FULL LENGTH TEST PAPERS
Total Marks: 200
No. of Questions: 120
Time Allowed: 2 hours
BIOLOGY
1.
Which of the following characteristics is NOT a plant characteristic?
(a) They are able to engage in locomotion by moving from place to place
(b) They use chlorophyll contained in chloroplasts
(c) They produce sugars and oxygen.
(d) They use carbon dioxide and water in photosynthesis
2.
Process of water excudation through hydathodes is called
(a) Guttation
(b) Transpiration
(c) Excretion
(d) Hydrolysis
3.
With increase in turgidity of a cell surrounded by water, the wall pressure will?
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Fluctuate
(d) Remain unchanged
4.
Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place through
(a) Xylem
(b) Phloem
(c) Parenchyma
(d) Active absorption
5.
Premature leaf fall occurs due to deficiency of:
(a) Calcium
(b) Iron
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Sulphur
6.
The organelle associated with photorespiration is called as:
(a) Lysosome
(b) Peroxisome
(c) Glyoxisome
(d) Mesosome
7.
In plants the peroxisomes are associated with:
(a) Phototropism
(b) Photorespiration
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Photoperiodism
8.
The disease characterized by polyneuritis was reported by:
(a) C-Funk
(b) Eijkman
(c) Hoffkin
(d) Evans
9.
Scurvy disease is caused due to deficiency of vitamin:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
10. If we take food rich in lime juice, then:
(a) Action of ptyalin on starch is enhanced
(b) Action of ptyalin on starch is reduced
(c) Action of ptyalin on starch is unaffected
(d) Action of ptyalin on starch stops
11. Animals are divided into which of the following two categories?
(a) single celled and multicelled
(b) autotrophic and heterotrophic
(c) mobile and immobile
(d) vertebrate and invertebrate
(d) C
12. Phylum Annelida contains which of the following animals?
(a) flatworms
(b) sponges
(c) round worms
(d) segmented worms
13. Once food reaches the cells, it is subjected to cellular respiration and what other two metabolic processes?
(a) circulation and breathing
(b) anabolism and catabolism
(c) integration and summation
(d) ingestion and inhalation
14. Xylem and phloem are plant tissues that
(a) produce sugar molecules and oxygen
(b) transport water and nutrients throughout the plant
(c) contain chloroplasts
(d) produce seeds
15. What are the two protein molecules responsible for the contraction of muscles?
(a) pepsin and insulin
(b) myosin and pepsin
(c) hemoglobin and insulin (d) myosin and actin
16. The pores on a plant leaf that allow for gas exchange are called
(a) alveoli.
(b) cell pores
(c) membrane gaps
(d) stomata
17. Which of the following is NOT one of the chambers in the four-chambered vertebrate heart?
(a) right atrium
(b) right ventricle
(c) left alveolar
(d) left ventricle
18. Platelets perform which of the following functions?
(a) blood clotting
(b) carrying oxygen
(c) carrying carbon dioxide (d) disease protection
19. The kidneys are responsible for filtering which of the following from the blood?
(a) undigested food
(b) metabolic wastes
(c) blood cells
(d) platelets
20. Wastes concentrated in the tubules of Bowman’s capsule are called
(a) urine
(b) salts
(c) nucleic acids
(d) amino acids.
21. Which of the following IS a part of the central nervous system?
(a) autonomic nerves
(b) sympathetic nerves
(c) peripheral nerves
(d) spinal cord nerves
22. Dendrites receive information from
(a) the axon of other neurons
(c) the cell body of other neurons
(b) the dendrites of other neurons
(d) the nucleus of other neurons
23. Which of the following is NOT true about irritability in living organisms?
(a) Plants do not respond to their environment
(b) Neurons are found in the brain
(c) Axons can be very long
(d) Neurons act upon muscles
24. Peristalsis is a process performed by which type of muscle tissue?
(a) catabolic
(b) cardiac
(c) smooth
(d) skeletal
25. What type of tissue is found at joints and protects bones from rubbing against each other and becoming
damaged?
(a) contractile
(b) connective
(c) conductive
(d) catabolic
PHYSICS
26. A photosensitive plate is irradiated from a distance of 1 m. The photoelectric current is 0.1 A. If the source
of radiations is brought nearer to a distance of 50 cm, the photoelectric current will be
(a) 0.8 A
(b) 0.1 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 0.4 A
27. Which conservation law is obeyed in Einstein’s photoelectric equation?
(a) momentum
(b) charge
(c) mass
(d) energy
28. Which of the following does not change, when a photon enters glass from air?
(a) wavelength
(b) energy
(c) velocity
(d) momentum
29. The velocities of two identical particles entering a uniform magnetic field are in the ratio 1 : 3.
Their path becomes circular in the magnetic field. The ratio of the radii of their circular paths will be
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 9 : 1
(c) 1 : 9
(d) 1 : 3
30. The magnetic lines of force like electrical lines of force
(a) are closed
(b) are not closed
(c) are open
(d) are not open
31. The magnetic property inherent in all materials is
(a) paramagnetism
(b) non-magnetism
(c) ferromagnetism (d) diamagnetism
32. The input and output voltage in a step down transformer are 22 kV and 550 V respectively. The ratio of
turns in secondary and primary coils will be
(a) 1 : 40
(b) 1 : 20
(c) 40 : 1
(d) 20 : 1
33. Energy in an inductance coil is stored in the form of
(a) light energy
(b) heat energy
(c) magnetic energy (d) electrical energy
34. The ozone layer in earth’s atmosphere is crucial for human survival because it
(a) reflects ultra violet rays
(b) reflects infra red rays
(c) reflects radio waves
(d) has ions
35. The charge per unit length for a very long straight wire is
outside it) and far from the ends varies with distance r as
(a) r
(b) 1/r
(c) 1/r2
(d) 1/r3
. The electric field at points near the wire (but
36. A metallic particle having no net charge in place near a finite metal plate carrying a positive charge. The
electric force on the particle will be
(a) towards the plate
(b) away from the plate
(c) parallel to the plate
(d) zero
37. 64 water drops having equal charges combine to form one bigger drop. The capacitance of bigger drop, as
compared to that of smaller drop will be
(a) 4 times
(b) 8 times
(c) 16 times
(d) 64 times
38. A primary cell has emf 2 volt. When short circuited it gives a current of 4 ampere. Its internal resistance in
ohms will be
(a) 8
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 0.5
39. An ideal current source shall have resistance
(a) zero
(b) finite but not zero
(c) infinite
(d) depends upon the requirement
40. If the two bulbs of 25 W and 100 W respectively, each rated at 220 volts are connected in series with the
supply of 440 volts. Which of the bulb will fuse?
(a) 100 W bulb
(b) 25 W bulb
(c) both of them
(d) none of them
41. Which of the following cannot be accelerated by a cyclotron?
(a) ion
(b) proton
(c) neutron
(d) -particle
42. The characteristic X-ray spectrum is
(a) line
(b) continuous
(c) neither line nor continuous (d) line of continuous
43. Which of the following solid is partly ionic and partly covalent crystal?
(a) sulphur
(b) diamond
(c) zinc
(d) none of these
44. In a communication system, noise is most likely to affect the signal
(a) at the transmitter
(b) in the channel or in the transmission line
(c) in the information source (d) at the receiver
45. Pre-emphasis is the term used in the transmitter
(a) to boost low frequencies (b) to boost high frequencies
(c) to boost middle frequencies (d) to boost any frequency
46.
The temperature of a gas is raised from 27°C to 927°C. The root mean square speed is
(a) times the earlier value (b) remains the same
(c) gets halved
(d) gets doubled
47.
Liquid is filled into a vessel which is kept in a room with, temperature 20°C. When the temperature of
the liquid is 80°C, then it loses heat at the rate of 60 cal/second. What will be the rate of loss of heat
when the temperature of the liquid is 40°C?
(a) 180 cal/s
(b) 40 cal/s
(c) 30 cal/s
(d) 20 cal/s
48.
At 0 K which of the following properties of a gas will be zero?
(a) kinetic energy
(b) potential energy
(c) vibrational energy (d) density
49.
A gas is being compressed adiabatically. The specific heat of the gas during compression is:
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) finite but non zero (d) undefined
50.
A particle reaches its highest point when it has covered exactly one half of its horizontal range. The
corresponding point on the displacement time graph is characterised by
(a) negative slope and zero curvature
(b) zero slope and negative curvature
(c) zero slope and positive curvature
(d) positive slope and zero curvature
CHEMISTRY
51. Haemoglobin is a chromo protein having 4 atoms of Fe in each molecule. Analysis showed 0.35% Fe
hence, molecular weight of haemoglobin is
(a) 13,000
(b) 23,000
(c) 33,000
(d) 43,000
52. The maximum number of alkenes with molecular formula C4H8 is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
53. How many conformers are there for ethane?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) infinite
54. The most reactive hydrocarbon is:
(a) Acetylene
(b) Methane
(d) Ethane
(c) Ethylene
55. Kerosene oil is a mixture of hydrocarbons in which the number of carbon atoms per molecule varies
from:
(a) 1 to 9
(b) 5 to 12
(c) 5 to 7
(d) 12 to 16
56. Tetrabromoethane on heating with Zn gives:
(a) ethyl bromide
(b) ethane
(c) ethyne
(d) ethene
57. Carbonyl chloride reacts with ammonia to give:
(a) cyanamide
(b) urea
(c) ammonium carbonate
(d) ammonium cyanate
58. Which of the following is formed when-ethyl carbonate reacts with ammonia?
(a) Urea
(b) Urea oxalate
(c) Ethyl cyanate
(d) Ethyl nitrate
59. Phenol is:
(a) slightly acidic
(c) strongly basic
(b) strongly acidic
(d) slightly basic
60. How many molecules of phenyl hydrazine are used up permolecule of glucose?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
61. A nanopeptide contains …… peptide linkages:
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 18
62. The maximum number of stereoisomers possible for 3-hydroxy-2-methyl butanoic acid is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
63. Which is easily oxidized?
(a) Alkene
(b) Alkane
(c) Benzene
(d) 1-alkyne
64. Which of the following is used as antiknocking material?
(a) T.E.L.
(b) C2H5OH
(c) Glyoxal
(d) Freon
65. Carbonyl chloride reacts with ammonia to give:
(a) cyanamide
(b) urea
(c) ammonium carbonate
(d) ammonium cyanate
66. Which of the following is formed when-ethyl carbonate reacts with ammonia?
(a) Urea
(b) Urea oxalate
(c) Ethyl cyanate
(d) Ethyl nitrate
67. On heating, salicylic acid with acetic anhydride in presence of small quantity of conc. H2SO4, results in
the formation of a:
(a) Explosive
(b) Drug
(c) Resin
(d) Dye
68. cane sugar is converted into a mixture of glucose and fructose by:
(a) Zymase
(b) Maltase
(c) Mannase
(d) Intertase
69. Which substance chars when heated with conc. H2SO4:
(a) protein
(b) hydrocarbon
(c) fat
(d) carbohydrate
70. Water insoluble component of starch is:
(a) amylopectin
(b) amylose
(c) cellulose
(d) None of these
71. A sample of diesel has the same knocking characteristic as a 60 ml mixture of cetane and
naphthalene mixed in 2:! Ration (V/V). What is the cetane number of the diesel sample?
(a) 56.6
(b) 66.6
(c) 76.6
(d) 86.6
-methyl
72. The compound which on reaction with aqueous nitrous acid at low temperature produces an oily
nitrosoamine is
(a) methylamine
(b) ethylamine
(c) diethylamine
(d) triethylamine
73. Which one of the following is not present in RNA?
(a) Ribose
(b) Thymine
(c) Uracil
(d) Phosphate
74. Which of the following analgesics is not habit forming?
(a) Morphine
(b) Aleroin
(c) Aspirin
(d) Codein
75. Which of the following is analgesic:
(a) streptomycin
(b) penicillin
(c) chloramphenicol (d) paracetamol
GENERAL ABILITY
ENGLISH
Directions: In each of the following sentences certain parts have been underlined and marked A, B and C.
One of these underlined parts may contain an error or may not be acceptable in standard written
communication. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error in any of the parts, mark ‘D’ (No error) as
your answer.
76. I never remember to have met this gentleman
A
B
C
in Baroda. No error
D
77. Whether you agree or not I have to send you
A
B
C
at Bombay. No error
D
Directions: In each problem below, either part or all of the sentence is underlined. The sentence is followed by
different ways of writing the underlined part. Answer choice (a) repeats the original; the other answers vary. If
you think that the original phrasing is best, choose (a). If you think one of the other answer choices is the best,
select that option.
Note: This section tests the candidates ability to recognise correct and effective expression. Follow the
requirements of standard written English: grammar, choice of words, and entence construction. Choose the
answer that gives the nearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning of the original sentence.
78. The more they earn, more they spend.
(a) more they earn, more they spend
(b) the more they earn, the more they spend
(c) more they earn, the more they spend
(d) no improvement
79. He failed in his attempt to disperse the mob before the miscreants sets the fire on the bus.
(a) set the bus on fire
(b) setting fire on the bus
(c) set fire on the bus
(d) set the fire on to the bus
Synonyms
80. Contraband
(a) excluded by law
(c) illegal traffic
(b) prohibited
(d) royal
81. Doltish
(a) hardworking
(c) intelligent
(b) stupid
(d) careful
(e) smuggled goods
Antonyms
82. Penchant
(a) disinclination
(c) directness
(b) lone
(d) lack of skill
83. Knotty
(a) easy
(c) intricate
(b) involved
(d) assuming
Fill in the Blanks
84. When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was _______.
(a) inevitable
(b) infallible
(c) essential
(d) undeniable
85. He is an ________of high character. He is honest and truthful.
(a) evocation
(b) establishment
(c) embodiment
(d) enlargement
G.K.
86.
The constitution of India consists of:
(a) The Preamble
(b) Parts I-XXII, Covering Articles 1-450
(c) Schedules 1-12 and the Appendix
(d) All the above
87.
How can a citizen protect his Fundamental Rights?
(a) By approaching the President of India
(b) By a writ in the Supreme Court of India
(c) Through police action
(d) They are already protected
88.
The salary of the President of India has been raised to
(a) Rs 35,000
(b) Rs 25,000
(c) Rs 50,000
(d) Rs 1,00,000
89.
What is the minimum age prescribed for a candidate for election of Vice President of India?
(a) 31 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 21 years
90.
Which of the following types of bills can become law despite disapproval by the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Finance Bill
(b) Bills relating to social reforms
(c) Bills relating to Concurrent List
(d) Constitutional Amendment Bill
91.
To be eligible to become a judge of a High Court, the candidate should be a
(a) practising advocate of 5 years in a Sessions Court
(b) practising advocate of 5 years in a High Court
(c) practising advocate of 10 years in a High Court
(d) practising advocate of 5 years in Supreme Court
92.
How many languages are recognized as regional languages in the Constitution?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 18
93.
What is the elective strength of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 525
(b) 450
(c) 545
94.
First national emergency proclaimed in India was in
(a) 1962
(b) 1966
(c) 1978
(d) 1987
95.
What is the salary of the Chief Justice of India?
(a) Rs 25,000
(b) Rs 30,000
(c) Rs 33,000
(d) Rs 60,000
(d) 548
REASONING
96. Group the following figures into three classes on the basis of identical properties:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1, 2, 3; 4, 5, 8; 6, 7, 9
1, 5, 6; 2, 3, 4; 7, 8, 9
1, 3, 5; 2, 4, 8; 6, 7, 9
1, 4, 7; 2, 5, 8; 3, 6, 9
97. Figure (X) given to the left in the following question, is folded to form a box. Choose from amongst the
alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4), the boxes that are similar to the box formed.
(a) A only
(c) A and C only
(b) B only
(d) A, B, C and D
Directions: In Question nos. 98 to 100: The following questions are based on the alphabets written along the
figure given below. In each question, the relationship between the two terms written to left of the sign (: :), is
retained in the two terms written to the right of it. However, out of the four terms, one is missing. Choose this
term out of the given alternatives.
98. PEKA : MIKB : : NDKC : ?
(a) LAKB
(c) OFKD
(b) OIKE
(d) LHKG
99. JDME : AGBL : : FENA : ?
(a) AFEP
(c) BHCM
(b) EJDO
(d) DICN
100. LJDC : AIDE : : OHBA : ?
(a) EHCD
(c) DGBC
(b) CFED
(d) HBAF
ANSWER KEYS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
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20.
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
21.
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35.
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40.
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
41.
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48.
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60.
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
61.
62.
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80.
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a,b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
81.
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100.
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)