(Established by Govt. of Punjab vide Punjab Act No. 5 of 2015)
PHD ENTRANCE EXAM (PET-2016)
Distribution of marks (Total Marks: 100)
Section -I
Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Section-II
Quantative Aptitude/ Logical aptitude/language skills: 20 marks
(20 Multiple choice questions of 1 mark each)
Duration of examination:
Time of written test would be 1 hour
Pattern for Question Paper
Time Allowed: 1 Hours
Read the following instructions carefully :
Max. Marks:100
1. This questions paper contain X printed pages including pages for rough work. Please
check all pages and report discrepancy, if any.
2. Question papers consists of 2 parts.
3. Section I (80 Marks)
4. Section II (20 Marks)
5. All questions in this paper are of objective type.
6. Unattemped Questions will carry zero marks.
7. Wrong answers will carry negative mark. 1/4th
mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer.
8. Answers must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on Answer
sheet
9. Calculator is not allowed in the examination hall.
10. Charts , graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the Examination hall.
11. Rough Work can be done on the question paper itself. Additionally, blank pages are
given at the end of the question paper for rough work.
1
ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:____ECE_____
SECTION-I
Q1: Consider the given circuit.
In this circuit, the race around
(A) does not occur
(C) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 1
(B) occurs when CLK = 0
(D) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 0
Q2. In the following figure, C1 and C2 are ideal capacitors. C1 has been charged to 12 V before the ideal
switch S is closed at t = 0. The current i(t) for all t is
(A) zero
(C) an exponentially decaying function
(B) a step function
(D) an impulse function
Q3: The diodes and capacitors in the circuit shown are ideal. The voltage v(t) across the diode D1 is
(A) cos(wt) 1
(B) sin(wt)
(C) 1 cos(wt)
2
(D) 1sin(wt)
COMPUTER SCIENCE ENGINEERING
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
Q1:
Consider the following set of processes on a uniprocessor system
Which of the following scheduling schemes will cause the
process 3 to have the earliest finish time? Assume that process
switching time is negligible.
(i)
FCFS
(ii)
Round Robin with Scheduling unit = 1 time unit
(iii)
Round Robin with Scheduling unit = 4 time units
(iv)
Non-preemptive shortest job first
(v)
Preemptive shortest job first
Q2:
Consider a disk pack with 16 surfaces, 128 tracks per surface and 256 sectors per track. 512 bytes of data
are stored in a bit serial manner in a sector. The capacity of the disk pack and the number of bits required to
specify a particular sector in the disk are respectively:
(a) 256 Mbyte, 19 bits
Q3:
(b) 512 Mbyte, 20 bits
(c) 256 Mbyte, 28 bits
(d) 64 Gbyte, 28 bits
A language L allows declaration of arrays whose sizes are not known during compilation. It isrequired to
make efficient use of memory. Which one the following is true?
(a) A compiler using static memory allocation can be written for L
(b) A compiler cannot be written for L; an interpreter must be used.
(c) A compiler using dynamic memory allocation can be written for L
(d) None of the above
Q4:
Algorithm that solves the all-pair shortest path problem is
(a) Dijkstra’s algorithm
Q5:
(d) Warshall’s algorithm
(b) 768 bytes
(c) 1152 bytes
(d) 1024 bytes
(c) in the memory
(d) in the stack
In immediate addressing, the operand is placed
(a) in the CPU register
Q7:
(c) Prim’s algorithm
Assuming that for a given network layer implementation, connection establishment overhead is 100 bytes
and disconnection overhead is 28 bytes. What would be minimum size of packet the transport layer needs
to keep up, if it wishes to implement a datagram service above network layer and need to keep its overhead
to a maximum of 12.5%. (Ignoretransport layer overhead.)
(a) 512 bytes
Q6:
(b) Flyod’s algorithm
(b) in the instruction
Start and stop bits in serial communication are used for
(a) Error detection
(b) Error correction
(d) to speed up the communication
(c) synchronization
3
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
Q1. A heat engine is supplied with 2512 kJ/min of heat at 650ºC. Heat rejection with 900 kJ/min takes place
at 100ºC. This type of heat engine is
(a) Ideal
(b) Irreversible
(c) Impossible
(d) practical
Q2.The COP of a refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle is 5. The ratio of the highest absolute temperature
to the lowest absolute temperature would be
a) 1.25
b) 1.3
c) 1.4
d) 1.2
Q3.Ammonia used as refrigerant is non-corrosive to
a) Iron and steel
b) Copper & copper alloys
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Neither (a) or (b)
Q4. The comfort conditions in air- conditioning system are defined by
a) 22ºC dbt and 60% RH
b) 25ºC dbt and 100% RH
c) 20ºC dbt and 75% RH
d) 27ºC dbt and 75% RH
Q5. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water without touching any
of the sides of bucket from another support . The spring balance reading will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains the same
d) depends on the depth of immersion.
Q6. The multistage compression of air as compared to single – stage compression
a) improve volumetric efficiency for the given pressure ration
b) reduces work done per kg of air
c) gives more uniform torque
d) All of the above
Q7………………………………………………………………………………………
4
CE : CIVIL ENGINEERING
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
Q1. The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the lof and narrower towards the pith are known as
a) Star shakes
b) Annual rings
c) Cup shakes
d) Heart shakes
e)
Q2. The initial setting of cement depends most on
a) Tricalcium Aluminate
b) Tricalcium Silicate
c) Tricalcium Aluminoferrite
d) Dicalcium Silicate
Q3. If one intends to obtain the best workability of concrete , the best workability of concrete,the preferred shape of
aggregate is
a) Round
b) Annular
c) Triangular
d) Flinty
Q4.
A freely supported beam AB of span 4m is subjected to a UDL of 1kN/ m over the full span and a moment of 2kNm at support A as shown in fig. The resulting BM at mid-span C of the beam will be
a) 1 kN-m (sagging)
b) 1 kN-m (hogging)
c) 2 kN-m (sagging)
d) 2 kN-m (hogging)
Q6…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
5
TEXTILE ENGINEERING
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
Q.1. The increase in traveller weight leads to an increase in
(A) Yarn twist
(B) Traveller lag
(C) Balloon diameter
(D) Yarn tension
Q.2. Dog knot is preferred to weaver's knot during creeling because it is
(A) Easier to make
(B) Stronger
(C) Smaller in size
(D) Less prone to slippage
Q.3. Size add-on does not depend on
(A) Roller hardness
(B) Drying cylinder temperature
(C) Size paste concentration
(D) Machine speed
Q.4. Ball warping is mainly used in the manufacture of
(A) Terry towel
(B) Narrow fabric
(C) Denim
(D) 3D fabric
Q.5. The factor that does not influence the propelling force for moving the weft yarn on air jet loom is
(A) Coefficient of friction between air and yarn
(C) Yarn strength
(B) Air velocity
(D) Yarn diameter
Q.6. The cross-section of spinneret used for producing hollow fibres is
(A) C-shaped
(B) Rectangular
(C) Annular concentric
(D) Triangular
Q.7. For a given yarn count made from the same fibre, rotor spun yarn is bulkier than ring spun yarn, because
(A) Rotor spun yarn is more even than ring spun yarn
(B) Navel tube peels off the fibres from rotor spun yarn surface
(C) Rotor spun yarn has large number of wrapper fibres
(D) Yarn tension in rotor spinning is lower as compared to that in ring spinning
Q.8 Consider the statement, ‘off-setting the front top drafting roller towards the front is beneficial in a ring spinning
machine’. Which one of the following CANNOT be the reason for the same?
(A) It reduces the hairiness of yarn
(B) It results in smooth running of top drafting roller
(C) It reduces end breaks
(D) It results in shorter spinning triangle
6
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
Q1. The dependence of B(flux density ) on H (magnetic field intensity ) for different types of material is
a)
b)
c)
d)
Q2. A triangular pyramid , built up of six wires whose resistances are shown in fig. , is fed from a 1V battery at
the terminals A and B . The current through the branch DB is
a) 1/7 A
b) 2/7 A
c) 3/7 A
d) 4/7 A
Q3. In the circuit shown , when the current through the branch AD is zero, the battery current IB is
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 mA
2 mA
10 mA
20 mA
Q5……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
7
PHARMACY
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
Q1: Which one of the following statement regarding insulin glargine is CORRECT?
A) It is primarily used to control post-prandial hyperglycemia.
B) It may be administered intravenously in emergency cases.
C) It is a peak less insulin.
D) It should not be used in a regimen with insulin lispro or glulisine.
Q2: The preferred insulin to control hyperglycemia in diabetic ketoacidosis,
A) Lente insulin
B) Neutral protamine aspart
C) Regular human insulin
D) Isophane insulin
Q3. Paracytic stomata are quite often found in the members of the family
(A) Solanaceae
(B) Scrophulariacea
(C) Rubiaceae
(D) Ranunculaceae
Q4. Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using
(A) Donepezil
(B) Pancuronium
(C) Atropine
(D) Edrophonium
Q5. 3,4-Benzpyrene present in cigarette smoke reduces the therapeutic activity of
(A) Altering excretion
(B) Binding to plasma proteins
(C) Inhibiting metabolism
(D) Increasing the activity of liver microtonal enzymes.
diazepam by
Q6. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(A) A singlet or triplet state may result when one of the electrons from the HOMO is excited to
higher energy levels
(B) In an excited singlet state, the spin of the electron in the higher energy orbital is paired
with the electron in the ground state orbital
(C) Triplet excited state is more stable than the singlet excited state
(D) When the electron from the singlet excited state returns to ground state, the molecule
always shows fluorescence phenomenon
8
PHYSICS
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
Q1. Ferromagnetic materials respond mechanically to an impressed magnetic field, changing length slightly in the
direction of the applied field. This property is known as
(a) magnetocontraction
(b) magnetostriction
(c) transducerism
(d) length contraction
Q2. For purely orbital angular momentum, the Lande' g factor is
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 3/2
Q3. In the Bode plot of an operation amplifier, a roll off rate of 20 dB/decade at high frequencies is equivalent to
(a) 3 dB/octave
(b) 2 dB/octave
(c) 6 dB/octave
(d) 9 dB/octave
Q4. In a light dependent resistor (LDR), the resistance
(a) increases linearly with increase in the intensity of light
(b) decreases linearly with increase inthe intensity of light
(c) increases non-linearly with increase in the intensity of light
(d) decreases non-linearly with increase in the intensity of light
Q5. The theorem of equipartition of energy states the molecules in thermal equilibrium have same
average energy associated with each independent degree of freedom and is
(a) kT2/2 per molecule
(b) kT/2 per molecule
(c) kT per mole
(d) kT2 per mole
Q6. The dipolar polarizability of a dielectric
(a) is independent of the temperature
(b) is inversely proportional to the temperature
(c) is directly proportional to the strength of the applied electric field
(d) is inversely proportional to the strength of the applied electric field
Q8. …………………………………………………………………………………………………….
9
CHEMISTRY
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
Q1. The increasing order of ease of liquefaction of noble gases is:
(A) He<Ne<Ar<Kr<Xe
(B) Xe<Kr<Ar<Ne<He
(C) Ne<He<Ar<Kr<Xe
(D) Ne<Ar<He<Kr<Xe
Q2. For the reaction 2HI (g) →H2(g) +I2(g) , Kp= 0.0198 at 721 K. In a particular experiment, thE partial pressures
of [H2] and [I2] at equilibrium are 0.710 and 0.888 atm, respectively. The partial pressure of HI is
(A) 7.87 atm
(B) 1.98 atm
(C) 5.64 atm
(D) 0.125 atm
Q3. Calculate the vibration partition function for the sodium dimer, Na2, molecule at 298 K. The harmonic
vibration wave number is 159 cm-1.
(A) 1.107
(B) 1.542
(C) 2.341
(D) 1.866
Q4. Which of the following mixture of gases is used for breathing in deep of sea by divers?
(A) O2+N2
(B) O2+He
(C) O2+Ne
(D) O2+CO2
(B) IR
(C) EPR
(D) Mass
Q5……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
10
MATHEMATICS
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
Q.1.
Q.2.
Q.3.
Q.4.
Q.5.
Q.6.
Q.7.
The dimension of the null space T3 is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
Which of the following matrices is not diagonalizable?
1 0
0 −1
1 1
(a) (
)
(b) (
)
(c) (
)
3 2
1 0
1 2
(d) 4
1
0
(d) (
which of the following is elliptic?
(a) Laplace Equation
(c) Heat Equation
(b) Wave Equation
(d) uxx + 2uxy − 4uyy = 0
If f(z)=z 3 , then it
a) has an essential singularity at z=∞
c) has a pole of order 3 at z=0
b) has a pole of order 3 at z=∞
d) is analytic at z=∞ .
1
)
1
Let f:[0,1]→R be a bounded Riemann integrable function and let g:R→R be continuous.
Then gof is
a) Reimann integrable
b) Continous
c) Lebesgue integrable, but not Riemann integrable
d) not necessarily
measurable.
Which of the following pair of functions is not a linear independent pair of solutions of
y ′′ +9y=0?
a) sin3x, sin3x-cos3x
b) sin3x+cos3x, 3sinx-4sin3 x.
C) sin3x, sin3xcos3x
d) sin3x+cos3x, 4cos3 x − 3cosx.
3 3 0
The minimal polynomial of the matrix [3 3 0] is
0 0 6
(a) x(x-1)(x-6)
(b) x(x-3)
(c) (x-3)(x-6)
(d) x(x-6)
d2 y
dy
Q.8. for the differential equation x2(1-x) dx2 +x dx + y = 0
(a) x=1 is an ordinary point
(b) x=0 is an ordinary point
(c) x=1 is an regular singular point
(d) x=0 is an regular singular point.
11
COMPUTER APPLICATION
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
Q.1
Which of the following is/are not true?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The set of negative integers is countable.
The set of integers that are multiples of 7 is countable.
The set of even integers is countable.
The set of real numbers between 0 and ½ is countable.
Codes:
(1)
(a) and (c)
Q.2
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (b) only
(4) (d) only2
A tree with n vertices is called graceful, if its vertices can be labeled with integers 1, 2 ...n such that the
absolute value of the difference of the labels of adjacent vertices are all different. Which of the following
trees are graceful ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
Codes :
(1)
(a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
Q.3
A three dimensional array in ‘C’ is declared as int A[x][y][z]. Here, the address of an item at the location
A[p][q][r] can be computed as follows (where w is the word length of an integer):
(1)
&A[0][0][0]1w(y*z*q1z*p1r)
(2)
&A[0][0][0]1w(y*z*p1z*q1r)
(3)
&A[0][0][0]1w(x*y*p1z*q1r)
(4)
&A[0][0][0]1w(x*y*q1z*p1r)
Q.4
Which of the following services is not provided by wireless access point in 802.11 WLAN ?
(1)
Association
(2) Disassociation (3) Error correction (4) Integration
Q.5
Using p53, q513, d57 and e53 in the RSA algorithm, what is the value of cipher text for a plain text 5?
(1)
13
(2) 21
(3) 26
(4) 33
Q.6.
A Unix file system has 1-KB blocks and 4-byte disk addresses. What is the maximum file size if i-nodes
contain 10 direct entries and one single, double and triple indirect entry each?
(1)
32 GB
(2) 64 GB
(3) 16 GB
(4) 1 GB
Q.7.
A basic feasible solution of a linear programming problem is said to be __________ if at least one of the
basic variable is zero.
(1)
degenerate
(2) non-degenerate (3) infeasible
(4) unbounded
12
COMMERCE & MANAGEMENT
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
FACULTY OF COMMERCE
Q.1
The oligopoly model in which the businessman assumes that his competitors output are fixed and
simultaneously decide how much to produce is
a) Cournot oligopoly model
b) Stackelberg oligopoly model
c) Chamberlin’s oligopoly model
d) Bertrand oligopoly model
Q.2
According to Game Theory, if increased advertising, raises costs more than revenues and the profits of both
firms decline, we have a
a) Positive-sum game
b) Non zero-sum game
c) Zero-sum game
d) Negative-sum game
Q.3
A tax imposed upon monopoly profits
a) can be shifted forward
b) can be shifted backward
c) can be shifted both forward and backward
d) cannot be shifted
Q.4
As per Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise Development Act, 2006, Medium Enterprises are defined as
those with investments :
a) < 25 lakhs
b) 25 lakhs to 5 crores
c) 5 crores to 10 crores
d) > 10 crores
Q.5
The demand and supply functions are given as : Pα= 30 – 5x and Ps= 3x – 10 respectively (x = quantity).
The consumer surplus is
a) 125
b) – 62.5
c) 62.5
d) –125
Q.6
Engel Curve denotes
a) Various amounts of a good which a consumer would be willing to purchase at various price
levels.
b) Various amounts of a good which a consumer would be willing to purchase at various income
levels.
c) Various amounts of a good purchased when the price of its substitutes tend to rise.
d) The relationship between income effect and substitution effect.
Q.7
If debt is Rs 220, cash balance is Rs 20 and equity is Rs 300, then the gearing ratio is
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 30%
Q.8
The mathematical formula for joint probabilities P(AB) = P(A/B) × P(B), holds when
a) The events are statistically independent.
b) The events are statistically dependent.
c) The event is either independent or dependent.
d) None of the above
13
COMMERCE & MANAGEMENT
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –I (PET-2016)
(Knowledge of the subject of specialization/ Technical Section : 80 Marks)
(40 Multiple choice questions of 2 marks each)
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
SECTION-I
FACULTY OF BUSINESS MANAGEMENT
Q.1
The value of Rothchild’s Index for Monopoly is
a) 1
b) 0
c) Infinity
d) None of These
Q.2
Monopolist does not operate when
a) ep >1
b) ep = 1
c) ep < 1
d) None of These
Q.3
Duopoly is the market structure where There are
a) Two buyers and Large number of sellers
b) Large number of buyers and sellers
c) Two sellers and Large number of buyers
d) One buyer and One seller
Q.4
In Traditional Model of Dividend Policy
4(D+R)
4R+D
a) P = m * (
)
b) P = m * (
)
b) P = m * (
3
D+R
3
)
d) P = m * (
Q.5
Fisher Effect is represented by
a) 1 + rnominal = (1 + rreal )(1 + ie )
b) 1 + rreal = (1 + rnominal )(1 + ie )
c) 1 + ie = (1 + rreal )(1 + rnominal )
d) None of these
Q.6
The formula for Walter Model is
a) P =
c) P =
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
d
Kd
3
)
D
D
e
r+ K (E−D)
Ke
r
D+ K (E−D)
3
4D+R
b) P =
d) P =
r+ K (E−D)
d
Kd
r
e
D+ K (E−D)
Ke
Fast Decisions can be taken when the organization practices
a) SHRM
b) HRD
c) HRM
Theory Z has been propounded by
a) Ouchi
b) Mc Gregor
c) Skinner
d) All of Above
d) Maslow
What is a cross-sectional design?
a) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time
b) A study of one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes
c) One that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood
d) A comparison of two or more variables over a long period of time
14
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SECTION –II (PET-2016) OF ALL DISCIPLINES
(Quantative Aptitude/ Logical aptitude/language skills: 20 marks
(20 Multiple choice questions of 1 mark each)
SECTION –II
Roll No. ______________
Discipline:_________
Q1: Which of the options given below best completes the following sentence?
She will feel much better if she ________________.
(A) will get some rest
(B) gets some rest
(C) will be getting some rest
(D) is getting some rest
Q2: Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
Communication and interpersonal skills are_____ important in their own ways.
(A) Each
(B) both
(C) all
(D) either.
Q3: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of
words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in
the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.
(A) We should________________our traditional ways to utilise the knowledge of medicine to
plug the_________in modern healthcare.
(A) Tackle, unawareness
(B) Implement,efficiency
(C) Forward, research
(D) Evolve, loopholes
(B) There have been other committees which had_____________these problems and had made quite
practical__________
(A) scrutinised, institution
(B) ventured,impact
(C) examined,proposals
(D) geared, solutions
Q4: Detect the error.
(A)
(B)
Sancho ran as fast as he/ could walk to help his/ not able to stir,/ such a blow he and Rozinante had
received./ No error
As Caesar loved me,/ I wept for him, /as he was fortunate/ I rejoice at it./ No error
Q5: Find Antonym
1.
Stapling 1,000 Books by hand is a very tedious work.
(A) Simple
(B) Diffcult
(C) Intersted
(D) Borin
Q6: It takes 30 minutes to empty a half-full tank by draining it at a constant rate. It is decided to simultaneously
pump water into the half-full tank while draining it. What is the rate at which water has to be pumped in so that
it gets fully filled in 10 minutes?
(A) 4 times the draining rate
(C) 2.5 times the draining rate
(B) 3 times the draining rate
(D) 2 times the draining rate
Q7: For an n-variable Boolean function, the maximum number of prime implicants is
(A) 2(n-1)
(B) n/2
(C) 2n
15
(D) 2(n-1)
Q8: The pie-chart drawn below shows the spending of a country on various sports during a particular year.
Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the questions given below it.
PERCENT OF MONEY SPENT ON VARIOUSSPORTS FOR ONE YEAR
(A) If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs. 15000000, the amount spent on cricket and
hockey together was
(A) Rs. 2500000
(B) Rs. 3750000
(C) Rs. 5000000
(D) Rs. 6000000
(B) Out of the following, the country spent the same amount on
(A) Hockey and Tennis
(B) Golf and foot ball
(C) Cricket and Foot ball
(D) Football and Hockey
(C) The ratio of the total amount spent on football to that spent on hockey is
(A) 1: 15
(B) 1: 1
(C) 15:1
(D) 3: 20
(D) If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs. 12000000, how much was spent on basket
ball?
(A) Rs. 950000
(B) Rs. 1000000
(C) Rs. 1200000
(D) Rs. 1500000
Q9: The equations ax – (a + b) y = 1 and (a – b)x + ay = 5 have a unique solution:
(a)
For all values of a and b
(b)
Only when a = b
(c)
Only when a2 : b2 ≠ 1 : 2
(d)
Only when a = 0 and b = 0
Directions for questions 10 to 12:
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to
help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Many people believe that science and religion are contrary to each other. But this notion is wrong. As a matter of
fact, both are complementary to each other. The aim of both these institutions is to explain different aspects of life,
universe and human existence. There is no doubt that the methods of science and religion are different. The method
of science is observation, experimentation and experience. Science takes its recourse to progressive march towards
perfection. The tools of religion are faith, intuition and spoken word of the enlightened. In general, while science is
inclined towards reason and rationality, spiritualism is the essence of religion.
In earlier times when man appeared on earth, he was over-awed at the sight of violent and powerful aspects of
nature. In certain cases, the usefulness of different natural objects of nature overwhelmed man. Thus, began the
worship of forces of nature – fire, the sun, the rivers, the rocks, the trees, the snakes, etc. The holy scriptures were
written by those who had developed harmony between external nature and their inner self. Their object was to
ennoble, elevate and liberate the human spirit and mind. But the priestly class took upon itself the monopoly of
spiritual knowledge and interpretation to its own advantage. Thus, the entire human race was in chains. Truth was
flouted and progressive, liberal and truthful ideas or ideas expressing doubts and scepticism were suppressed and
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their holders punished. It was in these trying circumstances that science emerged as a saviour of mankind. But its
path was not smooth and safe. The scientists and free thinkers were tortured. This was the fate of Copernicus,
Galileo, Bruno and others. But by and by science gained ground.
Q10: Why does man worship the forces of nature?
(a)
The holy scriptures advocate the worship of forces of nature.
(b)
The worship elevates and liberates the human spirit and mind.
(c)
The worship makes man believe in faith and intuition.
(d)
Forces of nature teach us spiritualism.
(e)
None of these.
Q11: According to the passage, science and religion both
(a)
Rely on the spoken word of the enlightened.
(b)
Emerged out of the fear of man
(c)
Emerged from the desire of man to worship the forces of nature.
(d)
Employ different methods of enquiry.
(e)
Work at the cross-purpose of each other.
Q12: Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word “enlightened” as used in the passage?
(A) Uninformed
(B) Derogatory
(C) Downtrodden
(D) Educated
Directions for questions 13 to 14: Mark one of the phrases (A), (B), (C) or (D) which can replace the phrase given in
BOLD to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no
correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
Q13: The donation amount was such that as I was expected him to donate.
(A) so that as I expected
(B) such that I expected of
(C) such as that I expect
(D) exactly as I had expected
(E) no correction required
Q14: It is a pity that no one in the family disapproves by his getting up late.
(A) disapproved by his getting up
(B) disapproves of his getting up
(C) disapproved that he is getting up
(D) disapproved why he got up
(E) No correction required
Directions for questions 15 to 16: From the given alternatives, choose the word that is most nearly similar in
meaning to the word given in CAPITAL letters.
Q15:
Q16:
PLACATE
(A)
Pacify
(B)
Transmit
(C)
Allow
(D)
Define
PROGNOSIS
(A)
Sample
(B)
Discussion
(C)
Forecast
(D)
Depression
Q:17
The equations ax – (a + b) y = 1 and (a – b)x + ay = 5 have a unique solution:
(a)
For all values of a and b
(b)
Only when a = b
(c)
Only when a2 : b2 ≠ 1 : 2
(d)
Only when a = 0 and b = 0
Q:18.
The sum of the digits of a number is subtracted from the number. The result is always
(a)
Divisible by 6
(b)
Divisible by 9
(c)
Not divisible by 6
(d)
Unpredictable
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