Neet Phase – I
Time: 3 Hours
A
Marks:720
1. In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental – type offspring were produced than the
recombinant - type offspring. This indicate:
a. Both of the character are controlled by more than one gene
b. The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
c. Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
d. The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
2. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:
a. Anthocyanins
b. Xanthophylls
c. Chlorophylls
d. Carotenoids
3. Which
other
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistc (having opposite effect) to each
Relaxin
Parathormone
Insulin
Aldosterone
-
inhibin
Calcitonin
Glucagon
Astrial Natriuretic Factor
Mitochondria and chloroplast are:
a. Semi –autonomous organelles.
b. Formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein
synthesizing machinery
Which one of the following options is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Both (a) and (b) are false
Both (a) and (b) are correct
(b) is true but (a) is false
(a) is true but (b) is false
5. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
a. Single – stranded
b. Independent replication
c. Circular structure
d. Transferable
6.
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows
high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen
utilization. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Nitrogen fixer
C3
C4
CAM
7.
Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:
a. Oxidative phosphorylation
b. Photophosphorylation and non –cyclic electron transport
c. Two photosystem operating simultaneously
d. Photophosystems operating simulationeously
e. Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
8.
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?
Tissue
location
a. Cuboidal epithelium
lining of stomach
b. Smooth muscle
wall of intestine
c. Areolar tissue
tendons
d. Transitional epithelium tip of nose
9.
When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic
model is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K):
a. When death rate is greater than birth rate
b. When N/K is exactly one
c. When N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
d. When N/K equals zero
10. Which one of the following statements is not true
a. Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
b. Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
c. Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
d. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
11. Which one of the following statements is wrong
a. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
b. Cyanobacteria are also called blue –green algae
c. Golden algae are also called desmids
d. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
12. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:
a. Ethylene
b. ABA
c. GA3
d. IAA
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13. Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird?
a. Flipper of whale
b. Dorsal fin of a shark
c. Wing of a moth
d. Hind limb of rabbit
14. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery i:
a. Less than that in the venae cavae
b. Same as that in the aorta
c. More than that in the carotid
d. More than that in the pulmonary vein
15. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if
a. The sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
b. The sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
c. The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of
the fallopian tube
d. The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of
the cervix
16. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:
a. Diplotene
b. Pachytene
c. Leptotene
d. Zygotene
17. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom
a. Animalia
b. Monera
c. Protista
d. Fungi
18. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustain muscle contraction is know s
a. Tonus
b. Spasm
c. Fatigue
d. Tetanus
19. Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’
a. Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH
b. Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin
c. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
d. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of L.H
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20. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking
a. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Emphysema
c. Asthma
d. Respiratory acidosis
21. Which of the following most appropriately describes hemophilia?
a. Dominant gene disorder
b. Recessive gene disorder
c. X- linked recessive gene disorder
d. Chromosomal disorder
22. Select the correct statement
a. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
b. Gymnosperms are both homosporus and heterosporus
c. Salvinia, Ginkkgo and pinus all are gymnosperms
d. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
23. Which of the following is required as inducer (s) for the expression of Lac operson?
a. Lactose and galactose
b. Glucose
c. Galactose
d. Lactose
24. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant.
When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of
a. 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall
b. 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous: Dwarf
c. 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous :: Dwarf
d. 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf
25. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyme incognita?
a. Root
b. Flower
c. Leaf
d. Steam
26. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
a. Synapsis
b. Spindle fibres
c. Disappearance of nucleolus
d. Chromosome movement
27. Which o f the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Multations inhibit production of telomerase
Multations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle
Mutations destroy telecomerase inhibitor
Multations inactivate the cell control
28. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is
a. Hemicelluloses
b. Chitin
c. Peptidoglycan
d. Cellulose
29. Cotyledon of maize grain is called
a. Scutellum
b. Plumule
c. Colerhiza
d. Coleoptile
30. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks
a. Green algae
b. Lichens
c. Liverworts
d. Mosses
31. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:
a. Progesterone and inhibin
b. Estrogen and progesterone
c. Estrogen and inhibin
d. Progesterone only
32. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into
the body contain
a. Attenuated pathogens
b. Activated pathogens
c. Harvested antibodies
d. Gamma globulin
33. Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:
a. Transducin and Retinence
b. Guanosine and Retinol
c. Opsin and Retinal
d. Opsin and Retinol
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34. Specialized epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells re called
a. Lenticels
b. Complementary cells
c. Subsidiary cells
d. Bulliform cells
35. Which of the following features is not present in the phylum – Arthropoda?
a. Jointed appendages
b. Chitinous exoskeletion
c. Metameric segmentation
d. Parapodia
36. Reduction in pH of blood will:
a. Release bicarbonate ions by the liver
b. Reduce the rate of heart beat
c. Reduce the blood supply to the brain
d. Decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
37. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of
animals?
1
3 – chambered heart with one Reptilia
incompletely divided ventricle
2
Cartilaginous
Chondrichthyes
Endoskeleton
3
Viviparous
Mammalia
4
Posses a mouth with an upper and a Chordata
lower jaw
38. Match the term in column I with their description in Column II and choose the correct option:
Column I
Column II
a. Dominance
i) many gene govern a single character
b. Codominance
ii) in a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses
itself
c. Pleiotropy
iii) in a heterozygous organism both alleles express
themselves fully
d. Polygenic inheritance
iv) A single gene influences many characters
39. A typical fat molecule is made up of:
a. Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
b. Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecular
c. One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
d. One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
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40. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:
a. Thalamus or petal
b. Anther
c. Connective
d. Placenta
41. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
a. Glycine is sulphur containing amino acid
b. Sucrose is disaccharide
c. Cellulose is a polysaccharide
d. Uracil is pyramiding
42. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same
stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuse into the plant during photosysnthesis. Reason out the
above statements using one of flowing options
a. One process occurs during day time, and the other a night
b. Both processes cannot happen simultaneously
c. Both process can happen together because the diffusion coefficient water and CO2 is
different
d. The above processes happen only during night time
43. A complex of ribosmes attached to single strand of RNA is known as:
a. Okazaki fragment
b. Polysome
c. Polymer
d. Polypeptide
44. Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?
a. Ecological succession
b. Absence of soil organisms
c. Least genetic diversity
d. Absence of weeds
45. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to
extinction?
a. Co- extinctions
b. Over – exploitation
c. Alien species invasion
d. Habitat loss and fragmentation
46. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Antennae complex
Stroma
Lumen of thylakoids
Inter membrane space
47. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA finger printing available
at present?
a. DNA – DNA hybridization
b. Polymerase chain reaction
c. Zinc finger analysis
d. Restriction enzymes
48. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant
animals, include the:
a. Eubacteria
b. Halophiles
c. Thermoacidphiles
d. Methanogen
49. Which of the following features is not present in periplaneta Americana?
a. Metamerically segmented body
b. Schizocoelom as body cavity
c. Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
d. Exoskeleton composed of N –acetylglucosamine
50. A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is
called
a. Shifting agriculture
b. Ley farming
c. Contour farming
d. Strip farming
51. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Microbe
product
1 Clostridium
Lipase
butylicum
2 Trichoderma
Cyclosporine A
polysporum
3 Monascus
Stains
Purpurcus
4 Streptococcus
Streptokinase
Application
Removal of oil stains
Immunosuppressive
drug
Lowering of blood
cholesterol
Removal of clot from
blood vessel
52. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
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a. Hepatic portal vein
b. Renal vein
c. Dorsal Aorta
d. Hepatic Vein
53. Pick out the correct statements:
a. Haemophilia is a sex- linked recessive disease.
b. Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
c. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
d. Sickle cell anaemia is an X linked recessive gene disorder
A.
B.
C.
D.
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
(a) and (d) are correct
(b) and (d) are correct.
(a), (c) and (d) are correct
54. Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum
a. Sphincter of Oddi
b. Semilunar valve
c. Ileocaecal valve
d. Phyloric sphincter
55. Microtubules are the constituents of
a. Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
b. Cilia, flagella and Peroxisomes
c. Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
d. Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
56. The coconut water from tender coconut represents:
a. Free nuclear endosperm
b. Endocarp
c. Fleshy mesocarp
d. Free nuclear proembryo
57. Tricarpellary, Syncarpous gynoecium is found in flower of:
a. Poaceae
b. Liliaceae
c. Solanaceae
d. Fabaceae
58. Which of the following is not a stem modification?
a. Flattened structures of Opuntia
b. Pitcher of Nepenthes
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c. Thorns of citrus
d. Tendrils of cucumber
59. The tag polymerase enzyme is obtained from
a. Pseudomonas putida
b. Thermos aquatics
c. Thiobacillus ferroxidans
d. Bacillus subtilis
60. Stems modified into flat green organ performing the functions of leaves are known as
a. Scales
b. Cladodes
c. Phyllodes
d. Phylloclade
61. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self – cells and non – self. If this
property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self – cells, then it leads to :
a. Active immunity
b. Allergic response
c. Graft rejection
d. Auto-immune disease
62. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules which one of the following is contrary to the
rules of nomenclature?
a. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
b. Biological names can be written in any language
c. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a
specific epithet
d. The names are written in Latin and are italicised
63. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:
a. Water
b. Wind
c. Insects
d. Birds
64. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect
a. It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
b. It is usually done when a woman is between 14 - 16 weeks pregnant
c. It is used for prenatal sex determination
d. It can be used for detection of down syndrome
65. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:
a. Acidic cells
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b. Gastrin secreting cells
c. Parietal cells
d. Peptic cells
66. Spindle fibres attach on to:
a. Kinetosome of the chromosome
b. Telomere of the chromosome
c. Kinetochore of the chromosome
d. Centromere of the chrome
67. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
a. Sea - horse
b. Gangetic shark
c. River dolphin
d. Blue whale
68. Which one of the following cells organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
a. Nuclei
b. Mitochondria
c. Chloroplasts
d. Lysosomes
69. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:
a. Disulphide bridge
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Phosphoidiester bond
d. Covalent bond
70. In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?
a. Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus
b. Boron, copper, molybdenum
c. Iron, copper, molybdenum
d. Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
71. Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?
a. Their RNA is of high molecular weight
b. They lack a protein coat
c. They are smaller than viruses
d. They cause infections
72. Analogous structures are a result of:
a. Stabilizing selection
b. Divergent evolution
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c. Convergent evolution
d. Shared ancestry
73. Select the incorrect statement
a. LH trigger secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells
b. FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
c. LH triggers ovulation in ovary
d. LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
74. Which one of the following characteristic is not shared by birds and mammals?
a. Warm blooded nature
b. Ossified endoskeleton
c. Breathing using lungs
d. Viviparity
75. Which of the following statements is not correct
a. Some reptile have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.
b. Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one
pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.
c. Inspects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called
pollen/ nectar robbers.
d. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of
pollen interacting with those of the pistil.
76. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of:
a. Apomixis
b. Sporulation
c. Budding
d. Somatic hybridization
77. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
1
Vasectomy
Prevents spermatogenesis
2
Barrier methods
Prevent fertilization
3
Intra uterine devices
Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress
sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of
sperms
4
Hormonal
Prevent/ retard entry of sperms, prevent
contraceptives
ovulation and fertilization
78. The amino acid tryptophan is the procures for the synthesis of:
a. Cortisol and Cortisone
b. Metlatonin and Serotonin
c. Throxine and triidothyronine
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d. Estrogen and progesterone
79. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
a. Death of fish due to lack of oxygen
b. Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom
c. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms
d. An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients
80. Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that:
a. Larger organism exclude smaller ones through competitions
b. More abundant species will exclude the less abdundant species through competition
c. Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
d. No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources
81. Asthama may be attributed to
a. Accumulation of fluid in the lungs
b. Bacterial infection of the lungs
c. Allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
d. Inflammation of the trachea
82. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called:
a. Corona
b. Carina
c. Pappus
d. Vexillum
83. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
a. RNase
b. Hind II
c. Protease
d. DNase I
84. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:
a. The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals
b. It is easier to carry a small body weight
c. Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate
d. Small animals have lower O2 requirement
85. Following regarding the two statements regarding the origin of life
a. The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non – green and presumably
anaerobes
b. The first autotrophic organism were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen
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Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Both (a) and (b) are false
(a) is correct but (b) is false
(b) is correct but (a) is false
Both (a) and (b) are correct
86. A cell telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his
teacher that this cells is not like other cells are telophase stage there is no formation of cell plate
and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes are compared to other dividing
cells. This would result in
a. Polyteny
b. Aneuploidy
c. Polyploidy
d. Somaclonal variation
87. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence o skin cancer
a. Methane
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Ozone
d. Ammonia
88. Joint forest Management Concept was introduced in India during
a. 1990s
b. 1960s
c. 1970s
d. 1980s
89. Which one of the following is the starter codon?
a. UAG
b. AUG
c. UGA
d. UAA
90. The term ecosystem was coined by
a. E. Warming
b. E.P Odum
c. A.G Tansley
d. E. Haeckel
91. What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R
so that it can complete the loop?
a.
5𝑔𝑅
b.
𝑔𝑅
c.
2𝑔𝑅
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d.
3𝑔𝑅
92. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two
vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
a. 180:
b. 0:
c. 90:
d. 45:
93. At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are -5.4 X
107 Jkg-2 and 6.0 ms-2 respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km:
a. 2000 km
b. 2600 km
c. 160 km
d. 1400 km
94. A long Solenoid has 1000 turns, when a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked
with each turn of the solenoid is 4 X10-3 web. The self –inductance of the solenoid is
a. 1 H
b. 4 H
c. 3 H
d. 2 H
95. An inductor 20m H, a capacitor 50 𝜇 F and resistor 40Ω are connected in series across a source of
emf V=10 sin 340 t. the power loss in A.C circuit is:
a. 0.89 w
b. 0.51 w
c. 0.67 w
d. 0.76 w
96. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of
lengths l, are initially at a distanced (d<<l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges
begins to leak from both the sphere at a constant rate. As a result the spheres approach each
other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function o the distance x between the spheres, as:
1
a. v ∞ x⁻ᴵ
97.
b. v ∞ 𝑥 2
1
1
c. v ∞ x
2
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d. v ∞ 𝑥⁻2
s
8 𝜇𝐹
V
2𝜇𝐹
A capacitor of 2 𝜇𝐹is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position
2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:
a) 80%
b) 0%
c) 20%
d) 75%
98. A particle moves so that its potion vector is given by 𝑟 = cos wt 𝑥 + sin wt 𝑦. Where w is a
constant
Which of the following is true
a) Velocity is perpendicular to 𝑟 and acceleration is directed away from the origin
b) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r
c) Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to 𝑟
d) Velocity is perpendicular to 𝑟 and acceleration is directed toward the origin
99. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the
centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a
perpendicular axis, passing through the centre
a. 9 MR²/32
b. 15 MR²/32
c. 13 MR²/32
d. 11 MR²/32
100. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (𝑣𝑒 ) to the escape velocity at a planet (𝑣𝑝 ) whose radius
and mean density are twice as that of earth is
a) 1 : 2
b) 1 : 2
2
c) 1 : 2
d) 1 : 4
101. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it.
Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction.
The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two
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cases.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The ratio of emf’s is
3:2
5:1
5:4
3:4
102. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff a
speed of 15 ms⁻1. Then the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected
from the cliff is: ( take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms‾1)
a) 885 Hz
b) 765 Hz
c) 800 Hz
d) 838 Hz
103. To get output 1 for the following circuit the correct choice for the input is
a.
b.
c.
d.
A=1, B =0, C=1
A=0, B=1, C= 0
A=1, B=0, C= 0
A=1, B=1, C= 0
104. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width ‘a’ the first minimum is observed at an
angle 30 : when light of wavelength 5000 A: is incident on the slit. The first secondary
maximum is observed at an angle of
a. Sin⁻ᴵ
b. Sin⁻ᴵ
c. Sin⁻ᴵ
d. Sin⁻ᴵ
3
4
1
4
2
3
1
2
105. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength A, the stopping
potential is V. If the am surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2𝜆, the stopping
𝑣
potential is 4 . The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
a. 3 𝜆
b. 4 𝜆
c. 5 𝜆
d.
5
2
𝜆
106. When an 𝛼 particle of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘v’ bombards on a heavy nucleolus
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charge ‘Ze’ its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as
a. m
b.
c.
d.
107.
1
𝑚
1
𝑚
1
𝑚²
Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2 (where is the magnification produced
by the mirror)
Column I
Column 2
A. m = -2
(a) Convex Mirror
B. m = -
1
2
C. m = +2
D. m =
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
+2
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Real image
(d) Virtual image
A→c and d; B →b and d; C→b and c; D→a and d
A→b and c; B →b and c; C→b and d; D→a and d
A→a and c; B →a and d; C→a and b; D→c and d
A→c and d; B →b and c; C→b and d; D→b and c
108.
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential
acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle
becomes equal to 8 X 10⁻4J by the end of the second revaluation after the beginning of the
motion?
a. 0.2 m /s2
b. 0.1 m /s2
c. 0.15 m/s2
d. 0.18 m/s2
109.
A small signal voltage V(t) =V0 sin wt is applied across an ideal capacitor C
a. Current I (t) leads voltage V(t) by 180:
b. Current I (t) leads voltage V(t) by 90:
c. Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source.
d. Current (t) is in phase with voltage V(t)
110.
A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same
altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first
a. Depends on their masses
b. Disk
c. Sphere
d. Both reach at the same time
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111.
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are 𝛼 2. Lengths of brass and steel rods are
𝑙1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑙2 respectively. If (𝑙2 −𝑙1 ) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the
following relations holds good?
a. 𝛼₁𝑙1 = 𝛼₂𝑙₂
b. 𝛼₁𝑙2 = 𝛼₂𝑙1
c. 𝛼₁ 𝑙22 = 𝛼₂ 𝑙12
d. 𝛼12 𝑙2 = 𝛼22 𝑙1
112.
A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal length 40 cm and 4 cm respectively.
To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance
a. 54.0 cm
b. 37.3 cm
c. 46.0 cm
d. 50.0 cm
113.
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular
to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant
angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s⁻² .Its ne acceleration in ms⁻² at the end of 2.0 s is approximately
a. 3.0
b. 8.0
c. 7.0
d. 6.0
114.
A refrigerator works between 4:C and 30:C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every
second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required
is (take 1 cal =4.2 joules)
a. 2365 w
b. 2.365 w
c. 23.65 w
d. 236.5 w
115.
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed
separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. then
a. Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic
process) required more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas
b. Compressing the gas isothermally will required more work to be done
c. Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done
d. Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work
116.
The intensity at the maximum at the maximum in Young’s double slit experiment is 𝐼0 .
Distance between two slits is d= 5𝜆, where 𝜆 is the wavelength of light used in the
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experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a
distance D = 10 d?
a.
𝐼0
2
b. 𝐼0
c.
d.
𝐼0
4
3
𝐼
4 0
117.
Two non –mixing liquids of densities 𝜌 and n𝜌 (N>1) are put in a container. The height of each
liquid is h. solid cylinder of length L and density is put in this container. The cylinder floats with
its axis vertical and length PL (P<1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to
a. 1 + 𝑛 − 1 𝑃 𝜌
b. 1 + 𝑛 + 1 𝑃 𝜌
c. 2 + 𝑛 + 1 𝑃 𝜌
d. 2 + 𝑛 − 1 𝑃 𝜌
118.
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is
+4 V
1 kΩ
-6 V
A●
●B
a. 10⁻³ A
b. 0 A
c. 10⁻² A
d. 10⁻ᴵ A
119.
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. the road is banked at an angle 𝜃 . the coefficient
of friction between the lyres of the car and the road is 𝜇s. the maximum safe velocity on this
road is
a.
𝑔 𝜇 𝑠 +𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
𝑅² 1−𝜇 𝑠 tan 𝜃
𝜇 +𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
b.
𝑠
𝑔𝑅² 1−𝜇
c.
𝑠
𝑔𝑅 1−𝜇
d.
𝑠 tan
𝜃
𝜇 +𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
𝑠 tan
𝜃
𝑔 𝜇 𝑠 +𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
𝑅 1−𝜇 𝑠 tan 𝜃
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120.
A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. the current is uniformly distributed
𝑎
over its cross- section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B’, at radial distances 2 and 2a
respectively, from the axis of the wire is
a. 4
b.
c.
1
4
1
2
d. 1
121.
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107m-1 the wave number of the last line of the Balmer
series in hydrogen spectrum will be
a. 2.5 X 107 m⁻1
b. 0.025 X 104 m⁻1
c. 0.5 X 107 m⁻1
d. 0.25 X 107 m⁻1
122.
If the velocity of a particle is v= At+Bt2, where A and B are constant, then the distance travelleed
by it between 1s and 2s is
a.
b.
A B
+
2 3
3
A+
2
4B
c. 3 A + 7 B
d.
123.
3
2
7
A+3B
The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45 0. The angle of
prism is 600. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum
deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively are
a. 30:;
b. 45: ;
1
2
1
2
c. 30:; 2
d. 45:; 2
124.
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s velocity of 200 ms⁻ᴵ at 27: C and 1.5 X 105
Nm-2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 1270 C and
0.05 X 105Nm−2 , the r.m.s velocity of its molecules in ms⁻1 is
a.
b.
100
3
100 2
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125.
126.
127.
c.
400
3
d.
100 2
3
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the
smallest length of the column is 50 cm. the next larger length of the column resonating with the
same tuning fork is:
a. 200 cm
b. 66.7 cm
c. 100 cm
d. 150 cm
The magnetic susceptibility is negative for
a. Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
b. Diamagnetic material only
c. Paramagnetic material only
d. Ferromagnetic material only
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. the ratio of de- Broglie wavelengths
Associated with them is:
1
a.
1 2𝑚 2
𝑐 𝐸
b.
1 𝐸 2
𝑐 2𝑚
c.
E 2
2m
1
1
d. C 2mE
128.
1
2
A body of amass 1 kg begins to move under the reaction of a time dependent force
𝐹 = (2t𝑖 + 3t2 𝑗) N, where 𝑖 and 𝑗 are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be
developed by the force at the time?
a. (2t3 + 3t5) w
b. (2t2 + 3t3) w
c. (2t2 + 3t4) w
d. (2t3 + 3t4) w
129.
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at –bt2 where a and b are
positive constant. The total heat produced in R is
a.
𝑎³ 𝑅
𝑏
b.
𝑎³𝑅
6𝑏
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c.
𝑎³ 𝑅
3𝑏
d.
𝑎³ 𝑅
2𝑏
130.
A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in given amplifier. A load
resistance of 800Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If
the current voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input
resistance of the circuit is 192Ω, the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will
respectively be
a. 4,3.69
b. 4,3.84
c. 3.69,3.84
d. 4, 4
131.
A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one – quarter of the heat
produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The
value of h is (Latent heat of ice is 3.4 X 105) / kg and g = 10 N/kg)
a. 68 km
b. 34 km
c. 544 km
d. 136 km
A square loop ABCD carrying a current I, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight
conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will
132.
Y
B
C
L
i
I
A
D
X
a.
𝜇 0 𝐼𝑖𝐿
2𝜋
b.
2𝜇 0 𝐼𝑖
3𝜋
c.
𝜇 0 𝐼𝑖
2𝜋
d.
2𝜇 0 𝐼𝑖𝐿
3𝜋
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133.
A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass
m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 𝜆₁ is produced at
the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is
𝜆2. The ratio 𝜆2/ 𝜆1 is:
a.
m₁+m₂
m₁
b.
m₁
m₂
c.
m₁+m₂
m₂
d.
m₂
m₁
134.
A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. the energy of radiation emitted by the body at
wavelength 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien’s constant
b=2.88 X 10 6 nmk . Which of the following is correct?
a. U2 > U1
b. U1 = 0
c. U3 = 0
d. U1 > U2
135.
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic
wave?
a. An accelerating charge
b. A charge moving at constant velocity
c. A stationary charge
d. A chargeless particle
136.
Which one of the following characteristic is associated with adsorption?
a. ∆G and ∆S are negative but ∆H is positive
b. ∆G is negative but ∆H and ∆S are positive
c. ∆G , ∆H and ∆S all are negative
d. ∆G and ∆H are negative but ∆H is positive
137.
The pressure of H2 – electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is:
a. 10-4 atm
b. 10-14 atm
c. 10-12 atm
d. 10-10 atm
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138.
The addition of catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
a. Activation energy
b. Entropy
c. Internal energy
d. Enthalpy
139.
For the following reactions:
A. CH3CH2CH2Br = KOH → CH3CH = CH2+KBr + H2O
B. H3C CH3
H3C CH3
+ KOH
+ KBr
Br
OH
Br
C.
+ Br2
Br
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
(a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions
(a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction
(a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction
(a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions
140.
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is
a. Aromatic acid
b. Stiff base
c. Ketone
d. Carboxylic acid
141.
The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is
a. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in
arylamines is sp – hybridized
b. Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone –pair
electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring 𝜋 electron system
c. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone – pair
electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring 𝜋 electron system
d. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group
142.
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin – hole through
which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one – half
of the hydrogen to escape
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a.
b.
c.
d.
½
1/8
1/8
3/8
143.
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of
ethane, is
a. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation,
because staggered conformation has no torsional strain
b. The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because
staggered conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain
c. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation ,
because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain
d. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even
though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain
144.
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of
properly indicated against it?
a. Li < Na < K< Rb (increasing metallic radius)
b. Al3+ + < Mg2+ <Na+ <F- ( increasing ionic size)
c. B <C <N <O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
d. I<Br<CI<F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
145.
The rate of a first – order reaction is 0.04 mol l ⁻ᴵ s-1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol l-1 at 20 seconds
after initiation of the reaction. The half – life period of the reaction is
a. 54.1 s
b. 24.1 s
c. 34.1 s
d. 44.1 s
146.
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces:
a. Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
b. Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
c. Cu(NO3)2 and NO
d. Cu(NO3)2, NO and N2O
147.
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by
a. Dative bond
b. 𝛼 - glycosidic bond
c. 𝛽- glycosidic bond
d. Peptide bond
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148.
Fog is a colloidal solution of :
a. Gas in gas
b. Liquid in gas
c. Gas in liquid
d. Solid in gas
149.
Match items of Column I with the items of Colum II and assign the correct code
Column I
Column II
a Cyanide process
i Ultrapure Ge
b Froth floatation process
Ii Dressing of ZnS
c Eletrolytic reduction
Iii Extraction of AI
d Zone refining
iv Extraction of Au
Purification of Ni
Code:
1.
2.
3.
4.
(a)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
(i)
(b)
(iv)
(ii)
(iii)
(ii)
(c)
(v)
(iii)
(i)
(iii)
(d)
(i)
(i)
(v)
(iv)
150.
Which one given below is a non –reducing sugar?
a. Suucrose
b. Maltose
c. Latose
d. Glucose
151.
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is
a. The sugar component in RNA is 2’ – dexyribose and the sugar component in DNA is
arabinose
b. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’
deoxyribose
c. The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’ deoxyribose
d. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
152.
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is
a. ∆ H< 0 and ∆ S <0
b. ∆ H< 0 and ∆ S =0
c. ∆ H> 0 and ∆ S <0
d. ∆ H< 0 and ∆ S >0
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153.
Which is the correct statement for the given acids
a. Photosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid
b. Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
c. Both are diprotic acids
d. Both are triprotic acids
154.
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 X 10-13 at room
temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY3
a. The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their
solubilities
b. The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical
c. The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3
d. The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 KY than in pure water
155.
Which of the following is an analgesic
a. Chloromycetin
b. Novalgin
c. Penicillin
d. Streptomycin
156.
The pair of electron in the given carbanion CH3 C≡ C is present in which of the following
orbitals?
a. Sp
b. 2p
c. Sp3
d. Sp2
157.
Among the following, the correct order of acidity is:
a. HClO4 <HClO2 <HCIO <HClO3
b. HClO3 <HClO4 <HCIO2 <HClO3
c. HClO <HClO2 <HCIO3 <HClO3
d. HClO2 <HClO <HCIO3 <HClO3
158.
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2 O7
solution?
a. Green Cr2 (SO4)3 is formed
b. The solution turns blue
c. The solution is decolorized
d. SO2 is reduced
159.
Predict the correct order among the following
a. Ione pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
b. Ione pair – lond pair > lond pair – bond pair > bone pair – bone pair
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c. Ione pair – lond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bone pair
d. bone pair – bond pair > lond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
160.
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by
a. Spin quantum number
b. Principal quantum number
c. Magnetic quantum number
d. Azimuthal quantum number
161.
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with Ca C2 is
a. Ca2 CN
b. Ca (CN)2
c. Ca CN
d. Ca CN3
162.
Nature rubber has
a. Random cis – and trans- configuration
b. All –cis configuration
c. All trans – configuration
d. Alternate cis –and trans –configuration
163.
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules?
a. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
b. I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
c. Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
d. Br2 > I2 > F2> Cl2
164.
The reaction
Can be classified as
a. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
b. Williamson ether synthesis’ reaction
c. Alcohol formation reaction
d. Dehydration reaction
165.
Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m⁻3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol -1.
Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium inetal. (NA =6.02 X 10 23 mol -1 )
a. 264 pm
b. 154 pm
c. 352 pm
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166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
d. 527 pm
The ionic radii of A+ and B⁻ ions are 0.98 X 10-10m. the coordination number of each ion in AB is:
a. 2
b. 6
c. 4
d. 8
At 100: C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. if Kb =
0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be
a. 103⁰C
b. 101⁰C
c. 100⁰C
d. 102 ⁰C
The electronic configuration of Eu (Atomic No.63), Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No.65) are
a. X e 4f 76s 2, X e 4f 7 5d1 6s2 and X e 4f 9 6s2
b.
X e 4f 76s 2, X e 4f 8 6s2 and X e 4f 85d1 6s2
c.
X e 4f 6 5d1 6s 2, X e 4f7 5d1 6s2 and X e 4f9 6s2
d.
X e 4f 6 5d16s 2, X e 4f7 5d1 6s2 and X e 4f 8 5d1 6s2
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect?
a. Dihydroen does not act as a reducing agent
b. Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common
c. Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
d. Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution
In the reaction
H-C=CH
1 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝐻 ₂/𝑙𝑖𝑞 .𝑁𝐻3
2 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟
X
1 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝐻 ₂/𝑙𝑖𝑞 .𝑁𝐻3
2 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟
Y
X and Y are:
a. X = 1 – Butyne; Y = 2 – Hexyne
b. X = 1 – Butyne; Y = 3- Hexyne
c. X = 2- Butyne; Y = 3 – Hexyne
d. X= 2 – Butyne; Y= 2 - Hexyne
171.
Consider the following liquid –vapour equilibrium
liquid↔ Vapour
which of the following relations is correct
a.
𝑑𝑙𝑛 𝑃
∆𝐻
= 𝑅𝑇²𝑣
𝑑𝑇
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b.
𝑑𝑙𝑛 𝐺
𝑑𝑇²
= 𝑅𝑇²𝑣
c.
𝑑𝑙𝑛 𝑃
𝑑𝑇
=
d.
∆𝐻
−∆𝐻𝑣
𝑅𝑇
𝑑𝑙𝑛 𝑃 −∆𝐻𝑣
= 𝑇²
𝑑𝑇²
172.
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapouur over an ideal 1. 1 molar
mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at
25:C.(Given, Vapour Pressure Data at 25:C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, tolune =3.85 kpa)
a. Not enough information is given to make a prediction
b. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene
c. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
d. The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene
173.
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active
CH3
a.
CH3
O2N
b.
I
Br
Br
c.
I
I
I
d.
174.
I
Which of the following regents would distinguish cis – cyclopenta – 1,2 – diol from the trans –
isomer?
a. Aluminium isopropoxide
b. Acetone
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c. Ozone
d. MnO2
175.
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha carbon,
is
a. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha- carbon rapidly equilibrates
with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto –enol tautomerism
b. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon never equilibrates
with its corresponding enol
c. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha –carbon never equilibrates
with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde – ketone equilibration
d. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha –carbon rapidly equilibrates
with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation
176.
Consider the molecule CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
a. The H-C-H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H-N-H bond angle in NH3
b. The H-C-H bond angle in CH4 the H-N-H bond angle in NH3, and the H-O-H bond angle in
NH3, and the H-O-h bond angle in H2O are all greater than 900
c. The H-O-H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H-C-H bond angle in CH4
d. The H-O-H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H-N-H bond angle in NH3
177.
Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and
mark the correct option
Column I
Column II
a. XeF6
b. XeO3
c. XeOF4
d. XeF4
Distorted octahedral
square planar
Pyramidal
Square pyramidal
Code:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
178.
(a)
(iv)
(i)
(i)
(iv)
(b)
(i)
(iii)
(ii)
(iii)
(c)
(ii)
(iv)
(iv)
(i)
(d)
(iii)
(ii)
(iii)
(ii)
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2NO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is added
to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:
a. Doubled
b. Faster
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c. Slower
d. Unchanged
179.
Which of the following statements is false
a. Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of plants
b. Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP
c. Ca2+ ions are important in maintaining
d. Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart
180.
Which of the following has longest C-O bond length? (Free C-O bond length in CO is 1.128 A)
a. 𝑀𝑛 𝐶𝑂 ₆ +
b. 𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂)4
c. 𝐶𝑜 𝐶𝑂 ₄
d. 𝐹𝑒 𝐶𝑂 ₄ 2-
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