Mitosis/Meiosis
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. What refers to the division of a cell’s cytoplasm during cellular replication?
a. cytokinesis
b. karyokinesis
____
2. Which best describes the daughter cells produced from meiosis?
a. A
b. B
____
c. C
d. D
3. Which involves the haploid development of a cell into an adult?
a. budding
b. binary fission
____
c. meiosis
d. mitosis
c. fragmentation
d. parthenogenesis
4. Two daughter cells are produced from mitosis. One of these cells has one more than the
normal amount of chromosomes while the other cell has one less than the normal amount.
In which stage did an error occur?
a. anaphase
b. interphase
____
c. prophase
d. telophase
5. What is structureY in the diagram below?
a. anther
c. pollen
b. pistil
____
d. style
6. Which best describes the daughter cells produced if S phase were eliminated from the cell
cycle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
____
They would be genetically identical to each other.
They would be genetically identical to the parental cell.
They would have half the genetic material found in the parental cell.
They would synthesize the missing genetic material on their own.
7. Which cell would be most affected by a chemotherapy agent?
a. fat
b. muscle
____
8. In which process does the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divide to produce two cells?
a. anaphase
b. cytokinesis
____
c. nerve
d. sperm
c. mitosis
d. telophase
9. Which phase of mitosis is represented in the diagram below?
a. anaphase
b. metaphase
c. prophase
d. telophase
____ 10. What is the advantage of crossing over during meiosis?
a. decreases mutations
b. decreases sterility
c. increases immunity
d. increases variation
____ 11. Which characteristic is common for egg cells and sperm cells?
a. motility
b. number of chromosomes
c. number produced
d. size
____ 12. If anaphase I did not occur in a human cell, how many chromosomes would be present in
the four daughter cells produced by meiosis?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 13. Which best describes both fertilizations that occur during sexual reproduction in
flowering plants?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 14. In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replicate?
a. anaphase
b. interphase
c. metaphase
d. telophase
____ 15. Which phase is indicated in the diagram below?
a. anaphase
b. metaphase
c. prophase
d. telophase
____ 16. An error in which stage of meiosis would produce a human egg cell with 24
chromosomes?
a. anaphase (I)
b. prophase (I)
c. metaphase (II)
d. telophase (II)
____ 17. Which best describes a sperm cell?
a. contains large amounts of cytoplasm
b. diploid
c. larger size than egg cells
d. motile
____ 18. Which involves culturing human cells for treating medical disorders?
a. amniocentesis
b. fetoscopy
c. in vitro maturation
d. therapeutic cloning
____ 19. Which type of asexual reproduction is used by bacteria?
a. binary fission
b. budding
c. fragmentation
d. parthenogenesis
____ 20. Which best describes why human sperm may lack energy to swim to the egg?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The acrosome’s contents have been emptied.
The middle piece of the sperm cell is damaged.
The prostate gland secretes an acid fluid.
The scrotum holds the testis too close to the body.
____ 21. What is structure A in the diagram below?
a. anther
b. pistil
c. pollen
d. stigma
____ 22. In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a. G1
b. G2
c. M
d. S
____ 23. In the diagram below, which structure is indicated by the arrow?
a. cell plate
b. cell wall
c. cleavage
d. cytoplasm
____ 24. If a parent cell has 24 chromosomes and undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes will
be found in each new daughter cell?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 48
____ 25. Why is there only one functional egg cell produced after completion of oogenesis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
failure of chromatids to separate
failure of homologous chromosomes to separate
insufficient amount of genetic material
unequal division of cytoplasm during meiosis I and II
____ 26. Where are the mitochondria located in a sperm cell?
a. acrosome
b. head
c. middle piece
d. tail
____ 27. A queen bee can produce offspring without contribution of sperm. What is this mode of
reproduction?
a. binary fission
b. budding
c. parthenogenesis
d. spore production
____ 28. Which structure below produces and stores pollen?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 29. During which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes pair up?
a. anaphase I
b. anaphase II
c. prophase I
d. prophase II
____ 30. Why must chromosome number be reduced by half during the production of sex cells?
a.
b.
c.
d.
limit the number of gametes produced
maintain chromosome number from generation to generation
minimize the probability of genetic disorders
provide genetic information for producing new offspring
____ 31. When mitosis occurs in onion root tip cells, a cell plate develops following telophase.
How is animal cell mitosis different?
a. Cell membrane pinches inward.
b. Chromosomes separate in pairs.
c. Four cells are formed rather than two.
d. Two nuclei are formed.
____ 32. An organism produces gametes with 16 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would
be found in a normal body cell?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
____ 33. The diagram below shows the growth pattern of some human skin cells after they have
been exposed to ultraviolet radiation. What type of cells are most likely found in area X?
a. cancer
c. sex
b. red blood
d. white blood
____ 34. Double fertilization leads to the production of which two structures in flowering plants?
a. endosperm and pollen
b. endosperm and zygote
c. ovule and seed
d. ovule and zygote
____ 35. Which structure is part of the female reproductive organ?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 36. What are chromatids?
a. bacterial chromosomes
b. dense patches within the nucleus
c. duplicate copies of a chromosome
d. prokaryotic nuclei
____ 37. Why might a doctor suggest radiation as the best treatment option for a patient diagnosed
with a localized cancerous tumour?
a. can be administered at home
b. has no side effects
c. is focused on the affected area only
d. will affect all of the body cells
____ 38. If the DNA per cell is measured during each stage of meiosis, which represents the ratio
of DNA in prophase I to the DNA in prophase II?
a. A
b. B
____ 39. What is true of a clone?
c. C
d. D
a. has different chromosome numbers
b. is produced by meiosis
c. is produced by mitosis
d. results from sexual reproduction
____ 40. How are human sperm and eggs similar?
a.
b.
c.
d.
both are produced in equal numbers
both are the same size
both have motility
both have the same number of chromosomes
____ 41. Why might stem cells have the potential to decrease Parkinson’s symptoms?
a.
b.
c.
d.
They can become neurons that produce dopamine in the brain.
They cause existing brain cells to produce dopamine.
They decrease the amount of dopamine reducing enzymes.
They increase the effectiveness of dopamine receptors in the brain.
____ 42. In which part of the flower does both meiosis and fertilization occur?
a. anther
b. filament
c. ovule
d. stigma
____ 43. When do tetrads form in meiosis(I)?
a. anaphase (I)
b. metaphase (I)
c. prophase (I)
d. telophase (I)
____ 44. Which phase of meiosis, if not conducted properly, could result in the formation of one
daughter cell having 21 chromosomes and the other daughter cell having 19?
a. anaphase (I)
b. metaphase (I)
c. prophase (II)
d. telophase (II)
____ 45. Which is true for a species whose diploid number is 32?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A gamete belonged to the species has 16 chromosomes.
Spermatocytes of the species have 32 chromosomes.
The species has a total of 64 chromosomes.
The species has 32 homologous pairs of chromosomes.
____ 46. Which relative would be the best stem cell donor for a male requiring stem cell
replacement?
a. father
b. grandmother
c. sister
d. uncle
____ 47. Which mode of reproduction involves an outgrowth on the parent organism?
a. budding
c. fragmentation
b. fission
d. spore production
____ 48. Which part of a flower produces male gametes?
a. anther
b. filament
c. ovule
d. style
____ 49. In which phase of mitosis do spindle fibres attach to the centromere of the replicated
chromosomes?
a. anaphase
b. metaphase
c. prophase
d. telophase
____ 50. Which stage of mitosis is indicated in the diagram below?
a. anaphase
b. metaphase
c. prophase
d. telophase
____ 51. Which type of cell division occurs only in reproductive organs?
a. cytokinesis
b. meiosis
c. mitosis
d. mutation
____ 52. What is the difference between the production of sperm and eggs in humans?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
a.
b.
c.
d.
Eggs are produced by meiosis and sperm are produced by mitosis.
Eggs are produced by mitosis and sperm are produced by meiosis.
Females produce less eggs than males produce sperm.
Females produce more eggs than males produce sperm.
____ 53. How would a lack of mitochondria prevent fertilization?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The egg cell would be unable to penetrate the sperm cell.
The egg cell would not have enough energy to reach the sperm cell.
The sperm cell would be unable to penetrate the egg cell.
The sperm cell would not have enough energy to reach the egg cell.
____ 54. Why are stem cells used in medical research?
a.
b.
c.
d.
They differentiate into many types of cells.
They differentiate into only one type of cell.
They divide by meiosis.
They divide by mitosis.
____ 55. Which best describes sexual reproduction?
a. involves mitotic cell divisions
b. offspring are identical to parents
c. produces large numbers of offspring
d. promotes genetic diversity
____ 56. Which type of asexual reproduction involves growing house plants from cuttings?
a. binary fission
b. budding
c. fragmentation
d. parthenogenesis
____ 57. Which is a part of the female reproductive organ in flowering plants?
a. anther
b. pollen
c. stamen
d. stigma
____ 58. During fertilization in flowering plants, how many sperm nuclei are required to form the
zygote and endosperm?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 59. Which structure is indicated by A in the diagram below?
a. centriole
b. centromere
c. chromatid
d. chromatin
____ 60. In which stage of the cell cycle below does anaphase occur?
a. G1
b. G2
c. M
d. S
____ 61. If the egg cell of a potato plant has 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are found
in the root cell?
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
____ 62. Which process repairs damaged tissue?
a. meiosis
b. mitosis
c. parthenogenesis
d. spermatogenesis
____ 63. Which best describes the daughter cells at the end of meiosis?
a. four diploid
b. four haploid
c. two diploid
d. two haploid
____ 64. Which process is represented in the diagram below?
a. cytokinesis
b. crossing-over
____ 65. Which produces polar bodies?
c. gene linkage
d. nondisjunction
a. cleavage
b. fertilization
c. fragmentation
d. oogenesis
____ 66. What is the function of flagella?
a. aid in the penetration of eggs
b. allow for motility
c. produce genetic material
d. store energy
____ 67. In which structure of the diagram below does fertilization occur?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 68. Which phase of mitosis is represented by the diagram below?
a. interphase
b. metaphase
c. prophase
d. telophase
____ 69. During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replicate?
a. anaphase
b. interphase
c. metaphase
d. prophase
____ 70. If the cell below undergoes meiosis, which best represents the daughter cells?
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 71. For humans, what is the normal chromosome number in cells produced by mitosis and
meiosis?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 72. In human females, how many functional egg cells are formed as a result of one primary
sex cell undergoing normal meiotic cell division?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
____ 73. In which stage of embryonic development would stem cells be removed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 74. Which part of a sperm cell contains enzymes that help sperm penetrate an egg cell?
a. acrosome
c. mitochondria
b. flagellum
d. nucleus
____ 75. Which products are formed from meiosis in the anther of flowering plants?
a.
b.
c.
d.
generative cell nucleus and sperm cell nucleus
generative cell nucleus and tube cell nucleus
sperm cell nuclei only
tube cell nuclei only
____ 76. Which phase of meiosis is illustrated in the diagram below?
a. anaphase I
b. anaphase II
c. metaphase I
d. metaphase II
____ 77. What is the end result of crossing over during meiosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
greater number of gametes produced
greater variety among the gametes produced
less number of gametes produced
less variety among the gametes produced
____ 78. How many spermatogonia must undergo meiosis to produce 200 000 sperm cells?
a. 50 000
b. 100 000
c. 200 000
d. 400 000
____ 79. Why is the human egg cell much larger than the human sperm cell?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Eggs contain more chromosomes than sperm.
Sperm have flagella for locomotion.
Unequal division of cytoplasm occurs during oogenesis.
Unequal division of cytoplasm occurs during spermatogenesis.
____ 80. How is the stigma adapted for fertilization in flowering plants?
a.
b.
c.
d.
gives off odors to attract pollinators
has sticky surface to hold pollen
produces large number of pollen
surrounds and protects the flower bud
____ 81. Which organism is capable of asexual reproduction by spores?
a. amoeba
b. bread mold
c. earthworm
d. hydra
____ 82. Which phase of mitosis is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the
equator of the cell?
a. anaphase
b. metaphase
c. prophase
d. telophase
____ 83. When does separation of the homologous chromosomes occur?
a. fertilization
b. meiosis I
c. meiosis II
d. mitosis
____ 84. Which is true of oogenesis and spermatogenesis?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 85. A biologist successfully fertilized an egg cell with two sperm cells forming a zygote.
Later study of the zygote showed that it contained 27 chromosomes. How many
chromosomes should normally be found in diploid cells of this organism?
a. 9
b. 18
c. 27
d. 36
____ 86. Which part of human sperm contains high numbers of mitochondria that provide the
energy for movement?
a. acrosome
b. flagellum
c. middle piece
d. nucleus
____ 87. A tree produces only seedless oranges. A small branch cut from this tree produces roots
after it is planted in soil. What type of fruit will most likely be produced when this tree
matures?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a majority of oranges with seeds
a majority of seedless oranges
only oranges with seeds
only seedless oranges
____ 88. The diagram below represents a yeast cell in the process of budding. Which best
describes the bud?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It will contain genetically identical chromosomes as the parent.
It will contain half the number of chromosomes as the parent.
It will develop into a zygote.
It will divide by meiosis.
____ 89. Which structures aid in the transport of sperm nuclei to egg nuclei in most flowering
plants following pollination?
a. anthers
b. filaments
c. pollen tubes
d. sepals
____ 90. Which structure is part of the male sex organ?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 91. A somatic cell in a certain organism has 12 chromosomes. The cell undergoes mitosis. How many
chromosomes are in each daughter cell?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 12
d. 24
____ 92. Which best describes the division of a skin cell’s nucleus during cellular replication?
a. cytokinesis
b. karyokinesis
c. meiosis
d. mitosis
____ 93. If an egg cell has 16 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be found in a liver cell from the same
organism?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. 64
____ 94. Certain mites produce eggs that develop into young mites without the eggs being fertilized. What type of
reproduction occurs in this situation?
a. budding
c. fragmentation
b. binary fission
d. parthenogenesis
____ 95. Which structure shown below produces the generative and tube nuclei?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 96. In which phase of meiosis do the tetrads of chromosomes separate?
a. anaphase I
b. anaphase II
c. metaphase I
d. metaphase II
c. prophase
d. telophase
____ 97. Which phase of mitosis is shown below?
a. anaphase
b. metaphase
____ 98. Which of the following is a result of crossing over during meiosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a reduction of a diploid number of chromosomes to a haploid number
an increase the haploid number of chromosomes to a diploid number
a reduction in genetic variability
an increase in genetic variability
____ 99. Why is radiation therapy effective in fighting cancer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It affects cancer cells only
It primarily affects cells that have short cell cycles
It primarily affects cells that have long cell cycles
It disrupts the process of cytokinesis
____ 100. Which best describes why human sperm may not be able to penetrate the surface of the egg?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The acrosome’s contents have been emptied.
The middle piece of the sperm cell is damaged.
The prostate gland secretes and acid fluid.
The egg is not motile
____ 101. What is the result of the 2 unequal divisions of cytoplasm during oogenesis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 diploid egg cell
1 haploid egg cell
4 diploid egg cells
4 haploid egg cells
____ 102. Whem mitosis occurs in white fish embryo cells, the cell membrane pinches inward following telophase.
How is onion root tip cell mitosis different?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Chromosomes separate in pairs.
Cell plate develops.
Four cells are formed rather than two.
Two nuclei are formed.
____ 103. Which statement would normally NOT be associated with clones?
a.
b.
c.
d.
has the same number of chromosomes
is produced by meiosis
is produced by mitosis
results from asexual reproduction
____ 104. In which stage of the cell cycle below does a second set of DNA form?
a. G1
b. G2
c. M
d. S
____ 105. One difference between mitosis and meiosis is that, during mitosis,
a.
b.
c.
d.
one replication of chromosomes and one division occurs
one replication of chromosomes and two divisions occur
two replications of chromosomes and one division occurs
two replications of chromosomes and two divisions occur
____ 106. If horses (Equus caballus) have 66 chromosomes in somatic cells, starting from a single cell, what
will be the correct product of spermatogenesis in horses?
a.
b.
c.
d.
one cell with 33 chromosomes
two cells, each with 66 chromosomes
four cells, each with 33 chromosomes
three cells, each with 22 chromosomes
____ 107. Human cells were cultured for a day in a nutrient-rich medium. The DNA content of a typical
nucleus was determined every hour, and the data collected were graphed.
The process that occurs during interval K - L is
a.
b.
c.
d.
cytokinesis
chromatid separation
replication of genetic material
synapsis of homologous chromosomes
____ 108. Human cells were cultured for a day in a nutrient-rich medium. The DNA content of a typical
nucleus was determined every hour, and the data collected were graphed.
On the graph, N likely indicates the completion of which mitotic event?
a. Prophase
b. Anaphase
c. Telophase
____ 109. During mitosis, the chromosomes
a. are located at the cell equator during prophase
b. are located at the cell equator during telophase
d. Metaphase
c. move toward the poles of the cell during anaphase
d. move toward the poles of the cell during metaphase
____ 110. One aspect of meiosis that is different from mitosis, is that normally by the end
of meiosis
a. two diploid cells result
b. four diploid cells result
c. two haploid cells result
d. four haploid cells result
____ 111. Using the following table, which of the following statements about cell types and chromosome
numbers is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The ovum of a horse contains 66 chromosomes.
A somatic cell of a cat contains 76 chromosomes.
The spermatid of a dog contains 39 chromosomes.
A somatic cell of a human contains 23 chromosomes.
____ 112. Which process below illustrates reduction division, as in spermatogenesis?
a. Process 1
b. Process 2
c. Process 3
d. Process 4
____ 113. In a human cell cycle, the event that occurs before mitosis begins and the event that
occurs at or near the completion of mitosis are, respectively,
a. crossing over and synapsis
b. cytokinesis and crossing over
c. replication of DNA and synapsis
d. replication of DNA and cytokinesis
Mitosis/Meiosis
Answer Section
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ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
C
C
A
A
C
A
A
B
A
B
C
D
A
D
C
D
A
B
C
D
B
B
B
D
B
D
B
B
D
C
A
D
A
B
A
B
A
C
B
B
B
B
C
B
C
D
A
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
2
1
2
2
3
1
1
1
1
1
2
3
2
2
1
1
2
1
1
2
1
1
2
2
1
2
1
1
2
1
1
2
1
2
1
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
2
3
1
2
2
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
Aug 09
June 04
June 04
June 04
June 04
June 04
June 04
June 05
June 05
June 05
June 05
June 05
June 05
June 05
June 05
June 05
June 05
June 06
June 06
June 06
June 06
June 06
June 06
June 06
June 06
June 06
June 07
June 07
June 07
June 07
June 07
June 07
June 07
June 07
June 08
June 08
June 08
June 08
June 08
June 08
June 09
June 09
June 09
June 09
June 09
June 09
June 09
#22
#16
#17
#18
#19
#20
#21
#16
#17
#18
#19
#20
#21
#22
#23
#24
#25
#16
#17
#18
#19
#20
#21
#22
#23
#25
#16
#17
#18
#19
#20
#21
#22
#23
#16
#17
#18
#19
#20
#21
#16
#17
#18
#19
#20
#21
#22
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
C
C
C
D
C
D
C
A
C
D
B
A
B
B
B
D
A
C
C
C
C
D
C
D
D
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF: 2
DIF: 1
REF: June 09 #23
REF: June 09 #24