QP Code: 012A
Session - 3
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET: UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TIME ALLOTTED: 60 MINUTES
MAXIMUM MARKS: 85
INSTRUCTIONS
This test booklet contains two sections. The Domain related MCQ and General Aptitude Section. Please note
that both the sections have different Question Paper set codes. It is important that both the set codes are
mentioned in the relevant portions of OMR sheet without fail.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does
not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so get it replaced by a complete test
booklet.
You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate answer sheet (OMR Sheet) provided. See
directions in the answer sheet.
There is no negative marking. You are encouraged to attempt all questions.
There will be no additional rough sheets issued. Do your rough work in the separate space provided
herein.
Use of Chits, calculator, mobile phones, Bluetooth, Google Glass, GPRS enable electronics, including
watch etc., is not allowed. Any candidate who is found using these or having this on his or her person will
be disqualified.
Reminder: Two set codes (Domain and General Aptitude needs to be separately mentioned in the Answer
Booklet).
The answer sheets in which set codes of are not mentioned will be treated as invalid.
Set Codes
Domain Booklet Set Code
A
General Aptitude Booklet Set Code
1
Section Wise Number of Questions and their Marking is as follows:
Section
General Aptitude Questions
Social GK and Domain Questions
Total Questions
Q No. 1 to Q No. 15
Q No. 16 to Q No 50
Total Marks
15 Marks
70 Marks
All the best!
Page 1 of 8
1. S is the daughter of U. V has only two children – S and Y. P is the brother of B. Y is married to D. V
has only two daughters. J is the mother of U. P is married to S. J is married to L. V is the son of T.
Who among the following is the father of U?
a. L
c. T
b. V
d. J
2. If in certain code PROJECT is written as UDFKPSQ then in the same code how CHARACTER is written?
a. UDFKPSS
c. UDFKPSR
b. UDFKPST
d. UDFKPSQ
3. Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ... What number should come next?
a. 20
c. 23
b. 22
d. 26
4. CD-ROM stands for
a. Compactable Read Only Memory
b. Compact Data Read Only Memory
c. Compactable Disk Read Only Memory
d. Compact Disk Read Only Memory
5. In Information Technology, what does "WAN" stand for?
a. Wap Area Network
b. Wide Area Network
c. Wide Array Net
d. Wireless Area Network
6. MS-Access, OpenOffice.org Base, MS-SQL Server, ORACLE are examples of which of the following
kinds of software
a. Census
c. .Net Framework
b. Database Management
d. None of these
7. In Information Technology, in which of the following form does the computer store data?
a. Decimal
c. HexaDecimal
b. Binary
d. Octal
8. In MS Excel, If you have to join Multiple Text items into single Text item, which function will you use?
a. CONJOIN
c. JOIN
b. CONCATENATE
d. None of the above
9. Where are saved files stored in computer?
a. RAM
b. Hard disk
c. Cache
d. Any of above
10. Which function will you use in MS Excel to return the number of days between two dates?
a. AND(DAYS)
b. DAY
c. DAYS
d. Date If
Page 2 of 8
11. Two trains 200 m and 150 m long are running on parallel rails at the rate of 40 kmph and 45 kmph
respectively. In how much time will they cross each other, if they are running in the same direction?
a. 176 s
c. 238 s
b. 192 s
d. 252 s
12. A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work
in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in____
a. 15 1/3 days
c. 14 1/3 days
b. 13 1/3 days
d. 12 1/3 days
13. When you reverse the digits of age of father, you will get the age of son. one year ago the age of
father was twice that of son’s age. what are the current ages of father and son?
a. 73 and 37
c. 31 and 13
b. 45 and 54
d. 24 and 42
14. In the following number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that
will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank space.
7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ?
a. 13
c. 10
b. 12
d. 7
15. Three numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 and their L.C.M. is 240. Their H.C.F. is:____
a. 40
c. 20
b. 30
d. 10
16. In NRLM Capacity Building Handbook, the acronym CBRM will refer to which of the following?
a. Continental Ballistic Radial Missiles
b. Community Based Ration Methodology
c. Cooperative Beneficial Recovery Method
d. Community Based Recovery Mechanism
17. In NRLM Capacity Building Handbook, the acronym GBV, especially in relation to women, will refer to
which of the following?
a. Great Bias in Villages
c. Gender Based Violence
b. Gender Broad-based Vision
d. None of these
18. In NRLM Capacity Building Handbook, the acronym NTFP will refer to which of the following?
a. New Trade Free Produce
c. Non Timber Forest Produce
b. Non Trade Forest Produce
d. None of these
19. The NRLM Community-managed Sustainable Agriculture (CMSA) is an important activity undertaken
towards which of the following agendas?
a. Sustainable Agriculture for Rural Poor
b. Sustainable Agriculture for the Small Producers
c. Self Help in Agriculture
d. None of these
Page 3 of 8
20. Under which of the following circumstance can a competent authority under RTI refuse to share
information?
a. If it involves Trade secrets
b. If it involves Foreign Funding
c. If it involves Non Patented Information
d. None of these
21. How many services are offered under the ICDS package?
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
22. What is the target of outcome for NHM in the 12th Plan pertaining to IMR?
a. Reduce IMR to 5/1000 live births
c. Reduce IMR to 25/1000 live births
b. Reduce IMR to 10/1000 live births
d. None of these
23. What does the acronym TFR stand for in NRHM Context?
a. Total Fertility Rate (TFR)
b. Tuberculosis Frequency Rate (TFR)
c. Total Female Ratio (TFR)
d. None of these
24. Which is the target date by which villages in India will become ODF under SBM-G?
a. 15-Aug-20
c. 15-Aug-18
b. 02-Oct-18
d. 02-Oct-19
25. The provision for continuous and comprehensive public vigilance of the SBM-G programme is called
which of the following?
a. Community Audit
c. Social Audit
b. PRI Audit
d. None of these
26. What is the age criteria of the destitute beneficiary so as to be eligible for National Old Age Pension
Scheme (NOAPS)?
a. Above 55
c. Above 65 Years
b. Above 60
d. None of these
27. Since when has the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan been operational?
a. 1980-1981
c. 2000-2001
b. 1990-1991
d. None of these
28. The Mid-day Meal Scheme is centrally managed by which of the following departments?
a. Department of School Education and Literacy
b. Department of Education
c. Department of HRD
d. None of these
Page 4 of 8
29. Which of the following is the right key eligibility condition to be considered as a PMRD Fellow?
a. Age between 22-28 for Gen Candidates
b. At least a graduate from a recognized University with a three-year degree course
c. At least 60% marks in the aggregate or equivalent grade
d. None of these
30. What is the full form of CAPART?
a. Centre for Advancement of People's Action and Rural Technology
b. Council for Advancement of People's Action and Rural Technology
c. Centre for Aggregation of People's Action and Rural Technology
d. None of these
31. Which is the Technical Name of the Technology used for Mkisan service?
a. Unstructured Supplementary Service Data
b. Flash Messaging Service
c. Whatsapp
d. SMS
32. What is the quantum of mandatory training that the beneficiary has to undergo under the
Mukhyamantri Nishchay Swayam Sahayata Bhaata Yojana through the Kaushal Yuva Programme?
a. 80 Hours
c. 240 Hours
b. 160 Hours
d. 360 Hours
33. Under the National Rural Drinking Water Programme, NRDWP, what is the full form of DPAP?
a. District Panchayat Activation Programme
b. District Pipeline Activation Programme
c. Drought Panchayat Activation Programme
d. Drought Prone Areas Programme
34. Under Rurban, which of the following is considered as a unit of funding ?
a. The Project
b. The Cluster
c. The Village
d. None of these
35. The ‘per drop more crop’ slogan is associated with which of the following projects?
a. NRDWP
c. CAPRAT
b. PMKSY
d. None of these
36. Which of the following programmes support and promote organic farming thereby improving soil
health?
a. Organic India Growth Project
b. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
c. Village Organic
d. Paramparagat Kisan Kalyan Yojana
Page 5 of 8
37. What is the target year by which the objective of Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) to
improve quality of education imparted at secondary level through making all secondary schools
conform to prescribed norms and Universal access to secondary level education has to be met?
a. 2017
c. 2019
b. 2018
d. 2020
38. When was IAY restructured into Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin?
a. 1st April 2015
c. 2nd Oct 2015
b. 1st April 2016
d. 2nd Oct 2016
39. Which is the year by which the current Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin should meet its
targeted objectives?
a. 2020
c. 2024
b. 2022
d. 2026
40. What will be role of Member of Parliament (MP) in planning and implementation of PMKSY?
a. While formulating Block Irrigation Plans (DIPs)
b. While formulating Cluster Irrigation Plans (DIPs)
c. While formulating District Irrigation Plans (DIPs)
d. None of these
41. Procurement of all goods and works under BRLPS needs to be undertaken in accordance with which
of the following guidelines?
a. World Bank Organization guidelines for Procurement
b. Bihar State Finance Rules
c. NRLM Procurement Rules
d. Three Bid Basis
42. For which of the following is National Shopping (NS) and Direct Contracting applicable?
a. Procurement of Goods
c. Only Goods
b. Procurement of Works
d. Both Goods and Works
43. The term "FBS" in procurement stands for which of the following?
a. Fixed Budget Selection
c. First Bid System
b. Fixing Budget Session
d. Fixing Budget for Selection
44. For which of the following there is no need to take quotations as per BRLP Procurement Manual?
a. E-Commerce Sites
c. DGS & D
b. State Enlisted Suppliers
d. DGD & S
45. Which of the following denotes contracting without competition?
a. LCS
c. CQS
b. SSS
d. FBS
Page 6 of 8
46. Which of the following is the best answer for a "Rate Bank" as per BRLPS procurement Manual?
a. It is the Bank Interest rate applicable for Community Lending
b. It is the inventory of Bank Interest rates charged by variouss RRBs for Community Lending
c. It is an inventory of current market price for the goods, works and services in the region
of operation
d. None of these
47. As per the World Bank procurement guidelines, any act or omission, including a misrepresentation,
that knowingly or recklessly misleads, or attempts to mislead, a party to obtain a financial or
other benefit or to avoid an obligation, is called which of the following:
a. Corrupt practice
c. Fraudulent practice
b. Corrupt & Fraudlent practice
d. Cheating
48. Which of the following will fall under "Coercive Practice" as per World Bank Procurement
Guidelines?
a. Deliberately destroying, falsifying, altering, or concealing of evidence material to the
investigation…
b. Impairing or harming, or threatening to impair or harm, directly or indirectly, any party or
the property of the party to influence improperly the actions of a party
c. In arrangement between two or more parties designed to achieve an improper purpose,
including to influence improperly the actions of another party
d. Acts intended to materially impede the exercise of the Bank’s inspection and audit
rights
49. What does the acronym, ICB refers to as per World Bank Procurement Guidelines?
a. Inter Country Bids
c. International Competitive Bidding
b. Indian Consultant Bidding
d. International Consultant Bidding
50. Items such as Grain, animal feed, cooking oil, fuel, fertilizer, and metals etc., is classified as which
of the following under WB procurement guidelines?
a. Tangible Goods
c. Commodities
b. Intangible Goods
d. None of these
Rough Work
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