PRACTICE QUESTIONS
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1. Motion is more prominently seen as ghosting along the __________ direction.
a. Frequency encoding
b. Phase encoding
c. Slice selection
d. Z-axis
2. Aliasing can occur when tissues outside the prescribed FOV is ______.
a. Undersampled
b. Oversampled
c. Not sampled
d. Moving
3. In order to compensate for aliasing _________________.
a. The scan time can be reduced
b. The FOV can be increased
c. An oversampling technique can be used
d. B or C
4. Truncation artifact can be seen as _________________.
a. Tissue that looks very similar to aliased tissue
b. A bright pixel in the center of the image
c. Dark lines at fat and water interfaces within the image with certain TE
times
d. Lines along the inside of the spinal cord in a sagittal cervical spine
and may mimic a syrinx.
5. Susceptibility effects can be reduced by ______________.
a. Reducing the voxel volume and/or TE
b. Reducing the TR
c. Reducing the receiver bandwidth
d. Adding flow compensation
6. Flow artifacts can be reduced by _________________.
a. Increasing the TE
b. Spatial Pre-saturation Pulses
c. Use of oversampling
d. Reducing the receiver bandwidth
7. When the voxel volume is decreased, _______________ is decreased.
a. High signal from flow
b. Aliasing
c. Partial volume averaging
d. motion artifact
8. Respiratory artifacts can be reduced by ________________.
a. Respiratory gating
b. Reducing the TR
c. Reducing the TE
d. Reducing receiver bandwidth
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William Faulkner & Associates, LLC all rights reserved
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9. A magnetic field strength of 0.6 Tesla is equivalent to ________ . a. 15,000 Gauss
b. 6,000 Gauss
c. 0.06 Gauss
d. 0.00006 milli-Tesla
10. The T2 relaxation time of a tissue is defined as when _______ of the ________
magnetization has decayed.
a. 76%
Longitudinal
b. 63 %
Longitudinal
c. 63%
Transverse
d. 37%
Transverse
11. Spin Density is determined by ________________.
a. The amount of hydrogen nuclei available for imaging in a given
volume of tissue
b. The amount of transverse magnetization in phase at the time the echo is
sampled
c. Field strength
d. Pulse sequence selection
12. The receiver bandwidth is related to the slope and duration of the ___________
gradient
a. Readout (Frequency encoding) b. Phase encoding c. Slice selection
d. Oscillating
13. The signal induced in a coil immediately following an RF pulse is known as the
___________
a. Spin echo
b. Gradient echo
c. Free Induction Decay
d. FRE
14. T2* is a result of T2 decay plus a. T1/T2
b. Inhomogeneities and chemical shift
c. Molecular motion
d. T1-relaxation
15. The peak signal strength of a spin echo is less than the initial signal strength of the
FID because of ____________
a. T1 decay
b. T2* decay
c. Spin Density differences
d. T2 decay Revised Jan2014
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16. Hydrogen nuclei have a magnetic moment because they possess ________
a. Inversion
b. Flux
c. And odd atomic number
d. Magnetization transfer
17. Spins aligned in the anti-parallel direction are said to be in ____________.
a. A low energy state
b. A resonating state
c. A high energy state
d. Alignment with Bo
18. The individual hydrogen protons in the low-energy spin state in excess of the
number in the high-energy state produce a _______________ vector parallel to
Bo.
a. Rotating
b. Oscillating
c. Varying
d. Net magnetization
19. The formula that describes the relationship between the static magnetic field and
precessional frequency of hydrogen is the ____________.
a. Helmholtz equation
b. Nyquist theorem
c. Larmor equation
d. Fourier Transform
20. _____________ is the condition reached within a few seconds of placing tissue in
a magnetic field
a. Resonance
b. FID
c. Phase coherence
d. Thermal equilibrium
21. At thermal equilibrium, the individual protons precess ______________.
a. At the same frequency
b. In-phase
c. Out-of-phase
d. Transverse to Bo
22. Given the following possible answers, maximum MR signal will be produced in
the receiver coil when the net magnetization is tipped _________.
a. 180-degrees
b. 90-degrees
c. Away from the x,y plane
d. Beyond the transverse plane
23. The B1 magnetic field is oriented ___________ to B0
a. Parallel
b. Perpendicular
c. 180-degrees
d. 45-degrees
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24. The gradient magnetic fields are primarily used to ___________________.
a. Increase SNR
b. Spatially encode the signal
c. Transmit the RF pulse
d. Control the image contrast based on T1 and T2 relaxation
25. Of the following choices, slice thickness is controlled by _________________.
a. The length of the longitudinal gradient field
b. The amplitude of the slice selecting gradient
c. Receiver bandwidth
d. Field strength
26. To selectively excite a sagittal slice, the physical ___ gradient is applied during an
excitation pulse.
a. Z
b. Y
c. X
d. Combination of two orthogonally opposed gradients
27. In a MR system operating at 0.5 Tesla, the resonant frequency of hydrogen is
approximately __________.
a. 63.86 MHz
b. 42.6 MHz
c. 21.3 MHz
d. 0.5 MHz
28. The amount of RF power necessary to produce a 45-degree flip angle is
determined by ____________.
a. The type and size of the transmit coil being utilized
b. The amplitude and duration of the RF pulse
c. B0
d. All of the above
29. The gadient(s) that varies in amplitude throughout the scan is the __________.
a. Phase encoding gradient
b. Frequency encoding gradient
c. Slice selecting gradient
d. Both a and b
30. The 180-degree pulse that follows the initial 90-degree pulse in a spin echo
sequence will correct for _____________.
a. Slight magnetic field inhomogeneities
b. Chemical shift from fat and water within the same voxel
c. Slight magnetic susceptibility effects
d. All of the above
31. A condition where longitudinal and transverse magnetization coexist is known as
_________ __________.
a. Steady State
b. Spin Dephasing
c. Spin Rephasing
d. Spin Saturation
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32. The phase encoding gradient is applied _________ frequency encoding
a. After
b. Prior to
c. In place of
d. During
33. In a conventional spin echo acquisition, one “line” or “phase view” of k-space is
filled within each _______.
a. Inversion
b. Acquisition
c. TR period
d. Reconstruction pass
34. If a phase resolution of 256 is desired, then the pulse sequence must be repeated a
total of _____ times in an acquisition using 2 NSA (assuming all phase lines are
to be filled).
a. 192
b. 256
c. 512
d. 1024
35. Acquiring slightly more than half the lines of k-space (ky)and then interpolating
the data for the other half is a technique known as _______.
a. Zero-fill
b. Fast Spin Echo
c. Half-Fourier
d. Turbo-Mode
36. In an FSE sequence utilizing an 8 ETL, how many lines of k-space will be filled
during each TR?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 12
d. 8
37. If a given conventional spin echo pulse sequence takes 12 minutes to acquire, how
long would a fast spin echo sequence with an ETL of 6 take if all other factors
affecting scan time were to remain unchanged?
a. 2 minutes
b. 1 minute
c. 6 minutes
d. 12 minutes
38. In an FSE sequence, the effective TE is the echo that is associated with
_________.
a. The outer lines of k-space
b. The low amplitude phase encoding gradients c. The initial phase encoding gradient
d. The high amplitude phase encoding gradients
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39. Which of the following are (is) important in MRA with regards to minimizing the
loss of signal due to dephasing within a voxel.
a. Use of spatial pre-saturation pulses
b. Small voxels
c. Short TE
d. Both b and c
40. In a 2D Time-of-Flight acquisition, flowing blood will appear hyperintense
relative to stationary tissue primarily due to ________.
a. T2* effects
b. Flow Related Enhancement
c. The type of coil utilized for MRA studies
d. slow flow
41. The gradient magnetic coils
a. Are energized repeatedly during the scanning process
b. Can produce peripheral nerve stimulation
c. Can produce noise levels well above 99 db
d. All of the above
42. The maximum amplitude of gradient magnetic fields is typically expressed in
units of __________.
a. Field strength / distance
b. Watts / kilogram of body weight
c. Watts / time
d. Field strength / time
43. The amount of RF power deposited into the body is dependent upon ________.
a. The duration of the RF pulse
b. The Flip angle selected c. B only
d. Both A and B
44. Which of the following MR safety labeling may be seen with regard to a
pacemaker system:
a. MR Safe
b. MR Conditional
c. MR Compatible
d. None: all pacemakers are unsafe
45. The accepted standard for screening for metal within the eyes is
a. Optometrist exam
b. Plain-film radiograph
c. Split lamp exam
d. Thin-slice CT
46. Gradient echo sequences use flip angles ___________
a. Which are always less than 90-degrees
b. That vary between pulse repetitions
c. To control image contrast based on T1
d. To increase SAR limits for higher field systems
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47. Complete saturation is a condition where ___________.
a. Not enough time is allowed for T2 to completely decay
b. Longitudinal magnetization is not allowed to recover between
excitations
c. The image becomes no brighter
d. Proton Density effects begin to dominate the image contrast
48. Reducing the TE _______________
a. Reduces the contrast based on T1 relaxation times
b. Increases the Proton Density contrast weighting
c. Reduces saturation effects
d. Reduces contrast based on T2 (or T2*) relaxation times
49. A STIR sequence can suppress signal from
a. Fat
b. Water
c. A gadolinium enhancing lesion
d. Both A and C
50. Doubling the NSA will ________ SNR.
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Double
d. Have no effect on the 51. Reducing the FOV by a factor of 2 will reduce the acquired voxel volume by a
factor of _______.
a. Square root of 2
b. Square root of 4
c. Square root of 8
d. 4
52. If the slice thickness is reduced by a factor of 2, the NSA must be increased by a
factor of ___ to offset the reduction in SNR.
a. 8
b. 1.41
c. 4
d. 2
53. In an inversion recovery sequence, which of the following parameters will affect
the image’s contrast:
a. TR
b. TE
c. TI
d. All of the above.
54. The use of a spectral fat suppression sequence suppresses the signal from fat
based on _____________________.
a. The precessional frequency of fat
b. The amount of fat in the target slice
c. The T1-relaxation time of fat
d. The T2-relaxation time of fat Revised Jan2014
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55. Using a conventional spin echo multi-slice sequence, increasing the TE from 20
to 80 will ___________ the number of slices allowed.
a. Reduce
b. Have no affect
c. Increase
d. Double
56. In an FSE acquisition, the central phase lines of k-space are associated with
____________.
a. The images spatial resolution
b. The effective TE
c. The TR
d. The scan time
57. The cryogen most commonly used to maintain the magnet coils at
superconducting temperature is _____________.
a. Helium
b. Hydrogen
c. Nitrogen
d. Oxygen
58. Faraday’s Law of Induction states that if a magnetic field is moved through a loop
of conductive material, it will induce a ________.
a. Magnetic wave
b. Electrical current
c. Torque
d. Resonant vibration
59. The gradient magnetic fields are __________________
a. Always on in a superconducting magnet
b. not utilized as often at lower field
c. Superimposed over the main magnetic field
d. Controlled by the RF amplifiers
60. Which of the following is not an intrinsic contrast property of tissue
a. Flow
b. T2-relaxation
c. VENC
d. Magnetization transfer
61. Which of the following would result in the an image with the most diffusion
weighting:
a. b-value=250
b. b-value=500
c. b-value=800
d. b-value=1200
62. In a perfusion exam of the brain using a paramagnetic contrast agent, the result of
T2* shortening would be _______
a. an increase in signal
b. a drop in signal
c. inversion of all signal
d. no change - gadolinium only shortens T1
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63. Which of the following is regulated by the FDA
a. Length of the bore
b. Diameter of the bore
c. Length of the gradient coil / field
d. Acoustic Noise
64. The following items are usually allowed to enter the scan room in high magnetic
field systems
a. surgical stainless steel hemostats
b. surgical stainless steel scissors
c. copper tools
d. all of the above
65. Magnetic shielding can be utilized by either active or passive methods. Passive
magnetic shielding utilizes which of the following a. Lead
b. Steel
c. Copper
d. None of the above
66. The following statements regarding T1 relaxation are true EXCEPT
a. It is an expression of longitudinal magnetization recovery
b. It is exponential
c. Results from spins loosing their energy to their molecular lattice
d. Results from spins exchanging energy with each other resulting in
dephasing
67. From which chamber of the heart does the pulmonary vein originate
a. Left Atrium
b. Right Atrium
c. Left Ventricle
d. Right Ventricle
68. The chamber of the heart which is situated most anteriorly is
a. Left Atrium
b. Right Atrium
c. Left Ventricle
d. Right Ventricle
69. When imaging the wrist, what view would best demonstrate the median nerve?
a. Sagittal
b. Axial
c. Coronal
d. 45-degree Coronal Oblique
70. Which arteries join to form the basilar artery
a. Common Carotid
b. Middle and Anterior Cerebral
c. Posterior Cerebral
d. Vertebral !
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71. The infundibulum is another term for
a. Hippocampus
b. Pituitary stalk
c. Base of the adrenal gland
d. 4th ventricle
72. When imaging the hippocampus, which of the following views would best
demonstrate the area
a. Coronal
b. Sagittal
c. Axial
d. Sagittal-oblique
73. When performing an MRCP, which structures are most commonly seen
a. Bile duct , pancreatic duct, gallbladder
b. Kidney, adrenal gland, gallbladder
c. Gallbladder, bile duct, liver
d. Bile duct, kidney, pancreatic duct
74. Where would avascular necrosis be seen
a. Femoral neck
b. Femoral head
c. Greater trochanter
d. Lesser trochanter
75. The coronary arteries originate from
a. The left ventricle
b. The descending aorta
c. The aortic root
d. The left main coronary artery
76. A condition characterized by a complex “tangling” of arteries and veins is known
as a. Stenosis
b. Aneurysm
c. Stentors Aneurysm
d. AVM
77. The first vessel to originate normally from the abdominal aorta is
a. Coronary arteries
b. Right subclavian artery
c. Superior mesenteric
d. Celiac axis
78. Spatial and/or spectral presaturation pulses generally occur
a. After the 90-degree pulse
b. Prior to the excitation pulse
c. Between each 180-degree pulse in an FSE sequence
d. Immediately prior to the TE (readout gradient)
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William Faulkner & Associates, LLC all rights reserved
79. Which of the following would be the most effective in reducing metal artifact
a. Gradient Echo with moderate receiver bandwidth
b. EPI with high receiver bandwidth
c. Conventional Spin Echo with moderate receiver bandwidth
d. Fast Spin Echo with high receiver bandwidth
80. What is a Spoiled Gradient Echo sequence spoiling?
a. Longitudinal recovery
b. Longitudinal decay
c. Transverse decay
d. Residual transverse magnetization
81. Where would one see less chemical shift artifact on an out-of-phase gradient echo
sequence
a. Orbit
b. Benign adrenal mass
c. Cerebellum
d. Pancreas
82. As the TE is increased
a. Chemical shift increases
b. Susceptibility artifacts increase
c. Susceptibility artifacts decrease
d. Signal increases
83. Which of the following would likely result in inadequate fat suppression when
using a spectral fat suppression technique
a. Long TR
b. Short TR
c. B0 inhomogeneities
d. Use of gradient echo sequence
84. The amplitude of a gradient magnetic field over a given distance is the
a. Slew Rate
b. Rise Time
c. Duty Cycle
d. Gradient Amplitude
85. To alter voxel volume, which group of parameters would you alter
a. FOV, matrix, slice thickness
b. Slice thickness, interslice gap, transmit bandwidth
c. Slice gap and thickness
d. Frequency matrix, slice thickness and reduced coil size
86. In a 3D FT acquisition, SNR will increase as one increases
a. FOV b. Number of slices
c. TE
d. A and/or B
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87. The timing of the RF pulses in any MR pulse sequence will effect
a. Spatial resolution
b. Image Contrast
c. Truncation artifacts
d. All of the above
88. Of the following sequences, the one which will provide the earliest visualization
of a stroke is
a. T1-FLAIR
b. T2-FLAIR
c. EPI
d. Diffusion-Weighted Sequence
89. Which of the following pulse sequences would have the shortest scan time
a. FSE: TR 500, TE 20, 256 frequency, 192 phase, 2 NSA, 32 kHz rBW, 2
ETL
b. Conventional SE: TR 200, TE 10, 256 frequency, 128 phase, 1 NSA, 16
kHz rBW
c. EPI: TR 8000, TE 80, 192 frequency, 192 phase, 1 NSA, 1 Shot, 62
kHz rBW
d. FSE TR 2500, TE 80, 320 frequency, 160 phase, 1 NSA, 12 ETL, 42 kHz
rBW
90. Assuming a minimum TE, which of the following combinations of TR and flip
angle would produce an image with the greatest amount of Proton Densityweighting
a. 40 msec TR / 90 Flip
b. 40 msec TR / 60 Flip
c. 500 msec TR / 30 Flip
d. 500 msec TR / 90 Flip
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