(a)
1
4
3
2
(b)
4
2
3
1
(c)
2
4
3
1
(d)
4
1
3
2
303. Which one of the following ports is the oldest
artificial harbour on the east coast of India?
(a) Chennai
(b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Haldia
(d) Calcutta
304. Which of the following ports is referred to as the “off
spring of the partition”?
(a) Marmagao
(b) Ennore
(c) Nhava Sheva
(d) Kandla
305. Which of the following states has got the maximum
number of minor ports in India?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh
306. Identify the wrong statement
(a) Kochi port is referred to as the ‘Queen of the
Arabian Sea’.
(b) India’s first gold refinery is at Shirpur,
Maharashtra.
(c) World’s highest observatory is in Hanle,
Laddakh.
(d) Meghalaya is referred to as the ‘Switzerland of
the East’.
307. Identify the correct order of states (in terms of
decreasing area) in India.
(a) Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Madhya Pradesh.
(b) Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh,
Maharashtra.
(c) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Andhra Pradesh.
(d) Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh,
Andhra Pradesh.
308. Match the following
Mineral
Largest producer
in India
A. Silver
1. Rajasthan
B. Rock Phosphate
2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Dolomite
3. Tamil Nadu
D. Lead
4. Orissa
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
1
3
4
(b)
2
1
4
3
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
30
(c)
1
2
4
3
(d)
1
3
4
2
309. Which of the following is not among India’s world
heritage sites?
(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Nada Devi National Park
(c) Manas wild life sanctuary
(d) Gulf of Mannar
310. Consider the following statements
(i) India is home to 33% of the life forms found in
the world.
(ii) India is one of the 17 Mega diverse countries
of the world.
(iii) There are 12 Bio-geographic zones of India.
(iv) Western Ghats are one of the hot spots of bio
diversity in India.
Which statement is correct?
(a) only (iii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iv)
(c) All are correct
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv)
311. Which was the first national park of India?
(a) Sri. Venkateswara (b) Mauling
(c) Kaziranga
(d) Corbett
312. Match the following
Tiger Reserve
State
A. Melghat
1. Karnataka
B. Dampha
2. West Bangal
C. Buxa
3. Mizoram
D. Bandipur
4. Maharashtra
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
3
2
1
(b)
4
2
3
1
(c)
2
4
1
3
(d)
3
1
4
2
313. First bird sanctuary was set up at
(a) Vedanthangal
(b) Kundremukh
(c) Bannarghata
(d) Kaldeo
314. Match the following
National Park
Species
A. Kanha
1. BrowAntlered deer
B. Velavador
2. Hangul
C. Dachigam
3. Swamp deer
D. Keibul Lamjao
4. Black buck
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
3
4
1
(b)
3
4
2
1
(c)
1
4
3
2
(d)
2
1
3
4
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
Practice Questions: Geography 1.31
315. Match the following
National Park
State
A. Eraviculam
1. Karanataka
B. Anshi
2. Kerala
C. Hemis
3. Manipur
D. Sironi
4. J & K
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
1
4
3
(b)
3
4
2
1
(c)
2
1
4
3
(d)
1
4
3
2
316. Consider the following statements
(i) Botanical survey of India is located at New
Delhi.
(ii) Biosphere Reserves were set up within the
frame work of UNESCO Man And Biosphere
(MAB) programme.
(iii) There are 12 Biosphere reserves in India.
Which statement is true?
(a) all are true
(b) only (iii)
(c) all are false
(d) (i), (ii)
317. Match the following
Programme/Act
Year
A. Mangrove Conservation
1. 1973
B. Forest (Conservation) Act.
2. 1987
C. Project tiger
3. 1974
D. Water (Prevention and
4. 1980
Control pollution)
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
4
1
3
(b)
3
2
1
4
(c)
4
3
1
2
(d)
3
4
1
2
318. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) Ahmedabad
- Sabarmati
(b) Lucknow
- Gomti
(c) Bhubaneshwar
- Mahanadi
(d) Ujjain
- Shipra
319. Match the following
Coral reef area
Type of reef
A. Palk Bay
1. Atoll
B. Gulf of Kutch
2. Platform
C. Lakshadweep
3. Fringing
Codes:
A
B
C
(a)
1
2
3
(b)
3
2
1
(c)
1
3
2
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
31
320. Credit for bringing “Green Revolution” in India
goes to:
(a) B.P. Pal
(b) M.S. Swaminathan
(c) Norman Borlaug (a) K.C. Mehta
321. Study the following statements and find out the
correct answer from the code given below:
1. Tea is the major crop of Tamil Nadu.
2. Coffee is the major crop of Tamil Nadu.
3. Tobacco is grown extensively in Andhra
Pradesh.
4. Jute is a major crop of Chhattisgarh.
Codes:
(b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 3 are correct (e) 1 and 4 are correct
322. Free Trade Zones have been established in India to
promote:
(a) Export Industries
(b) Small Scale Industries
(c) Backward areas and hill industries
(d) All of the above
323. Under the National Air Quality Monitoring
programme (NAMP) which of the following air pollutants are regularly monitored at all locations.
1. Oxides of Nitrogen
2. Suspended Particulate Matter
3. Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter
(RSPM)
4. Sulphur Dioxide
Codes:
(a) only 1 & 2
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) all are monitored (d) all except 3
324. The 1st Software Technology Park has been
established in Uttar Pradesh in:
(a) Kanpur
(b) Lucknow
(c) Meerut
(d) Ghaziabad
325. Match the following
Research Institute
Location
A. Forest Genetics & Tree
1. Ranchi
Breeding
B. Forest Productivity
2. Chhindwara
C. Forest Research Institute
3. Dehradun
D. Forest Resources & Human 4. Coimbatore
Resource Development
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
1
3
2
(b)
2
4
1
3
(c)
3
4
2
1
(d)
2
3
1
4
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
1.32 General Knowledge Manual
326. The State admitted first to the Indian Union as an
Associate State was:
(a) Sikkim
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Goa
(d) Pondicherry
327. Match List-I (Atomic Power Plants/Heavy Water
Plants) with List-II (State) and select the correct
answer using the code given below thelists:
List-I
List-II
(A) Thal
1. Andhra Pradesh
(B) Manuguru
2. Gujarat
(C) Kakrapar
3. Maharashtra
(D) Kaiga
4. Rajasthan
5. Karnataka
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
1
4
5
(b)
3
5
2
1
(c)
2
5
4
1
(d)
3
1
2
5
328. Consider the following statements
(i) Sulphur dioxide & Nitrogen oxides are key
constituents of Acid Rain.
(ii) Odum first used the world ‘Ecosystem’.
(iii) Western Ghats is a hot spot because of its
enormous biodiversity.
(iv) First ground water harvesting project, in India,
was launched in 1976 in Punjab.
Which statement is true?
(a) all are true
(b) (i), (iii)
(c) (iii), (iv)
(d) all are false
329. Select the wrong pair
(a) Mount Harriet
Goa
(b) Van Vihar
Madhya Pradesh
(c) Nawegaon
Maharashtra
(d) Morlen
Mizoram
330. Assertion (A): The Paper-industry in India is footlose.
Reason (R): The Paper-industry is plantationbased.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
331. Assertion (A): Maximum concentration of Jute
mills in India is between Naihati and Kolkata.
Reason (R): Jute industry in India, is traditionally
export-oriented.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
32
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
332. Assertion (A): Pune has emerged as an important
automobile manufacturing centre of India.
Reason (R): Liberalization of 1990s has encouraged many major manufacturers of international
repute to set up their factories in India.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
333. Assertion (A): India is well endowed with nearly all
the raw materials necessary for iron and steel
industry.
Reason (R): India’s per capita consumption of iron
and steel is much below the world average.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
334. Assertion (A): Mini steel plants are scattered all
over India.
Reason (R): Their survival is at stake because of
import-substitution, more costs and decontrol of
steel sector.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
335. Assertion (A): India is the largest producer of
sponge iron in the world.
Reason (R): The sponge iron industry had been
specially promoted so as to provide an alternative to
steel melting scrap which was increasingly becoming
scarce.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
336. Assertion (A): The Public sector has been playing a
dominant role in the fertilizer industry.
Reason (R): The first state owned fertilizer unit was
set up in 1951 at Nangal in Punjab.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
Practice Questions: Geography 1.33
337. Assertion (A): Rock phosphate for fertilizer
industry is available in sufficient quantities in India.
Reason (R): Naptha is being produced indigenously for fertilizer industry in India.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
338. Assertion (A): There is a bright future ahead for
fertilizer industry in India.
Reason (R): We should promote a mix of chemical
and organic fertilizers in India.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
339. Assertion (A): Trombay is the largest nitrogen
producing plant of the country.
Reason (R): Gujarat is the largest producer of
chemical fertilizers in India.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
340. Assertion (A): The share of jute exports in the total
value of the country’s exports has been increasing in
the recent times.
Reason (R): Jute industry has got linked with
fashion industry.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
341. Assertion (A): The world wars gave boost to jute
industry in India.
Reason (R): The Partition of India led to a big set
back to India’s jute industry.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
342. Assertion (A): Existing ancillary units attracted
automobile industry in the recent growth phase.
Reason (R): Besides port facilities, these locations
of ancillary units had advantages of skilled labour.
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
33
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
343. Assertion (A): Fertilizer plants in India near sea
coast are mainly based on imported raw materials.
Reason (R): Major raw materials for fertilizer plants
are being harnessed from polymetallic nodules from
continental shelf and abyssal plains.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
344. Assertion (A): Scooters with Japanese collaboration
are manufactured at Pithampur.
Reason (R): Pithampur is in Madhya Pradesh.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
345. Assertion (A): Salem Steel plant uses Salem ironsteel.
Reason (R): Salem-ore has a low sulphur and low
phosphorous content.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
346. Assertion (A): Gondwana coal-deposits of India
extend like a horse shoe.
Reason (R): The horse shoe region of Gondwana is
rich in limestone, dolomite, manganese etc.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
347. Assertion (A): TISCO, Jameshpur uses coking
coal from Bababudan hills.
Reason (R): TISCO, Jameshpur gets its iron-ore
from the captive mines of Maywrbhanj and
Singhbhum districts.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
1.34 General Knowledge Manual
348. Assertion (A): Paper industry in India, today, is
dominated by small units.
Reason (R): Paper industry in India today uses
more and more ‘pure’ raw materials.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
349. Assertion (A): Nepa Nagar is the largest producer
of newsprint paper in India.
Reason (R): The indigenous production of
newsprint falls much short of the total consumption.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
350. Assertion (A): Andhra Pradesh is the second
largest producer of Jute in India.
Reason (R): Guntur is one of the important centres
for Jute production.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
351. Assertion (A): There is maximum concentration of
paper industry in sub-Himalayan region.
Reason (R): The Himalayan region possess temperate climatic conditions.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
352. Assertion (A): The known coking coal reserves are
limited in India.
Reason (R): India is well endowed with nearly all
the raw materials necessary for iron and steel
industry.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not
explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
353. For which one of the following items it Tirupur is
well-known as a huge exporter to many parts of the
worlds?
(a) Gems and Jewellery (b) Leather goods
(c) Knitted garments
(d) Handicrafts
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
34
354. Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh?
1. Punjab
2. Rajasthan
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
355. Match List-I (National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary)
with List-II (State) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I
List-II
(A) Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary 1. Orissa
(B) Kangerghat National Park
2. Assam
(C) Orang Sanctuary
3. Chhattisgarh
(D) Ushakothi Wildlife Sanctuary 4. Goa
5. Tripura
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
1
5
3
(b)
4
3
2
1
(c)
2
3
4
1
(d)
4
1
2
3
356. According to the Census-2001, which one of the
following Indian States has the maximum
population in India after Uttar Pradesh?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Mharashtra
(c) Bihar
(d) Tamil Nadu
357. Which Indian State shares the longest border with
Myanmar?
(a) Manipur
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland
358. Which among the following lines divide India and
Pakistan?
(a) McMahon Line
(b) Durand Line
(c) 38th Parallel Line (d) Radcliffe Line
359. Uranium is most abundantly found in which of the
following Indian States?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Bihar
(d) Kerala
360. India’s National Dairy Research Institute is in:
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Karnal
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Lucknow
361. The Gas pipeline from Iran to India via Pakistan
has been in news recently. Which of the following is
another major pipeline project, the work on which is
going on presently?
(a) India-Bhutan-Iran
(b) Iran-Bangladesh-India
(c) China-Bangladesh-India
(d) Myanmar-Bangladesh-India
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
Practice Questions: Geography 1.35
362. Match the Biosphere Reserves with their States:
(A) Simlipal
1. Sikkim
(B) Dehond Deband
2. Meghalaya
(C) Nokrek
3. Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Kanchenjanga
4. Orissa
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a)
1
3
4
2
(b)
2
4
1
3
(c)
3
1
2
4
(d)
4
3
2
1
363. Approximately what is the length of the rail-route
open to traffic in India?
(a) 25,000 kms
(b) 48,000 kms
(c) 63,000 kms
(d) 78,000 kms
ANSWERS
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.
101.
106.
111.
116.
121.
126.
131.
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
S I-MCQ (3rd Proof).p65
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
102.
107.
112.
117.
122.
127.
132.
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
103.
108.
113.
118.
123.
128.
133.
35
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
104.
109.
114.
119.
124.
129.
134.
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(d)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
105.
110.
115.
120.
125.
130.
135.
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
136.
141.
146.
151.
156.
161.
166.
171.
176.
181.
186.
191.
196.
201.
206.
211.
216.
221.
226.
231.
236.
241.
246.
251.
256.
261.
266.
271.
276.
281.
286.
291.
296.
301.
306.
311.
316.
321.
326.
331.
336.
341.
346.
351.
356.
361.
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
137.
142.
147.
152.
157.
162.
167.
172.
177.
182.
187.
192.
197.
202.
207.
212.
217.
222.
227.
232.
237.
242.
247.
252.
257.
262.
267.
272.
277.
282.
287.
292.
297.
302.
307.
312.
317.
322.
327.
332.
337.
342.
347.
352.
357.
362.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
138.
143.
148.
153.
158.
163.
168.
173.
178.
183.
188.
193.
198.
203.
208.
213.
218.
223.
228.
233.
238.
243.
248.
253.
258.
263.
268.
273.
278.
283.
288.
293.
298.
303.
308.
313.
318.
323.
328.
333.
338.
343.
348.
353.
358.
363.
3/21/07, 1:08 PM
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
139.
144.
149.
154.
159.
164.
169.
174.
179.
184.
189.
194.
199.
204.
209.
214.
219.
224.
229.
234.
239.
244.
249.
254.
259.
264.
269.
274.
279.
284.
289.
294.
299.
304.
309.
314.
319.
324.
329.
334.
339.
344.
349.
354.
359.
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
140.
145.
150.
155.
160.
165.
170.
175.
180.
185.
190.
195.
200.
205.
210.
215.
220.
225.
230.
235.
240.
245.
250.
255.
260.
265.
270.
275.
280.
285.
290.
295.
300.
305.
310.
315.
320.
325.
330.
335.
340.
345.
350.
355.
360.
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)