CA Final Course Paper 2 Strategic Financial Management Chapter 12 CA. Rajiv Singh 1.1 Introduction Forex Market 1.2 Forex Market in India 1.3 Merchant Deal Structure 1.4 Inter bank Quote 1.5 Forex Quote convention 1.6 Types of Forex transaction 1.7 Calculating Merchant rate 1.8 Nostro, Vostro and Loro accounts 1.9 Forex Quote style 1.10 Cross rate 1.11 Forward rate 1.12 International finance theory 1.13 International Arbitrage The largest and most liquid sector of Global Financial Market Turnover average $ 4 trillion* per day 24 hour market [day begins with Tokyo, Singapore, India, Bahrain, Frankfurt, Paris, London, New York, Sydney and back to Tokyo Two tier market (Interbank & Merchant) Two way quotes (Buy rate & Sell rate) Duality-currency pairs (EUR/USD; USD/JPY) • * April 2010 survey by bank for international settlement Serves as primary mechanism for making payments across borders, transferring fund’s & determining exchange rates. In 89% of transactions USD is involved. No specific location-most trade by Reuters dealing and SWIFT (society for worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications) Not uniform (e.g. restricted) Country based regulation Forex transactions can be undertaken only with Authorised dealers. A foreign exchange rate is the price of one currency expressed in terms of another currency. A foreign exchange quote is a statement of willingness to buy or sell at an announced rate. TRANSACTION TYPE DOT DOS Cash / Ready Today Today Today Tomorrow (=DOT + 1 Business working day) Today Day after tomorrow (=DOT+ 2 Business working day) Today Beyond day after tomorrow (=DOT+ more than 2 business working days) TOM SPOT Forward Spot rate USD/INR 62.4560 /61 What should be the merchant rate if bank wants 5 paise margin ? An Indian banker wants to fund their Nostro account with a USA correspondence bank by USD 5,00,000 against INR when interbank rate is 1 USD= INR 47.20/50. The deal is struck and overseas bank’s vostro account that is being maintained with the Indian bank will be credited by INR-------------- Ex 1 USD/ CAD 1.1034/35 USD/ SGD 1.4055 /56 Ex 2 GBP/ USD 1.4034/35 AUD/ USD 1.0560/61 Ex3 USD/INR 62.3560/61 GBP/USD 1.4034/35 A forward exchange rate prevails today for settlement at a future date. It is calculated by adding or deducting forward point or margin (interest differential) from today’s spot rate. Forward points or margin are quoted on month basis in India and are available for 12 months at any point of time. Spot Bid Ask Bid Ask Bid(%P .A.) Ask(%P .A.) 05:32:00 PM Spot Date : Jun 08, 2011 Jun 10, 2011 Cash Tom 30-Jun 29-Jul 31-Aug 30-Sep 31-Oct 30-Nov 31-Dec 31-Jan 29-Feb 30-Mar 30-Apr 31-May 1.2500 -0.0100 16.00 39.00 64.50 86.50 109.50 128.50 148.00 166.50 184.50 203.00 222.50 240.50 1.7500 -0.0100 18.00 41.00 66.50 88.50 111.00 130.50 150.00 168.50 186.50 205.00 224.50 242.50 44.6825 44.7001 44.8600 45.0900 45.3450 45.5650 45.7950 45.9850 46.1800 46.3650 46.5450 46.7300 46.9250 47.1050 44.6975 44.7101 44.8900 45.1200 45.3750 45.5950 45.8200 46.0150 46.2100 46.3950 46.5750 46.7600 46.9550 47.1350 --- --- --- 6.53 6.50 6.42 6.31 6.25 6.07 5.95 5.79 5.71 5.64 5.59 5.52 --- --- --- 7.35 6.83 6.62 6.45 6.34 6.16 6.03 5.85 5.77 5.69 5.64 5.56 44.700 0 44.710 0 44.700 0 44.710 0 On Jan 28,2005 an importer customer requested a bank to remit Singapore Dollar (SGD) 25,00,000 under an irrevocable LC. However due to bank strikes, the bank could effect the remittances only on February4, 2005. The inter bank market rates were as follows Jan 28, 2005 Step I: 1 $ = 45.90 Rs II: 1 £ = $ 1.7850 1 $ = 1/1.7850£ III: SGD with £ proceeds 3.1575/1.7850 Feb 4, 2005 1 $ = 45.97 Rs 1 £ = $ 1.7775 1 $ = 1/1.7775 £ SGD with £ proceeds 3.1380/1.7775 IV: 45.90 Rs = 3.1575/1.7850 45.97 Rs = 3.1380/1.7775 SGD SGD 1 SGD = 26.0394 Rs 1 SGD = 25.9482 add: EM(.125%) = 0.0325 Rs 26.0719 add: EM(.125%) = 0.0324 25.9806 Loss to the importer = (26.0719 – 25.9806) 25000000 = 228250 Your forex dealer had entered into a cross currency deal and had sold US $ 10,00,000 against EURO at US $ 1 = EUR 1.4400 for spot delivery. However, later during the day, the market became volatile and the dealer in compliance with his management’s guidelines had to square – up the position when the quotations were: Spot US $ 1 INR 31.4300/4500 1 month margin 25/20 2 months margin 45/35 Spot US $ 1 EURO 1.4400/4450 1 month forward 1.4425/4490 2 months forward 1.4460/4530 What will be the gain or loss in the transaction? Step I: Loss in € due to squaring up the existing sale position 1$ = (1.4450 – 1.4400) x 10,00,000€ = 5000€ Step II: Cross rate for € against Rs on spot basis Bid: 31.4300/1.4450 Ask: 31.4500/1.4400 = 21.8403 Step III: Loss in Rs = 21.8403 x 5000€ = Rs 109201. You have following quotes from Bank A and Bank B: (i) How much minimum CHF amount you have to pay for 1Million GBP spot? (ii) Considering the quotes from Bank A only, for GBP/CHF what are the Implied Swap points for Spot over 3 months? Example Using quotes of Both Bank ‘A’ and ‘B’ Step I: Buy USD from Bank ‘A’ 1USD = 1.4655 CHF Step II: Buy GBP from Bank ‘B’ 1GBP = 1.7650 USD 1GBP = 1.4655 x 1.7650 = 2.5866 CHF Step I 3 m FR USD / CHF Bid 1.4650 + .0005 = 1.4655 GBP / USD 1.7645 - .0025 = 1.7620 Step II 3m Fwd Cross GBP / CHF rate Less: Spot cross GBP / CHF rate Swap Point Ask 1.4655 + .0010 = 1.4665 1.7620 - .0020 = 1.7640 1.4655 x 1.7620 1.4665 x 1.7640 = 2.5822 2.5850 = 2.5869 2.5881 - .0028 28/12 - .0012 Example You sold Hong Kong Dollar 1,00,00,000 value spot to your customer at ` 5.70 & covered yourself in London market on the same day, when the exchange rate were: US$ 1 = HK$ 7.5880 and 7.5920. Local inter bank market rates for US$ were Spot US$ 1= INR 42.70 and 42.85. Calculate cover rate & ascertain the profit and loss in the transaction. Ignore brokerage. Step I: Find out Cross rate HK $/ INR 42.70 (base) (quote) 7.5920 = 5.6243 42.85 7.5880 = 5.6471 Bank’s cover rate for merchant sale transaction is the market selling rate and hence cover rate is 1 HK$ = INR 5.6471. The merchant rate is given 1 HK$ = INR 5.70. Step II Total Profit to the bank = 100 lacs (5.70 – 5.6471) = Rs 5,29,000. As per this theory real interest rate are same for each country . As a result of this high interest rate is due to high inflation rate and vice versa This combines relative PPP and Fisher effects. As per this theory if real interest rates are same then interest differential should predict future spot rate Example The US Dollar is selling in India at ` 45.50. If the interest rate for a 6-month borrowing in India is 8% per annum and the corresponding rate in USA is 2% (i) Do you expect US dollar to be at a premium or at discount in the Indian Forward Market? (ii) What is expected 6-month forward rate for US dollar in India; and (iii) What is the rate of forward premium or discount? (i) USD is expected to be on premium as interest rate in USA is low as compared to India. The currency with low interest rate rate should go on premium in the forward market as per IRP. (ii) FR = 45.50 x (1.04 / 1.01) = Rs 46.85 46.85 – 45.50 12 (iii) 45.50 x 6 x 100 = 5.93% Note that the rate of fwd premium should be approx 6% (= rq – rb). The rate of inflation in USA is likely to be 3% per annum and in India it is likely to be 6.5%. The current spot rate of US $ in India is ` 43.40. Find the expected rate of US $ in India after one year and 3 years from now using purchasing power parity theory. expected spot rate after one year = 43.40 x (1.065/1.03) = 44.8748 (ii) expected spot rate after three years = 43.40 x (1.065 /1.03)3 = 47.9763. On April 1, 3 months interest rate in the UK £ and US $ are 6.5% and 4.5% per annum respectively. The UK £/US $ spot rate is 0.6560. What would be the forward rate for US $ for delivery on 30th June? (1 + 6.5%/4) FR = .6560 x (1 + 4.5%/4) = .6592 Given the following information: Exchange rate-Canadian Dollar 0.666 per DM (Spot) Canadian Dollar 0.671 per DM (3 months) Interest rates-DM 8% p.a. Canadian Dollar 10% p.a. What operations would be carried out to earn the possible arbitrage gains? step I Synthetic FR = .666 x [ 1+ (10%/4)]/ [ 1+ (8%/4)]=.669 Step II Since quoted FR is more than synthetic FR hence it is overvalued. Sell overvalued currency DM in fwd market and create long. (invest) in DM in money mkt. This means borrow (short) CAD $ in money mkt. Step III Action •Borrow .666 CAD @ 10 % for 3 m •Buy 1DM at Spot rate •Invest @ 8% for 3m •Book fwd contract 1 DM = .671$ •DM deposit proceeds = 1.02 •Sell DM and get CAD $ at FR = 1.02 x .671 = .6844 •Pay loan = .6827 •Profit = .0017 BOB USD/INR SBI USD/ INR 62.3568/69 62.3566/67 Do you see arbitrage opportunity based on the two quotes of two banks Followings are the spot exchange rates quoted at three different forex markets: USD/INR 48.30 in Mumbai GBP/INR 77.52 in London GBP/USD 1.6231 in New York The arbitrageur has USD 1,00,00,000. Assuming that there are no transaction costs, explain whether there is any arbitrage gain possible from the quoted spot exchange rates. Sell 1 unit of USD and buy INR x sell 1 unit of INR and buy GBP x sell 1 unit of GBP and buy USD 48.30 x 1/77.52 x 1.6231=1.01130 Less: investment 1 Profit per USD investment in USD 0.01130 Total profit for USD 100,00,000 investment= USD 1,13,000
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