M 48 Coimisiún na Scrúduithe Stáit State Examinations Commission Leaving Certificate Examination 2006 HOME ECONOMICS – SCIENTIFIC AND SOCIAL HIGHER LEVEL Marking Scheme / Summarised Exemplar Answers 280/320 MARKS Instructions to Candidates Section A There are twelve questions in this section. Candidates are required to answer any ten questions. Section B There are five questions in this section. Candidates are required to answer Question 1 and any other two questions. Section C There are three questions in this section. Candidates are required to answer one elective question to include part (a) and either part (b) or part (c). Candidates who submitted Textiles, Fashion and Design coursework for examination may only attempt Question 2 from this section. Electives 1 and 3 are worth 80 marks each. Elective 2 is worth 40 marks. 1 Section A Answer any 10 questions from this section. Each question is worth 6 marks. Write your answers in the spaces provided. 1. Explain each of the following and give one source in each case. (6) Expect 2 explanations @ 2 marks each Expect 2 sources @ 1 mark each (i) Cis fatty acid In cis fatty acids the hydrogen atoms are on the same side of the double bond. Source Cooking oils. Oily fish etc. (ii) Trans fatty acid In trans fatty acids the two hydrogen atoms are on the opposite of the double bond. Source Hard margarines, fat over used in deep fat fryer etc. 2. What is Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)? (3) The energy needed to sustain the body when at complete rest. List three factors that affect energy requirements. (3) (i) Age, Gender, Pregnancy, Illness (ii) Body weight/s, Climate, Metabolic rate (iii) Occupation/Physical activity. 3. Define Coeliac condition. (3) Intolerance to gluten,life-long condition whereby gluten damages the lining of the small intestine, villi are not able to absorb adequate nutrients from food. Name three foods which should be avoided by a person with coeliac condition. (i) bread, cakes, biscuits (ii) pastries, pizzas, pies (iii) processed foods – sausages, certain soups, sauces and gravies etc. 2 (3) 4. Explain two factors that contribute to the spoilage of fish. (6) 2 factors @ 3 marks each (i) Oxidative rancidity – fish reacts with 02 in the air. (ii) Bacterial action – Fish struggle when caught and use up all glycogen stores. Glycogen normally converts to lactic acid which is a preservative and because of its absence fish go off quickly. Bacteria work on the flesh producing trimethylamine which is a strong smelling nitrogen compound. • 5. Enzymic activity – Enzymes cause deterioration even at low temperatures Identify and explain two EU grading classes used for fruit and vegetables. (i) Extra class – Superior quality, free from defects in shape, size and colour (ii) Class I – Good quality, free from bruising. • • (4) Class II – Reasonably good quality, with slight defects in shape and colouring Class III– Lower but marketable quality, with slight blemishes. What does this symbol convey to the consumer? (2) Radura symbol – Indicates that food has undergone irradiation 6. Classify soups and give one example of each class. Classification 2@ 2 (6) Example 2@1 Thin soups Clear Soup Broth Puréed Soup Thick soups 3 7. List five conditions required for the growth of moulds. (6) Award 2 marks for first correct answer and 1 mark for each of the others (i) Food (ii) Warmth (iii) Moisture (iv) Oxygen (v) PH, • 8. 9. Time Name two commercial methods of freezing and suggest a food suitable for each method. (6) Method of freezing 2@ 2 Food 2@1 Plate freezing Flow freezing Blast freezing Cryogenic freezing Flat pieces of meat and fish Peas Fruit and vegetables Delicately flavoured foods e.g. strawberries and prawns What is Supplementary Welfare Allowance? (6) 2 points @ 3 marks each Administered by the Health Boards. Paid to individuals whose means are insufficient to meet their needs and the needs of their dependents. Temporary allowance paid out to individuals who are awaiting other benefits e.g. One-Parent family payment. 10. In relation to Insurance explain the following: (6) 2 @ 3 marks each Broker An agent who advises on aspects of insurance. Premium The sum of money paid annually or by instalments to the Insurance company. 4 11. 12. List three functions of the Office of Consumer Affairs. 3 @ 2 marks each (i) To encourage high advertising standards and investigate complaints (ii) To provide consumers information regarding their rights (iii) To investigate unfair and illegal trading practices (a) (6) • To guarantee that products sold in Ireland conform to Irish safety standards • To ensure that food labels supply all the legally required information • To prosecute offences under the Consumer Information Act 1978 • To advise Government on consumer issues • Publish annual report Identify two safety considerations that should be considered when selecting textiles for household purposes. (4) 2 @ 2 marks each (i) Avoid loosely spun yarns or yarns with a raised or pile surface as they ignite very easily. (ii) Fabrics made from mixture or blends of man-made and natural fibres burn more quickly than those made of the component fibres. (b) • Synthetic foam should be avoided as gases released from the foam ignite and engulf a room in flames. They can also produce toxic fumes • Select flame retardant fabrics – coated fabrics or Inherent flame-retardant fabrics • Check labels for information e.g. Combustion Modified High Resilient filling (CMHR) Name one fire-retardant finish used on household furnishings. Pyrovatex, Proban etc. 5 (2) Section B Answer Question 1 and any other two questions from this section. Question 1 is worth 80 marks. Questions 2, 3, 4 and 5 are worth 50 marks each. 1. (a) Agricultural Statistics Human Meat Consumption 2002 Using the information provided in the chart comment on consumer trends in meat consumption. Suggest reasons for such trends. 4 points @ 5 marks each Pig meat – Highest consumption mainly due to variety of pork products e.g. ham, bacon, sausages, pork chops etc. Poultry meat – 2nd most popular meat. Comparatively cheap. Variety of poultry – turkey, chicken, duck. Versatile recipes can be used. Suitable for low fat diets etc. Beef and veal – Not very popular- consumed by less than 20%. Comparatively expensive. Fear of CJD infection. Recipes using cheaper cuts not fashionable. High in saturated fats etc. Sheep meat – Not a popular meat. Comparatively expensive. High fat content on some cuts. Flavour not always popular etc. Other meats – Not popular, may include venison, rabbit etc. Not readily available, may be expensive etc. (b) 20 Name two proteins present in meat. 2 proteins @ 3 marks each Collagen, Elastin, Myosin, Albumin, Globulin, Gelatin, Actin (c) Marks 80 Explain (i) high biological protein 2 points @ 3 marks each marks = 6 Contain all the essential amino acids and are generally obtained from animal sources (ii) essential amino acid. 2 points @ 3 marks each marks = 6 Cannot be manufactured by the body so must be obtained from food. 6 6 12 (d) Describe (i) the primary structure and (ii) the secondary structure of protein. Primary Structure - 3 points @ 4 marks each 12 Refers to the sequence order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. Chain is formed by peptide links. Amino acids join together releasing water. Primary Structure The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. -Ala-Ser-Val-Tyr-Gly-Val-Ser-Cys-Ile-Ala-Val-Ser- 12 Secondary Structure - 3 points @ 4 marks each In the polypeptide chain the amino acids are further linked by various bonds to give protein a definite shape which is often in the form of a spiral. There are a number of ways that the links can occur between polypeptide chains. The following are 2 such examples: Disulphide links: This happens when two sulphurs join for example, two cysteine amino acids (cysteine contains an SH group) link together. This can take place on the one polypeptide chain or bringing together two polypeptide chains. Hydrogen bonds: Polypeptide chains can also be linked by hydrogen bonds – the H in one chain and the oxygen in a neighbouring chain. Collagen is an example where polypeptide chains are linked by hydrogen bonds. Salt bonds. 7 (e) Identify and explain six key factors that a consumer should consider when purchasing protein foods to ensure economy and safety. 6 factors @ 3 marks each ( at least 1 to refer to economy and1 to refer to safety and any 4 others) Economy: Cheaper cuts of meat are just as nutritious as expensive cuts. Eggs and cheese are cheap protein foods. Fish when in season is usually cheaper. Vegetable protein e.g. beans and peas are cheap and can be used in recipes to increase protein value. Own brands and special offers / 2 for the price of 1 etc. Safety: Buy protein foods e.g. fish and meat from a reliable source. Check for proper hygiene in shops (HACCP). Ensure that foods are stored in shop at correct temperature. Look at use-by date on packaged protein foods. Ensure that cooked protein foods and raw protein foods are not stored side by side. Quality assured, Labels, traceability, Undamaged packaging etc. 8 18 2. More than one in three Irish women do not get enough calcium. (a) State: (i) Marks 50 four possible ill-effects of a diet deficient in calcium 4 ill-effects @ 3 marks each = 12 12 (Allow max of 2 bone diseases) Rickets and osteomalacia, osteoporosis, tooth decay, poor blood clotting, irregularity in muscle contractions, poor functioning of nerve cells. (ii) the recommended daily allowance (RDA) of calcium for (a) adults and (b) pregnant women. 6 2 @ 3 marks each Adults = 800 mg (b) Pregnant women = 1200mg Give details of the stages involved in the manufacture of yoghurt. 5 stages @ 4 marks each (must refer to culture) 20 Milk is homogenised and pasteurised, culture-lactobacillus bulgaricus is added to milk, incubated for 6-8 hours, lactose changes to lactic acid, milk proteins coagulate and thicken yoghurt, cooled, flavours etc. added, packaged. (c) Outline the measures taken by the Dairy Industry to meet the current trends in eating patterns and lifestyle of the Irish consumer. 4 measures @ 3 marks each Introduction of fortified foods, functional foods, extended shelf life, low fat products, detailed labelling, individually wrapped portions suitable for snacks/lunches e.g. cheese etc. Added value foods e.g. grated cheese. Extensively processed foods e.g. garlic butter, whipped cream etc. 9 12 3. (a) “Sales of pre-prepared convenience foods are rocketing as consumers find that their time is being eaten away by the faster pace of modern life” Consumer Choice Marks 50 Outline the range of processed foods available and discuss the merits of including processed foods in the modern diet. Range: 4 @ 2 marks each Range: Frozen, canned, dried, instant – ready to eat, cook-chill etc. 8 Merits: 4 @ 4 marks each Merits: Saves time, labour and fuel. Little skill required. Add variety to diet. Consistent quality. Can be fortified. Little or no waste. Useful in emergencies etc. 16 (b) Name and state the function of two different types of physical conditioning agents used in processed foods. (Name = 4 marks; Function = 5 marks) x 2 18 Emulsifier: Thickens mayonnaise and sauces. Stabiliser: Prevents emulsions from separating. Polyphosphate: Prevents lumping in cake mixes Pectin: Aids setting in jams Humectant: Prevents confectionary/sweets from drying out. Absorbs water from the air Anti foaming agents: Prevent scum and froth on boiling Anti spattering agents: Keep water droplets apart in cooking oils Buffers: Used to maintain pH at required level Packaging gas: Inert gas sealed into sachet foods to replace air and to prevent oxidation Release agents: Coatings on foods to prevent them from sticking together Anti Caking: Prevents lumps forming in packaged powdered foods (c) Explain how European Union law regulates the use of food additives. 2 accurate facts @ 4 marks each List of approved additives assigned E numbers. Under law every product has to be tested. Must not alter nutrient content of food. Cannot disguise faulty processing. Must not present hazard to health of consumer. Must not mislead consumer. Use of colourings, antioxidants and sweeteners not permitted in baby foods etc. 10 8 4. Colm and Jane Brown live with their two teenagers – David aged fifteen and Yvonne aged seventeen. Monday is a hectic day in the household. Colm leaves for work at 7.30 am and returns at 5.30 pm. Jane works from 9.00am to 4.00pm. David and Yvonne have training for the local swimming team from 4.30pm to 5.30pm. Yvonne also goes to guitar lessons at 6.30pm. As they live in a rural area transport is necessary for all activities. The family try to apply a management system to ensure that everything runs smoothly. (a) Marks 50 Explain why a good management system can contribute to a well run home and the well being of all family members. 4 points @ 4 marks each 16 Family group use a system of collective decision-making. A good management system meets the demands of and controls family situations. It uses all available resources – family members, time, etc. It involves skills such as organising, scheduling, analysing, negotiating, reaching agreement and communicating. It benefits all family members. Prevents conflict, stress, fatigue. It allows for the unexpected. It can be evaluated and altered if needed. Improves the quality of family life. (b) Using the components of management (inputs, throughputs and outputs) explain how the Brown family could apply a management system to ensure that Mondays run smoothly in the household. 6 @ 3 marks each- at least1 point under each heading ( must relate to information in statement at beginning of question) 18 Inputs – Outline the goals for the day. What demands have to be met? What resources –time, human, transport etc. are available? Throughputs – Plan the day. Organise what has to be done. Allow for unforeseen situations. Put into action. Outputs – Were the goals achieved? Did the day run smoothly? Were there any hitches? What changes would be made for the following Monday? (c) Give details of four consumer responsibilities. 4 @ 4 marks each 16 Ensure they are well informed. Understand Consumer protection laws. Read all labels Read and follow instructions carefully. Complain about poor-quality or unsafe goods and services. Seek redress. To protect the environment by using resources carefully etc. 11 5. According to the Irish Constitution (Article 41 ) the State recognises the family as the natural, primary and fundamental unit group of Society. (The Irish Constitution) (a) Identify and describe three types of modern family structures in today’s society. 3 @ 6 marks each Marks 50 18 Nuclear – Parents and children Extended – Parents, children, grandparents, aunts, uncles etc. Lone-parent – One parent, usually female with children, Blended/Reconstituted – composed of children and some combination of biological and step parents, arises as a result of re-marriage. (b) Discuss the effects of (i) social changes and (ii) economic changes on modern family structures. 6 effects @ 4 marks each ( 2 to refer to social changes and 2 to refer to economic changes) 24 Social Changes Decline in the extended family, urbanisation, equality of women and dual career, separation and divorce- more lone parent and blended family structures, relaxation on traditional segregated roles, increased leisure time, stay at home fathers, smaller families, anti social behaviour etc. Economic Changes Increasing cost of family home requiring both parents to work, state support for the elderly thus less dependence on family, state benefits for lone-parents, both parents working with greater demand for childcare, career prospects often mean moving home, higher standards of living, costs of education etc. (c) Set out the conditions required for granting a divorce under Family Law (Divorce) Act 1996. 2 conditions @ 4 marks each (mandatory) Parties must have lived apart for four out of five previous years. No prospect of reconciliation, financial provision made for spouse and dependents, solicitors acting on behalf of each spouse are obliged to discuss any possibilities for reconciliation. 12 8 Section C Answer one elective question from this section. Candidates who submitted Textiles, Fashion and Design coursework for examination may only attempt Question 2. Marks 80 Elective 1 – Home Design and Management (80 marks) Candidates selecting this elective must answer 1 (a) and either 1 (b) or 1 (c). 1. (a) Reduced fossil fuel supplies together with changing trends in modern housing developments, have led the consumer to investigate alternative methods of heating the home. (i) Identify three heating options available for the modern home. 3 heating options @ 3 marks each 9 Full central heating, partial central heating, background heating, local heating, passive solar heating etc. (ii) Explain the factors which should be considered when choosing a heating system for a family home. 4 factors @ 5 marks each 20 Cost, safety, space heating requirements, convenience, aesthetic appeal, environmental factors. Water heating included. (iii) Set out details of one domestic central heating system you have studied. Include reference to: (a) fuel/energy source, = 3 marks (b) heating principle, 3 points @ 4 marks each= 12 (c) efficiency and convenience, 2 @ 3 marks = 6 Wet system/small bore system/indirect system: Water is heated in a boiler by convection. Water expands, rises and assisted by a pump is carried to all the radiators in the house. Individual radiators heat the rooms by radiation and convection. Dry system/under-floor heating/storage heating: Electrical elements are embedded in thermal blocks of fireclay or concrete which are surrounded by insulating material. These elements are switched on at off-peak periods at night and the blocks heat up. The radiators or floor gradually release heat during the day. Most systems have an afternoon boost of heat option. Some heat is radiated and most heat is transferred by convection. Solar heating: Solar collectors absorb sunlight and convert sunlight into heat. The system uses mechanical devises such as pumps and fans to move heat from collectors to storage and then to use. The heat is transferred by convection around each room. 13 21 1. (b) (i) and Discuss how aesthetic and environmental factors influence the design of modern housing. 16 4 factors @ 4 marks each ( at least 1 reference to aesthetic and 1 to environmental) Compatibility with surrounding environment, introducing plenty of light, consideration of the elements and principles of design, avoiding use of synthetic building materials and using natural materials, consideration to aspect of sun and prevailing wind, etc. (ii) Explain how house-building standards are regulated. Refer to at least two different methods. 2 methods @ 7 marks each (Name = 3 marks: Explanation = 4 marks) 14 Building Regulations Act 1991 – sets out rules in relation to areas of house building to include:Design and construction standards, insulation, structural stability, drainage and sewage scheme, chimney flues and hearths, ventilation, fire and weather resistance, light and heating. Homebond – Operated by the National House Building Guarantee Company and the Department of the Environment and Local Government. Builders are issued with a Homebond certificate if above are satisfied with work. The certificate is a 10 year guarantee against any major structural faults. Or 1. (c) Good lighting is an essential part of successful interior design. (i) Describe three properties of light. 3 properties @ 4 marks each (Name = 2 marks; description = 2 marks) 12 Reflected – rays of light bounce off a shiny surface Refracted – rays of light bend when they pass through thick or ridged glass Diffused – rays of light are scattered when they pass through translucent substances or hit in a non reflecting surface Absorbed – Dark and mat surfaces absorb light rays Dispersed – rays of light that pass through a prism or crystal break down into their component colours. (ii) Identify two types of contemporary lighting and in each case evaluate its use in interior design. Expect 2 types @ 9 marks each (type = 3 marks, evaluate: 2 points @ 3 marks each = 6) x 2 Central lights – central, semi-flush and flush pendant, chandelier, rise and fall Wall brackets – picture lights, swivel lights Free standing lamps – table/floor lamps, pivot action, flexible stem, touch, uplighter/downlighter Ceiling lights – eyeball sockets, track, recessed Furniture lighting – light emitted diode (LED), cluster tables Novelty lighting – fibre optic lighting, fairy lights, computer aided lights, rope lighting. Low voltage, Halogen, CFLS etc. 14 18 Marks 40 Elective 2 – Textiles, Fashion and Design (40 marks) Candidates selecting this elective must answer 2(a) and either 2 (b) or 2 (c) 2. (a) Well designed clothes should be pleasing to the eye, functional, take account of the elements and principles of design and be comfortable to wear. (i) Sketch an outfit that reflects current fashion trends, suitable for wear to a school graduation. Indicate how three principles of design have been applied in the design of the outfit. Sketch = 6 marks 3 principles @ 2 marks each = 6 Balance, Proportion, Emphasis, Rhythm (ii) 12 Profile a fabric made from manufactured fibres under the following headings: • • • fibre production = 5 marks (Name = 1 mark: Production - Expect 2 points @ 2 marks each) fabric properties = 4 marks ( Expect 2 points @ 2 marks each) fibre identification test = 4 marks 13 ( Expect 2 points @ 2 marks each) Production - Nylon filament is made from oil or coal. Chemicals (monomers) are mixed and heated and melted to form nylon polymer. The liquid is pumped through a spinneret and cooled to form long fibres which are conditioned and wound on to a spool. and 2. (b) Irish men have become increasingly fashion conscious in recent years. Discuss some of the changing trends in men’s fashion and suggest reasons for these developments. 3 trends @ 3 marks each = 9 3reasons @ 2 marks each = 6 Casual look, rock-star style, sportswear, more varied colour etc. 15 or 2. (c) (i) Name and describe one colour application method and one design application method suitable for cotton fabric. Colour application = 5 marks (Name = 2 marks: description = 3 marks) Disperse Dyeing, Acid Dyeing, Printing, Tie Dye, Batik etc. Design application = 5 marks (Name = 2 marks: description = 3 marks) Applique, Quilting, Embroidery. Smocking, Screen printing, Roller printing, Embossing (ii) Assess the role of accessories in completing an outfit. To draw attention to an area. To brighten up an outfit. To modernise an outfit, To balance colour. To enhance the appearance etc. 15 10 etc 5 Elective 3 – Social Studies (80 marks) Candidates selecting this elective must answer 3 (a) and either 3 (b) or 3(c) 3. Marks 80 (a) While Ireland has become increasingly wealthy in recent years, it still has one of the highest levels of income inequality in the EU. (i) Define each of the following: (a) Relative Poverty (b) Absolute Poverty. 2 definitions @ 5 marks each 10 Relative poverty: People living below what society recognises as a basic standard of living. Absolute poverty: People may not be able to physically survive due to lack of food, shelter and clothing. (ii) Discuss the reasons why poverty continues to be a feature of modern society, In your answer include reference to the cycle of poverty and the influence of social policy on poverty. 4 points @ 6 marks each (1 point must refer to the cycle of poverty and 1 point must refer to the influence of social policy) 24 Low wages for unskilled workers, lack of educational qualifications, long term unemployment, unequal distribution of wealth and resources, addictions, inability to manage money, social welfare system inadequate, failure of government to have an effective policy on alleviating poverty, financial deprivation, disadvantaged areas, high cost of housing, increase in the number of single parents etc. Cycle of poverty – Children from lower socio-economic families generally do not get the same opportunities, and place less importance on education, than the children from the better off in society. They end up unemployed or in low-paid jobs and have their own children who are born into the perpetual cycle of poverty etc. Social Policy on Poverty – Wages, Unemployment benefits, Employment opportunities. Social policy can perpetuate poverty as some believe that the benefits are generous and therefore there is little incentive to seek employment etc. (iii) Give an account of two statutory initiatives aimed specifically at eliminating poverty in Ireland. 2 initiatives @ 8 marks each (Name = 4 marks: Account = 4 marks) x 2 Rent allowance, Family income supplement, Fuel scheme, Clothing and footwear allowance, Refund on prescriptive drugs, Jobstart, Back to work allowance, Supplementary Welfare allowance, Medical cards. Fás, Back to Education Allowance (BTEA), NAPS – National Anti Poverty Strategy Combat Poverty Agency MABS – Free confidential advisory service, primarily to low income families who are in debt or at risk of getting into debt etc. 16 16 and 3. (b) “Almost 60% of the Irish population now live in urban areas” (i) Discuss how changes in settlement patterns from rural to urban areas has impacted on family life. 3 points @ 6 marks each Sporting clubs in rural areas may find difficulty in recruiting members. Businesses may close down in rural areas e.g. post offices. Fewer employment opportunities as shortage of labour can be a negative factor. Greater choice and range of services in urban areas. Facilities for leisure and entertainment are closer in urban areas. Overcrowded schools and hospitals in urban areas. Pollution. Crime. Inadequate play areas etc. (ii) 18 Comment on the efforts being made by the Government to reverse this trend and halt population decline in rural areas. 2 efforts/ initiatives @ 6 marks each 12 Decentralisation of Government departments, Rural resettlement schemes, Building new industries in rural areas. Better transport system. Better roads and infrastructure etc. or 3. (c) (i) Name and describe two contemporary initiatives which aim to improve the accessibility of education. . 2 initiatives @ 9 marks each (Name = 3 marks; description = 2 points @ 3 marks each marks) x 2 18 LCA, LCVP, Learning Support Teachers, PLCs, VTOS, Traveller Training Centres, Youthreach, Special Needs assistants, Homework clubs, Fás, Transport, Additional resources e.g. laptops etc. BTEA, Visiting teacher service etc. (ii) Outline the measures taken to alleviate gender inequity in education. 3 measures @ 4 marks each Improved participation rates of girls in science subjects, Subject syllabii are gender neutral, Textbooks are less stereotypical. Broader range of subjects in single-sex schools, Understanding Masculinities Programme, SPHE – Issues of gender etc. 17 12
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