BUEC 280 LECTURE 12 Quasi-Fixed Labour Costs and Their Effect on Labour Demand Labour Costs The firm’s wage bill is a variable cost – it is proportional to the number of hours worked by employees Some labour costs are quasi-fixed: they are not proportional to the number of hours worked by the employee. These are per-worker costs, rather than per-hour They are usually non-wage labour costs e.g. some social insurance programs (CPP, EI) with caps These generate an employment/hours tradeoff Three kinds of non-wage labour costs 1. 2. 3. We can divide non-wage labour costs into three broad categories: Hiring costs Training costs Employee benefits Hiring Costs Hiring a new worker isn’t free. Some examples of the expenses associated with hiring a worker: Advertising a vacant position Screening applicants to evaluate their qualifications interviews, checking references, etc. Processing successful applicants Adding new employee to payroll, orientation, etc. Some of these are hard to measure Training costs Training can be formal or informal At least three kinds of training costs 1. 2. 3. Direct monetary cost of employing trainers and of materials used in training Opportunity cost of labour and capital used in informal training e.g., getting an experienced employee to demonstrate tasks to a new employee reduces the productivity of the experienced worker Opportunity cost of trainee’s time In training, employee is less productive than they would be if producing full time Employee benefits 1. Two kinds: Mandated benefits 2. CPP, EI, vacation pay Privately provided benefits pension, health/dental insurance, stock options, stock purchase plans etc. The quasi-fixed nature of most non-wage costs Notice that all of these costs are per worker rather than per hour worked Since they do not vary at the margin with the number of hours that an employee works, we say they are quasi-fixed Once an employee is hired, the firm is committed to paying these costs no matter how many hours the new employee works Some non-wage benefits are exceptions Defined contribution pension plans (employer contributes percentage of employee’s earnings to private pension fund) Some are complicated CPP/EI etc. (payroll taxes) are proportional to earnings up to a cap amount, then they are fixed MPL revisited So far, we’ve been a bit vague about the units we use to measure labour, but usually we’ve implicitly been talking about labour hours hired by the firm With quasi-fixed labour costs, we need to be more precise about what we mean by “one unit of labour” Let M denote the number of employees Let H denote the average hours worked by each employee Then we have two marginal products of labour: e.g. we defined MPL as the extra output produced by hiring “one more unit of labour” MPM is the extra output produced by hiring one more worker (holding K,H constant) MPH is the extra output produced by increasing the average hours per worker (holding K,M constant) As with MPL, assume that both are positive but decreasing MEL revisited If we’re going to distinguish between the number employees and the number of hours they work, we also need to consider the MEL Now we have two marginal expenses of labour: MEM is the marginal expense of hiring one more worker (holding K,H constant) A function of quasi-fixed costs plus the variable costs (including wages) associated with 1 more employee working H hours MEH is the marginal expense of increasing average hours of work (holding K,M constant) Equals (per-hour wage + per-hour benefit costs) x M The employment-hours tradeoff Employer has to choose both M and H Choosing the optimal employment and hours allocation is just like choosing between any two inputs To minimize cost of producing any level of output Q, the firm must adjust its employment level and average work week so that the cost of producing an extra unit of output is equalized: MEM/MPM = MEH/MPH So, if per-worker quasi-fixed costs (MEM) increase, then substitute more H, less M If per-hour variable costs (MEH) increase, then substitute more M, less H Example: Overtime pay Q: Why do some employers consistently require their employees to work more than 40 hrs/week, even though they need to pay an overtime premium? A: Because it is profit maximizing. They face quasi-fixed hiring/training costs which makes increasing M (instead of H) costly. Therefore, they increase hours of work up to the point that MEM/MPM = MEH/MPH. Even though they need to pay a premium wage, they avoid the quasi-fixed hiring/training costs associated with hiring more workers. Another example Q: Would increasing the overtime premium to 2 times the hourly wage be an effective way to reduce unemployment? A: The firm’s profit-max condition is MEM/MPM = MEH/MPH. Increasing the overtime premium increases MEH (if the firm requires workers to work overtime). The firm will therefore substitute more M, less H. Is this the whole story? What happens to total hours worked in the economy? More effects of increasing the overtime premium 1. 2. Increases labour costs. We know the firm could have chosen more employment & less hours before, but didn’t because it was more expensive. If increasing the overtime premium changes the employment and hours mix at the firm, it must increase average per-hour labour costs. In the long run, they will substitute K for L (use less labour hours). Scale effects. The firm could have chosen to use more K and less L before the overtime premium increased, but they didn’t. Hence doing so must be more costly for the firm (otherwise they would have done it before). This increases per-unit production costs, so the firm reduces output (supply shifts up), and uses less labour hours. Even more effects of increasing the overtime premium 3. 4. Substitutability of employed and unemployed workers. These may be poor substitutes: maybe overtime workers are skilled and unemployed workers are unskilled. This will make it difficult for the firm to substitute more M and less H. Wage adjustment. Maybe workers and firms agree on a “package” of weekly hours and total compensation. An increase in the overtime premium might just lead to a reduction in the (base) hourly wage, leaving weekly hours and earnings unchanged. Firms’ Labour Investments and Labour Demand We have: Introduced quasi-fixed labour costs Leads to an employment/hours tradeoff by the firm Profit-max condition: Per-worker costs, like hiring, training and benefits Don’t vary at the hours margin MEM/MPM = MEH/MPH Next: introduce some dynamics into our analysis of labour demand The time dimension So far, our discussion of labour demand has been static But many quasi-fixed costs need to be considered in a dynamic context That is, hiring and training costs have a time dimension Firms evaluate current marginal product and marginal costs Hiring costs are incurred when the worker is hired, but not later Training costs are incurred in the early part of an employment relationship, but have benefits later (they increase future productivity) We can think of these as investments that the firm makes in its labour force Once the investment has been made, it is cheaper for the firm to continue using current workers than it is to hire new ones at the same wage, because the trained workers are more productive A two-period model of training Imagine a firm that is choosing its employment level over a two-period MPL horizon To keep things simple, we’ll focus on training and ignore any other quasifixed costs Assume the firm operates in competitive input and output markets Period 0: training takes place, and MPL = MP0 Period 1: training is complete, and MPL = MP1 With no training, MPL = MP* MP0 < MP* < MP1 MP1 MP* MP0 L Training costs and benefits Suppose the real cost (in units of the firm’s output) of training one worker is Z Assume the real wage (in units of the firm’s output) paid during training is W0, after training it is W1 How is the employment level determined? As always, the firm is a profit maximizer. It equates marginal benefits with marginal costs. Now, the costs and benefits are spread over two periods, and hence it needs to compute the present value of the costs and benefits If the interest rate is r, the present value of B dollars next period is B0 = B/(1+r) Present values and profit max The present value of the marginal product of a worker who gets trained is PVMPL = MP0 + MP1/(1+r) The present value of the marginal expense of a worker who gets trained is PVMEL = W0 + Z + W1/(1+r) The profit max condition is PVMPL = PVMEL or, MP0 + MP1/(1+r) = W0 + Z + W1/(1+r) As always, this defines the optimal employment level: hire up to the point that the profit max condition is satisfied What’s new here is that current marginal product and expense need not be equal! That is, it could be that MP0 < W0 + Z and MP1/(1+r) > W1/(1+r) Recouping investment costs Suppose that MP0 < W0 + Z so that the real marginal expense of employment in the training period is greater than the worker’s marginal product Then the firm needs to recoup their investment costs in period 1 That is, they need MP1/(1+r) > W1/(1+r) to “break even” on the training We can rewrite the profit max condition as W0 + Z - MP0 = (MP1 – W1)/(1+r) (net expense of training = PV of net benefit) Notice what we need in order for this to be true. If MP0 < W0 + Z (current cost of training exceeds current benefit) then we need MP1 > W1 that is, the trained worker must be paid less than their marginal product!! How are wages determined in this model? We assumed the firm hires in a perfectly competitive labour market Suppose the equilibrium wage is W* Can the firm choose W0 and W1 to be different than W*? Yes, if the firm and worker can sign a two-period wage contract Just need the present value of the wage contract to equal the present value of working two periods at the market wage: W0 + W1/(1+r) = W* + W*/(1+r) the worker is indifferent between these two income streams (assuming they can borrow & save!) General vs. Specific Training Usually, we think there are two kinds of training General training increases an individual’s productivity in many firms Specific training raises productivity only in the firm offering the training General computer skills; learning to use a machine that is common to many production processes, etc. Proprietary software; learning to use a machine that is only used by this firm This is mostly a conceptual distinction because most training has both general and specific aspects Who should pay for general training? In our two-period model, suppose the training is general We saw that if MP0 < W0 + Z, the firm pays W1 < MP1 in the second period. Can they do this? The worker is worth MP1 to other firms, thus they can earn W = MP1 at some other firm who didn’t incur the training cost To keep the worker from quitting, they need to pay W1 = MP1 after training unless they have some other way of making the worker stay After training, the worker’s marginal product is MP1 in any firm Usually can’t sign contracts that prevent the worker from quitting (we have laws against indentured servitude) The firm might offer a credential to the worker if they stay until the end of the second period (apprenticeships) If they have to pay W1 = MP1 in the second period, then the firm will not pay for general training, or they will reduce W0 until MP0 = W0 + Z (which is the same as not paying – the worker bears the full cost of the training) What if the training is specific? Then our original story is unchanged. Why? Because the worker’s marginal product remains MP* < MP1 at other firms. Hence the firm can pay W1 such that W* < W1 < MP1 The firm incurs some of the training costs (W0 + Z > MP0) Note the firm has two things to decide here: how much training to invest in, and how to structure the wage profile Defined by three conditions: 1. PVMPL = PVMEL (profit max) 2. W0 + W1/(1+r) = W* + W*/(1+r) (worker accepts) 3. W* < W1 < M (firm recoups investment, worker stays) The two period wage stream graphically MP1 W1 W*=MP* W0 MP0 Period 0 Period 1 Implications of the theory This type of model has been suggested as one reason we see wages increase with job tenure Notice that both employees and employers have investments to protect: Thus we might think that an “implicit contract” could be binding Employers incur costs W0 + Z > MP0 in the first period, and need to recoup this investment in the second period Employees accept W0 < W* in the first period in anticipation of earning W1 > W* An implicit contract is an informal agreement between the worker and firm Here, the worker agrees to accept a low wage initially in return for a higher wage later (and not getting laid off). The firm agrees to pay a higher wage later if the worker doesn’t quit. Notice that W1 < MP1 provides the worker with some insurance against layoff in a recession: the worker is worth more to the firm than he/she gets paid. Likewise, the firm doesn’t want to lose their investment in the worker. Remember labor hoarding during recessions?
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