2006 - PDST

M 48
Coimisiún na Scrúduithe Stáit
State Examinations Commission
Leaving Certificate Examination 2006
HOME ECONOMICS – SCIENTIFIC AND SOCIAL
HIGHER LEVEL
Marking Scheme / Summarised
Exemplar Answers
280/320 MARKS
Instructions to Candidates
Section A
There are twelve questions in this section.
Candidates are required to answer any ten questions.
Section B
There are five questions in this section.
Candidates are required to answer Question 1 and any other two questions.
Section C
There are three questions in this section.
Candidates are required to answer one elective question to include
part (a) and either part (b) or part (c).
Candidates who submitted Textiles, Fashion and Design coursework for
examination may only attempt Question 2 from this section.
Electives 1 and 3 are worth 80 marks each. Elective 2 is worth 40 marks.
1
Section A
Answer any 10 questions from this section.
Each question is worth 6 marks.
Write your answers in the spaces provided.
1.
Explain each of the following and give one source in each case.
(6)
Expect 2 explanations @ 2 marks each
Expect 2 sources @ 1 mark each
(i) Cis fatty acid In cis fatty acids the hydrogen atoms are on
the same side of the double bond.
Source Cooking oils. Oily fish etc.
(ii) Trans fatty acid In trans fatty acids the two hydrogen atoms are on the opposite
of the double bond.
Source Hard margarines, fat over used in deep fat fryer etc.
2.
What is Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)?
(3)
The energy needed to sustain the body when at complete rest.
List three factors that affect energy requirements.
(3)
(i) Age, Gender, Pregnancy, Illness
(ii) Body weight/s, Climate, Metabolic rate
(iii) Occupation/Physical activity.
3.
Define Coeliac condition.
(3)
Intolerance to gluten,life-long condition whereby gluten damages the lining of the small
intestine, villi are not able to absorb adequate nutrients from food.
Name three foods which should be avoided by a person with coeliac condition.
(i)
bread, cakes, biscuits
(ii) pastries, pizzas, pies
(iii) processed foods – sausages, certain soups, sauces and gravies etc.
2
(3)
4.
Explain two factors that contribute to the spoilage of fish.
(6)
2 factors @ 3 marks each
(i)
Oxidative rancidity – fish reacts with 02 in the air.
(ii)
Bacterial action – Fish struggle when caught and use up all glycogen stores. Glycogen
normally converts to lactic acid which is a preservative and because of its absence
fish go off quickly. Bacteria work on the flesh producing trimethylamine which is a
strong smelling nitrogen compound.
•
5.
Enzymic activity – Enzymes cause deterioration even at low temperatures
Identify and explain two EU grading classes used for fruit and vegetables.
(i)
Extra class – Superior quality, free from defects in shape, size and colour
(ii)
Class I – Good quality, free from bruising.
•
•
(4)
Class II – Reasonably good quality, with slight defects in shape and colouring
Class III– Lower but marketable quality, with slight blemishes.
What does this symbol convey to the consumer?
(2)
Radura symbol – Indicates that food has undergone irradiation
6.
Classify soups and give one example of each class.
Classification
2@ 2
(6)
Example
2@1
Thin soups
Clear Soup
Broth
Puréed Soup
Thick soups
3
7.
List five conditions required for the growth of moulds.
(6)
Award 2 marks for first correct answer and 1 mark for each of the others
(i)
Food
(ii)
Warmth
(iii)
Moisture
(iv)
Oxygen
(v)
PH,
•
8.
9.
Time
Name two commercial methods of freezing and suggest a food suitable for each method. (6)
Method of freezing
2@ 2
Food
2@1
Plate freezing
Flow freezing
Blast freezing
Cryogenic freezing
Flat pieces of meat and fish
Peas
Fruit and vegetables
Delicately flavoured foods e.g.
strawberries and prawns
What is Supplementary Welfare Allowance?
(6)
2 points @ 3 marks each
Administered by the Health Boards. Paid to individuals whose means are insufficient to
meet their needs and the needs of their dependents. Temporary allowance paid out to
individuals who are awaiting other benefits e.g. One-Parent family payment.
10.
In relation to Insurance explain the following:
(6)
2 @ 3 marks each
Broker
An agent who advises on aspects of insurance.
Premium
The sum of money paid annually or by instalments to the Insurance company.
4
11.
12.
List three functions of the Office of Consumer Affairs.
3 @ 2 marks each
(i)
To encourage high advertising standards and investigate complaints
(ii)
To provide consumers information regarding their rights
(iii)
To investigate unfair and illegal trading practices
(a)
(6)
•
To guarantee that products sold in Ireland conform to Irish safety standards
•
To ensure that food labels supply all the legally required information
•
To prosecute offences under the Consumer Information Act 1978
•
To advise Government on consumer issues
•
Publish annual report
Identify two safety considerations that should be considered when selecting
textiles for household purposes.
(4)
2 @ 2 marks each
(i)
Avoid loosely spun yarns or yarns with a raised or pile surface as they ignite very
easily.
(ii)
Fabrics made from mixture or blends of man-made and natural fibres burn more
quickly than those made of the component fibres.
(b)
•
Synthetic foam should be avoided as gases released from the foam ignite and engulf
a room in flames. They can also produce toxic fumes
•
Select flame retardant fabrics – coated fabrics or Inherent flame-retardant fabrics
•
Check labels for information e.g. Combustion Modified High Resilient filling (CMHR)
Name one fire-retardant finish used on household furnishings.
Pyrovatex, Proban etc.
5
(2)
Section B
Answer Question 1 and any other two questions from this section.
Question 1 is worth 80 marks. Questions 2, 3, 4 and 5 are worth 50 marks each.
1.
(a)
Agricultural Statistics
Human Meat Consumption 2002
Using the information provided in the chart comment on consumer trends in meat
consumption. Suggest reasons for such trends.
4 points @ 5 marks each
Pig meat – Highest consumption mainly due to variety of pork products e.g. ham, bacon,
sausages, pork chops etc.
Poultry meat – 2nd most popular meat. Comparatively cheap. Variety of poultry – turkey,
chicken, duck. Versatile recipes can be used. Suitable for low fat diets etc.
Beef and veal – Not very popular- consumed by less than 20%. Comparatively expensive.
Fear of CJD infection. Recipes using cheaper cuts not fashionable. High in saturated fats
etc.
Sheep meat – Not a popular meat. Comparatively expensive. High fat content on some
cuts. Flavour not always popular etc.
Other meats – Not popular, may include venison, rabbit etc. Not readily available, may
be expensive etc.
(b)
20
Name two proteins present in meat.
2 proteins @ 3 marks each
Collagen, Elastin, Myosin, Albumin, Globulin, Gelatin, Actin
(c)
Marks
80
Explain (i)
high biological protein
2 points @ 3 marks each marks = 6
Contain all the essential amino acids and are generally obtained from animal sources
(ii)
essential amino acid.
2 points @ 3 marks each marks = 6
Cannot be manufactured by the body so must be obtained from food.
6
6
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(d)
Describe (i) the primary structure and (ii) the secondary structure of protein.
Primary Structure
- 3 points @ 4 marks each
12
Refers to the sequence order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. Chain is formed by
peptide links. Amino acids join together releasing water.
Primary Structure
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
-Ala-Ser-Val-Tyr-Gly-Val-Ser-Cys-Ile-Ala-Val-Ser-
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Secondary Structure - 3 points @ 4 marks each
In the polypeptide chain the amino acids are further linked by various bonds to give
protein a definite shape which is often in the form of a spiral.
There are a number of ways that the links can occur between polypeptide chains.
The following are 2 such examples:
ƒ Disulphide links:
This happens when two sulphurs join for example, two cysteine amino acids (cysteine
contains an SH group) link together. This can take place on the one polypeptide chain or
bringing together two polypeptide chains.
ƒ Hydrogen bonds:
Polypeptide chains can also be linked by hydrogen bonds – the H in one chain and the
oxygen in a neighbouring chain. Collagen is an example where polypeptide chains are
linked by hydrogen bonds.
ƒ Salt bonds.
7
(e)
Identify and explain six key factors that a consumer should consider when
purchasing protein foods to ensure economy and safety.
6 factors @ 3 marks each
( at least 1 to refer to economy and1 to refer to safety and any 4 others)
Economy: Cheaper cuts of meat are just as nutritious as expensive cuts. Eggs and
cheese are cheap protein foods. Fish when in season is usually cheaper. Vegetable protein
e.g. beans and peas are cheap and can be used in recipes to increase protein value. Own
brands and special offers / 2 for the price of 1 etc.
Safety: Buy protein foods e.g. fish and meat from a reliable source. Check for proper
hygiene in shops (HACCP). Ensure that foods are stored in shop at correct temperature.
Look at use-by date on packaged protein foods. Ensure that cooked protein foods and
raw protein foods are not stored side by side. Quality assured, Labels, traceability,
Undamaged packaging etc.
8
18
2.
More than one in three Irish women do not get enough calcium.
(a)
State:
(i)
Marks
50
four possible ill-effects of a diet deficient in calcium
4 ill-effects @ 3 marks each = 12
12
(Allow max of 2 bone diseases)
Rickets and osteomalacia, osteoporosis, tooth decay, poor blood clotting, irregularity in
muscle contractions, poor functioning of nerve cells.
(ii)
the recommended daily allowance (RDA) of calcium for (a) adults
and (b) pregnant women.
6
2 @ 3 marks each
Adults = 800 mg
(b)
Pregnant women = 1200mg
Give details of the stages involved in the manufacture of yoghurt.
5 stages @ 4 marks each
(must refer to culture)
20
Milk is homogenised and pasteurised, culture-lactobacillus bulgaricus is added to milk,
incubated for 6-8 hours, lactose changes to lactic acid, milk proteins coagulate and
thicken yoghurt, cooled, flavours etc. added, packaged.
(c)
Outline the measures taken by the Dairy Industry to meet the current trends in
eating patterns and lifestyle of the Irish consumer.
4 measures @ 3 marks each
Introduction of fortified foods, functional foods, extended shelf life, low fat
products, detailed labelling, individually wrapped portions suitable for snacks/lunches
e.g. cheese etc. Added value foods e.g. grated cheese.
Extensively processed foods e.g. garlic butter, whipped cream etc.
9
12
3.
(a)
“Sales of pre-prepared convenience foods are rocketing as consumers find that
their time is being eaten away by the faster pace of modern life”
Consumer Choice
Marks
50
Outline the range of processed foods available and discuss the merits of including
processed foods in the modern diet.
Range: 4 @ 2 marks each
Range: Frozen, canned, dried, instant – ready to eat, cook-chill etc.
8
Merits: 4 @ 4 marks each
Merits: Saves time, labour and fuel. Little skill required. Add variety to diet.
Consistent quality. Can be fortified. Little or no waste. Useful in emergencies etc.
16
(b)
Name and state the function of two different types of physical conditioning agents
used in processed foods.
(Name = 4 marks; Function = 5 marks) x 2
18
Emulsifier: Thickens mayonnaise and sauces.
Stabiliser: Prevents emulsions from separating.
Polyphosphate: Prevents lumping in cake mixes
Pectin: Aids setting in jams
Humectant: Prevents confectionary/sweets from drying out. Absorbs water from the
air
Anti foaming agents: Prevent scum and froth on boiling
Anti spattering agents: Keep water droplets apart in cooking oils
Buffers: Used to maintain pH at required level
Packaging gas: Inert gas sealed into sachet foods to replace air and to prevent
oxidation
Release agents: Coatings on foods to prevent them from sticking together
Anti Caking: Prevents lumps forming in packaged powdered foods
(c)
Explain how European Union law regulates the use of food additives.
2 accurate facts @ 4 marks each
List of approved additives assigned E numbers. Under law every product has to be
tested. Must not alter nutrient content of food. Cannot disguise faulty processing.
Must not present hazard to health of consumer. Must not mislead consumer. Use of
colourings, antioxidants and sweeteners not permitted in baby foods etc.
10
8
4. Colm and Jane Brown live with their two teenagers – David aged fifteen and
Yvonne aged seventeen. Monday is a hectic day in the household. Colm leaves for
work at 7.30 am and returns at 5.30 pm. Jane works from 9.00am to 4.00pm. David and
Yvonne have training for the local swimming team from 4.30pm to 5.30pm. Yvonne also
goes to guitar lessons at 6.30pm. As they live in a rural area transport is necessary for
all activities. The family try to apply a management system to ensure that everything
runs smoothly.
(a)
Marks
50
Explain why a good management system can contribute to a well run home and
the well being of all family members.
4 points @ 4 marks each
16
Family group use a system of collective decision-making. A good management system
meets the demands of and controls family situations. It uses all available resources –
family members, time, etc. It involves skills such as organising, scheduling, analysing,
negotiating, reaching agreement and communicating. It benefits all family members.
Prevents conflict, stress, fatigue. It allows for the unexpected. It can be evaluated
and altered if needed. Improves the quality of family life.
(b)
Using the components of management (inputs, throughputs and outputs) explain
how the Brown family could apply a management system to ensure that
Mondays run smoothly in the household.
6 @ 3 marks each- at least1 point under each heading
( must relate to information in statement at beginning of question)
18
Inputs – Outline the goals for the day. What demands have to be met? What resources
–time, human, transport etc. are available?
Throughputs – Plan the day. Organise what has to be done. Allow for unforeseen
situations. Put into action.
Outputs – Were the goals achieved? Did the day run smoothly? Were there any
hitches? What changes would be made for the following Monday?
(c)
Give details of four consumer responsibilities.
4 @ 4 marks each
16
Ensure they are well informed. Understand Consumer protection laws. Read all labels
Read and follow instructions carefully. Complain about poor-quality or unsafe goods and
services. Seek redress. To protect the environment by using resources carefully etc.
11
5.
According to the Irish Constitution (Article 41 ) the State recognises the family as
the natural, primary and fundamental unit group of Society.
(The Irish Constitution)
(a)
Identify and describe three types of modern family structures in today’s society.
3 @ 6 marks each
Marks
50
18
Nuclear – Parents and children
Extended – Parents, children, grandparents, aunts, uncles etc.
Lone-parent – One parent, usually female with children,
Blended/Reconstituted – composed of children and some combination of biological and
step parents, arises as a result of re-marriage.
(b)
Discuss the effects of (i) social changes and (ii) economic changes on modern
family structures.
6 effects @ 4 marks each
( 2 to refer to social changes and 2 to refer to economic changes)
24
Social Changes
Decline in the extended family, urbanisation, equality of women and dual career,
separation and divorce- more lone parent and blended family structures, relaxation on
traditional segregated roles, increased leisure time, stay at home fathers, smaller
families, anti social behaviour etc.
Economic Changes
Increasing cost of family home requiring both parents to work, state support for the
elderly thus less dependence on family, state benefits for lone-parents, both parents
working with greater demand for childcare, career prospects often mean moving home,
higher standards of living, costs of education etc.
(c)
Set out the conditions required for granting a divorce under Family Law (Divorce)
Act 1996.
2 conditions @ 4 marks each
(mandatory) Parties must have lived apart for four out of five previous years.
No prospect of reconciliation, financial provision made for spouse and dependents,
solicitors acting on behalf of each spouse are obliged to discuss any possibilities for
reconciliation.
12
8
Section C
Answer one elective question from this section.
Candidates who submitted Textiles, Fashion and Design coursework
for examination may only attempt Question 2.
Marks
80
Elective 1 – Home Design and Management (80 marks)
Candidates selecting this elective must answer 1 (a) and either 1 (b) or 1 (c).
1. (a) Reduced fossil fuel supplies together with changing trends in modern housing
developments, have led the consumer to investigate alternative methods of
heating the home.
(i)
Identify three heating options available for the modern home.
3 heating options @ 3 marks each
9
Full central heating, partial central heating, background heating, local heating, passive
solar heating etc.
(ii)
Explain the factors which should be considered when choosing a heating
system for a family home.
4 factors @ 5 marks each
20
Cost, safety, space heating requirements, convenience, aesthetic appeal, environmental
factors. Water heating included.
(iii)
Set out details of one domestic central heating system you have studied.
Include reference to:
(a) fuel/energy source, = 3 marks
(b) heating principle, 3 points @ 4 marks each= 12
(c) efficiency and convenience, 2 @ 3 marks = 6
Wet system/small bore system/indirect system:
Water is heated in a boiler by convection. Water expands, rises and assisted by a
pump is carried to all the radiators in the house. Individual radiators heat the rooms
by radiation and convection.
Dry system/under-floor heating/storage heating:
Electrical elements are embedded in thermal blocks of fireclay or concrete which are
surrounded by insulating material. These elements are switched on at off-peak periods
at night and the blocks heat up. The radiators or floor gradually release heat during
the day. Most systems have an afternoon boost of heat option. Some heat is radiated
and most heat is transferred by convection.
Solar heating:
Solar collectors absorb sunlight and convert sunlight into heat. The system uses
mechanical devises such as pumps and fans to move heat from collectors to storage and
then to use. The heat is transferred by convection around each room.
13
21
1. (b) (i)
and
Discuss how aesthetic and environmental factors influence the design of
modern housing.
16
4 factors @ 4 marks each
( at least 1 reference to aesthetic and 1 to environmental)
Compatibility with surrounding environment, introducing plenty of light, consideration of
the elements and principles of design, avoiding use of synthetic building materials and
using natural materials, consideration to aspect of sun and prevailing wind, etc.
(ii)
Explain how house-building standards are regulated. Refer to at least two
different methods.
2 methods @ 7 marks each
(Name = 3 marks: Explanation = 4 marks)
14
Building Regulations Act 1991 – sets out rules in relation to areas of house building to
include:Design and construction standards, insulation, structural stability, drainage and
sewage scheme, chimney flues and hearths, ventilation, fire and weather resistance,
light and heating.
Homebond – Operated by the National House Building Guarantee Company and the
Department of the Environment and Local Government. Builders are issued with a
Homebond certificate if above are satisfied with work. The certificate is a 10 year
guarantee against any major structural faults.
Or
1. (c) Good lighting is an essential part of successful interior design.
(i)
Describe three properties of light.
3 properties @ 4 marks each
(Name = 2 marks; description = 2 marks)
12
Reflected – rays of light bounce off a shiny surface
Refracted – rays of light bend when they pass through thick or ridged glass
Diffused – rays of light are scattered when they pass through translucent substances
or hit in a non reflecting surface
Absorbed – Dark and mat surfaces absorb light rays
Dispersed – rays of light that pass through a prism or crystal break down into their
component colours.
(ii)
Identify two types of contemporary lighting and in each case evaluate its
use in interior design.
Expect 2 types @ 9 marks each
(type = 3 marks, evaluate: 2 points @ 3 marks each = 6) x 2
Central lights – central, semi-flush and flush pendant, chandelier, rise and fall
Wall brackets – picture lights, swivel lights
Free standing lamps – table/floor lamps, pivot action, flexible stem, touch, uplighter/downlighter
Ceiling lights – eyeball sockets, track, recessed
Furniture lighting – light emitted diode (LED), cluster tables
Novelty lighting – fibre optic lighting, fairy lights, computer aided lights, rope lighting.
Low voltage, Halogen, CFLS etc.
14
18
Marks
40
Elective 2 – Textiles, Fashion and Design (40 marks)
Candidates selecting this elective must answer 2(a) and either 2 (b) or 2 (c)
2. (a) Well designed clothes should be pleasing to the eye, functional, take account of
the elements and principles of design and be comfortable to wear.
(i)
Sketch an outfit that reflects current fashion trends, suitable for wear to a
school graduation.
Indicate how three principles of design have been applied in the design of
the outfit.
Sketch = 6 marks
3 principles @ 2 marks each = 6
Balance, Proportion, Emphasis, Rhythm
(ii)
12
Profile a fabric made from manufactured fibres under the following
headings:
•
•
•
fibre production = 5 marks
(Name = 1 mark: Production - Expect 2 points @ 2 marks each)
fabric properties = 4 marks
( Expect 2 points @ 2 marks each)
fibre identification test = 4 marks
13
( Expect 2 points @ 2 marks each)
Production - Nylon filament is made from oil or coal.
Chemicals (monomers) are mixed and heated and melted to form nylon polymer. The
liquid is pumped through a spinneret and cooled to form long fibres which are
conditioned and wound on to a spool.
and
2. (b)
Irish men have become increasingly fashion conscious in recent years.
Discuss some of the changing trends in men’s fashion and suggest reasons
for these developments.
3 trends @ 3 marks each = 9
3reasons @ 2 marks each = 6
Casual look, rock-star style, sportswear, more varied colour etc.
15
or
2. (c) (i)
Name and describe one colour application method and one design
application method suitable for cotton fabric.
Colour application = 5 marks (Name = 2 marks: description = 3 marks)
Disperse Dyeing, Acid Dyeing, Printing, Tie Dye, Batik etc.
Design application = 5 marks (Name = 2 marks: description = 3 marks)
Applique, Quilting, Embroidery. Smocking, Screen printing, Roller printing, Embossing
(ii)
Assess the role of accessories in completing an outfit.
To draw attention to an area. To brighten up an outfit. To modernise an outfit, To
balance colour. To enhance the appearance etc.
15
10
etc
5
Elective 3 – Social Studies (80 marks)
Candidates selecting this elective must answer 3 (a) and either 3 (b) or 3(c)
3.
Marks
80
(a) While Ireland has become increasingly wealthy in recent years, it still has
one of the highest levels of income inequality in the EU.
(i)
Define each of the following:
(a)
Relative Poverty
(b)
Absolute Poverty.
2 definitions @ 5 marks each
10
Relative poverty: People living below what society recognises as a basic standard of living.
Absolute poverty: People may not be able to physically survive due to lack of food, shelter
and clothing.
(ii) Discuss the reasons why poverty continues to be a feature of modern
society, In your answer include reference to the cycle of poverty and the
influence of social policy on poverty.
4 points @ 6 marks each
(1 point must refer to the cycle of poverty and 1 point must refer to the influence of social policy)
24
Low wages for unskilled workers, lack of educational qualifications, long term
unemployment, unequal distribution of wealth and resources, addictions, inability to manage
money, social welfare system inadequate, failure of government to have an effective policy
on alleviating poverty, financial deprivation, disadvantaged areas, high cost of housing,
increase in the number of single parents etc.
Cycle of poverty – Children from lower socio-economic families generally do not get the
same opportunities, and place less importance on education, than the children from the
better off in society. They end up unemployed or in low-paid jobs and have their own
children who are born into the perpetual cycle of poverty etc.
Social Policy on Poverty – Wages, Unemployment benefits, Employment opportunities.
Social policy can perpetuate poverty as some believe that the benefits are generous and
therefore there is little incentive to seek employment etc.
(iii) Give an account of two statutory initiatives aimed specifically at eliminating
poverty in Ireland.
2 initiatives @ 8 marks each
(Name = 4 marks: Account = 4 marks) x 2
Rent allowance, Family income supplement, Fuel scheme, Clothing and footwear allowance,
Refund on prescriptive drugs, Jobstart, Back to work allowance, Supplementary Welfare
allowance, Medical cards. Fás, Back to Education Allowance (BTEA),
NAPS – National Anti Poverty Strategy
Combat Poverty Agency
MABS – Free confidential advisory service, primarily to low income families who are in
debt or at risk of getting into debt etc.
16
16
and
3. (b)
“Almost 60% of the Irish population now live in urban areas”
(i)
Discuss how changes in settlement patterns from rural to urban areas has
impacted on family life.
3 points @ 6 marks each
Sporting clubs in rural areas may find difficulty in recruiting members. Businesses may
close down in rural areas e.g. post offices. Fewer employment opportunities as shortage of
labour can be a negative factor. Greater choice and range of services in urban areas.
Facilities for leisure and entertainment are closer in urban areas. Overcrowded schools
and hospitals in urban areas. Pollution. Crime. Inadequate play areas etc.
(ii)
18
Comment on the efforts being made by the Government to reverse this trend
and halt population decline in rural areas.
2 efforts/ initiatives @ 6 marks each
12
Decentralisation of Government departments, Rural resettlement schemes, Building new
industries in rural areas. Better transport system. Better roads and infrastructure etc.
or
3. (c) (i) Name and describe two contemporary initiatives which aim to improve the
accessibility of education. .
2 initiatives @ 9 marks each
(Name = 3 marks; description = 2 points @ 3 marks each marks) x 2
18
LCA, LCVP, Learning Support Teachers, PLCs, VTOS, Traveller Training Centres,
Youthreach, Special Needs assistants, Homework clubs, Fás, Transport, Additional
resources e.g. laptops etc. BTEA, Visiting teacher service etc.
(ii)
Outline the measures taken to alleviate gender inequity in education.
3 measures @ 4 marks each
Improved participation rates of girls in science subjects, Subject syllabii are gender
neutral, Textbooks are less stereotypical. Broader range of subjects in single-sex schools,
Understanding Masculinities Programme, SPHE – Issues of gender etc.
17
12