How did Kant define Enlightenment? Use Kant’s definition to discuss whether either Rousseau or Marx is an Enlightenment figure. In other words, choose one of the following comparisons to write about: Kant compared to Rousseau, OR Kant compared to Marx. Kant defined Enlightenment as man’s emergence from his self-incurred immaturity, where immaturity is defined as the inability to use one’s own understanding without the guidance of another. He went further to argue that this immaturity is self-incurred if its cause is not lack of understanding, but lack of resolution and courage to use it without the guidance of another. He supplements his definition with the motto “Sapere aude!” (Dare to know) [1 p1]. Reading through Kant’s essay it is possible to find evidence to support the notion that Rousseau is an Enlightenment figure. In ‘daring to know’ Kant rejects any value of ‘a book to have understanding in place of me’ meaning he would ‘need not make any efforts at all’ when thinking about the world [1 p1]. Rousseau’s writings are a critique of both Enlightenment and counter Enlightenment thinking and thus challenge the thinking of his readers, Kant included. For instance Rousseau’s agrees that the Enlightenment is an emergence, writing ‘it is a great and beautiful spectacle to see a man emerging from oblivion of his own by his own efforts’, these efforts being his ability to reason, but he sees the rewards as being false in the form of manners and appearance which separate man from his true nature where there are no sincere friendships, no real esteem and no well-founded trusts [2 p3, p5]. This viewpoint would run against that of Kant but in doing so would create ‘the effort’ that Kant demands from books. Kant would no doubt appreciate the opportunity to criticise Rousseau’s conclusions but at the same time admire those conclusions as coming from a mind which has the ‘freedom to make public use of one's reason in all matters.’ [1 p2]. It is the need for freedom where Kant and Rousseau agree. Rousseau’s complaint in the first discourse [2] is that arts and sciences remove man from his natural state and thus curtail his freedoms, whilst in the second discourse [3] he argues that this separation from nature has created the source of inequality, particularly from the point where man develops a sense of ownership of property. For Kant however freedom to use reason as a public tool, in other words to publish and disseminate ideas, is the freedom which counts and is the source of enlightenment. Rousseau’s writings meet the standards that Kant applies to the public use of reason [1 p2]. Rousseau’s voice is the voice of a learned man publicly expressing his views on social impropriety and injustice. He meets the test of being a scholar, who is completely free as well as obliged to impart to the public all his carefully considered, well-intentioned thoughts on the mistaken aspects of those doctrines which he stands against. Neither Kant nor Rousseau believe they are living in an enlightened age but Kant argues that they are living in an age of enlightenment [1 p3]. I would conclude from the arguments that I have laid out above, that Rousseau is a writer who both challenges his readers and is an example of a public use of reason, that Kant would view Rousseau as being a figure of the Enlightenment. 1. 2. 3. Immanuel Kant, ‘An Answer to the Question “What is Enlightenment?”’ http://ebooks.gutenberg.us/WorldeBookLibrary.com/whatenli.htm Jean-Jacques Rousseau ‘Discourse on the Arts and Sciences’. http://ebooks.adelaide.edu.au/r/rousseau/jean_jacques/arts/ Jean-Jacques Rousseau ‘A Discourse on Inequality’. Penguin Classics. London.
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