Red Quiz 1
Lessons 1, 2, 3, 4, Labs 1, 2
Please supply the requested information.
1. Name the English gentleman who was responsible for the three laws of motion that serve as
the foundation of classical physics. Sir Isaac Newton
2. If you were able to let go of a ball in outer space, far away from the influence of gravity,
without pushing it in any particular direction, would the ball remain in that exact spot or
would it move in one direction or another? It would stay exactly where it is put.
3. If a book were placed in your hand and you could measure the force applied to your hand by
the book, could you determine how much force your hand was applying to the book? Yes.
The force would be exactly equal to that applied to your hand.
4. How many decimeters are in one meter? 10
5. How many centimeters are in one meter? 100
Match the three laws of motion with the word or phrase that best describes it:
6.
c
First Law
a. equal and opposite
7.
b Second Law
b. F = ma
8.
a Third Law
c. inertia
Match each word or phrase with the definition or description that best fits it:
9.
e
gravity
a. the entire range of gravitational influence
10.
g
force
b. a rate of increase or decrease in the rate of travel
11.
d
velocity
c. a ball, thrown upward, continues upward after it is released
12.
b
acceleration
d. a rate of travel
13.
a
gravitational field
e. the natural force of attraction between any two masses
14.
c
inertia
f. gravitational acceleration constant
15.
f
2
9.8 m/sec
g. a natural push or pull
Circle the best response(s).
16. The farther an object falls under gravity the greater will be its velocity by the end of its
travel.
17. Objects falling under the influence of gravity will fall with a constant acceleration.
18. Galileo, the Italian student of nature, lived in which century? 1600’s
19. In its third second of fall, an object falling under gravity will fall at a velocity of 29.4 m/sec.
20. A ball thrown upward approaches its lowest velocity when it reaches its highest point from
the ground.
21. Two cannon balls of different masses, when dropped from the Leaning Tower of Pizza will
hit the ground at the same time.
22. If an object having a mass of 1 gram were pushed so that it accelerated at a rate of 1 meter
per second for each second of the push, what was the force of the push?
a.
b.
c.
d.
F = 1 gram × 1 meter per second for every second of the fall
F = 1 gram + 1 meter per second for every second of the fall
F = 0.5 gram × 1 meter per second
F = 1 gram
Note to the teacher: later in physics students will learn a technical distinction between speed
and velocity—speed is simply a quantity that tells ―how fast?‖ whereas velocity implies a
direction and a speed, or ―how fast in which direction?‖ We say that speed is a ―scalar‖
quantity (one dimensional) while velocity is a vector (two dimensional) quantity. We needn’t
complicate the discussion with this distinction at this point in their understanding.
Red Quiz 2
Lessons 5, 6, 7, 8, Labs 3, 4
Circle the letter corresponding to the correct response(s).
1. Two lines running side by side and that are the same distance from one another at all adjacent
points are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
orbital
purple
perpendicular
parallel
2. Substances that flow are called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
solids
flowers
fluids
oozers
3. Fluids have a tendency to travel in complex motions that result from being compressed
(squished together) in one place while spreading out in another. This pattern of compression
and decompression is described as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
wave motion
orbital motion
linear motion
slinky motion
4. A branch of mathematics that deals with waves and curves is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
fluidometry
ergonometry
trigonometry
waveometry
5. Work is often defined as the application of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
force over mass
force over a distance
energy over a force
distance over time
6. Simple machines have the ability to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
increase the output of work
increase the output of energy
increase the output of force
increase the output of people
7. The price you pay for this increase is paid by an increase in:
a.
b.
c.
d.
distance
energy
work
people
Choose the best answers from among the words at the end. You may use a word more than once.
8. A satellite travels around the earth in a circular pattern. This is because of two influences in
different directions. First, its own inertia makes it tend to continue in a straight line, but
gravity continually pulls it toward the center of the earth. The resulting motion is called a(n)
orbit. All the planets circle the sun in this type of motion as does the moon around the earth.
9. In science, a word that is used to describe a particular part of the universe we wish to
consider is the word system.
10. Of the two kinds of energy, stored energy is called potential energy.
11. Of the two kinds of energy, energy of motion is called kinetic energy.
12. The amount of potential energy in a system has the tendency to decrease. This represents
a(n) decrease in the level of organization of the system.
13. A slinky is a good example of a solid material which displays wave motion, which is typical
of fluids.
14. A slinky or a jump rope, when twirled from the ends has a tendency to form a number of
waves at evenly-spaced distances. Those waves are called standing waves, and they are
separated by evenly spaced points between waves that are called nodes.
15. A force pulling an object toward the center of its orbit is called a centripetal force.
16. The price paid for doing work is called energy. The amount you pay is directly related to the
amount of work that is done, although you may lose some to heat if your system is
inefficient.
jumping, centripetal, wiggly, central, system, bumps, kinetic, stored, frenetic, linear, wave,
orbital, inertia, sitting, standing, potential, nodes, knots, decrease, increase, not-movey thingies,
centripetal, toward-the-middle force, gravity, orbit, energy, dollars, friction, dereliction
Red Quiz 3
Lessons 9, 10, 11, 12, Labs 5, 6
True or false?
1. The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot change forms. false
2. Anytime we do work against a force (such as gravity), we pay for that work with energy. true
3. Falling water can be used to turn generators. This takes the potential energy from the
generator and passes it on to the falling water. false
4. A resistance converts heat energy into electricity. false
5. A light bulb uses a filament made from tungsten to convert electrical energy to light. true
6. The explosion of an atomic bomb is an example of a conversion of mass-energy to heat, light
and kinetic energy. true
7. The hot dogs we eat provide us with energy in the form of chemical bonds. true
8. In the real world, it is possible to transfer energy perfectly from one marble to another such
that no energy is lost to the surroundings in the form of sound or heat. false
Match the following energy changes with the devices that cause them:
9.
f
electrical energy to light energy
10.
d chemical energy to light energy
b. hydroelectric dam
11.
a chemical energy to gravitational energy
c. glowing embers
12.
c
d. kerosene lamp
13.
b gravitational energy to electric energy
e. steam generator
14.
e
f. light bulb
thermal energy to light energy
thermal energy to electric energy
a. rocket engine
Red Quiz 4
Lessons 13, 14, 15, 16, Labs 7, 8
Select the best response(s) from the list below.
1. Name the four natural forces.
gravitation
electromagnetism
the strong nuclear force
the weak nuclear force
2. Particles having like charges repel one another.
3. Particles having unlike charges attract one another.
4. The force that is seen in the presence of all large masses is gravitation.
5. Electricity that flows through a conductive medium is called electric current, while electrical
charges that are simply accumulated in one location are called static (―staying‖) charges.
6. Name the three types of particles that make up atoms.
protons
neutrons
electrons
static, gravitation, strong nuclear, weak nuclear, medium nuclear, energy, work, distance, repel,
repulse, attract, adore, proton, boson, lepton, electron, neuston, neutron, acceleron, intron, exon,
current, electromagnetism
True or false?
7. Gravity is a natural pull with no push. true
8. The electromagnetic force pushes but does not pull. false
9. Electric current flows from a location of high potential energy to an area of low potential
energy. true
10. Work is done when nearby, opposite-charged particles are separated. true
11. Protons carry a negative charge. false
Red Quiz 5
Lessons 17, 18, 19, 20, Labs 9, 10
Select the best response(s) from the list below.
1. A electromagnetic device that is used to lock and unlock car doors automatically is called a
solenoid.
2. The range of influence of a magnet is called its magnetic field.
3. Atoms of a particular element are identified by their number of protons.
4. The nuclear force is responsible for holding several positive-charged protons in a single
nucleus.
5. The number of protons in an atom is also called its atomic number.
atoms, protons, hologram, solenoid, neutrons, selenium, molecules, pole, electrons, yard, pasture,
field, elements, nuclear, electromagnetic, gravitational, atomic number, atomic mass, mass
number
Match the following common elements with their descriptions:
6.
b iodine
a. main ingredient in a penny
7.
h oxygen
b. tincture for cuts
8.
i
aluminum
c. shiny bumpers
9.
e
neon
d. gas for party balloons
10.
a copper
e. colorful lighted signs
11.
d helium
f. radioactive gas found in basements
12.
g hydrogen
g. light, explosive gas
13.
f
radon
h. a gas in the atmosphere we must breathe in to live
14.
c
chromium
i. common kitchen foil
True or false?
15. Every electric current is accompanied by a magnetic field. true
16. Atoms are an unstable form of matter. false
17. Protons are about 2,000 times the size of electrons. true
18. A compass points toward the geographic north and south poles. false
19. The north pole of one magnet attracts the north pole of another. false
20. Skin is made up of atoms. true
21. The electromagnetic force is primarily responsible for the activity of an atomic bomb. false
22. An electromagnet is a magnetic device made by passing electrical current through a
conductor. true
Red Quiz 6
Lessons 21, 22, 23, 24, Labs 11, 12
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. Anytime work is done against a force, (potential, kinetic) energy is stored up.
2. (Deeper, Shallower) liquid is associated with greater pressure.
3. Molecules of a hot substance move (faster, slower) than molecules of the substance when it
is cold.
True or false?
4. Matter is a highly stable form of energy, but can sometimes disassemble to release huge
amounts of energy. true
5. Heat is a form of matter. false
6. In general when matter is heated, it expands. true
7. Locomotion is movement from place to place. true
8. Heat has no effect on the way matter interacts. false
Circle the letter(s) corresponding to the correct response(s).
9. Which of the following require an input of work?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
separating opposite-charged particles
pushing together opposite-charged particles
separating like-charged particles
pushing together like-charged particles
separating magnetic poles having opposite charges
pushing together magnetic poles having opposite charges
separating magnetic poles having like charges
pushing together magnetic poles having like charges
separating two earth-sized masses
pushing together two earth-sized masses
10. Which of the following are best described as fluids? (Circle all the correct responses.)
a. solids
b. liquids
c. gases
11. Which of the following are properties of fluids? (Circle all the correct responses.)
a.
b.
c.
d.
increasing pressure with increasing depth
can be suctioned and siphoned
flowing
surface tension
12. Which is the correct name of the device pictured in the textbook for detecting and measuring
radioactivity?
a. Google counter
b. Geister counter
c. Geiger counter
d. Gamma counter
13. A generator is a device that is used to take mechanical energy and convert it to what kind of
energy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
light energy
heat energy
chemical bond energy
electric energy
14. The temperature of your freezer is more likely to be set at:
a.
b.
c.
d.
-40ºC
-20ºC
0ºC
10ºC
15. The temperature of your house is comfortable at:
a.
b.
c.
d.
0ºC
20ºC
40ºC
72ºC
16. Mark each of the following forces as either ―n‖ for natural or ―a‖ for artificial:
a.
n
the force of earth pulling on the moon
b.
a
the force of a spring pushing a pogo stick upward
c.
n
the force of gravity pulling the pogo stick downward
d.
a
the force of your feet kicking a trampoline
e.
n
the force of one electron repelling another
f.
n
the force holding two protons together in the nucleus of an atom
Please provide the requested information.
17. Elements with large, unstable nuclei that give off energy are described as being radioactive.
18. In a steam engine, steam is used to turn a turbine, which turns a shaft, which operates a
generator.
19. A substance which reduces surface tension is called a surfactant.
Red Quiz 7
Lessons 25, 26, 27, 28, Labs 13, 14
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. A (photometer, refractometer) is a device that is used to measure how much light passes
through a sample. It can be used to measure how much of a chemical is present in that
sample.
2. A (photometer, refractometer) is a device that is used to measure the amount of bending of
light that occurs as it passes through a sample. It can be used to identify an unknown
substance by how much it bends light.
3. The more energetic electromagnetic radiation is, the (greater, lesser) is its degree of
refraction (bending) when it passes from one substance into another.
4. Our eyes perceive the wavelengths of light that are (absorbed into, reflected from) an object
we are observing.
5. A mirror is a device that (absorbs, reflects) light with near perfection.
6. A lens having a (shorter, longer) focal length will magnify any object to a greater extent than
a lens having a (shorter, longer) one.
True or false?
7. Light may be accurately described as self-perpetuating waves of electromagnetism. true
8. The wavelength of an electromagnetic ray is a proper expression of its energy. true
9. A long tubular light bulb is an incandescent bulb. false
10. The sun gives off both visible and invisible electromagnetic rays. true
11. Light travels at a rate of almost 200,000 miles per second. true
12. Electrons can absorb light causing them to increase in kinetic energy. true
13. The angle at which light leaves a mirror is unrelated to the angle at which it hits the mirror.
false
Number the following forms of electromagnetic radiation in their correct order from highest to
lowest energy (smallest to greatest wavelength):
14.
3 ultraviolet rays
15.
7 radio waves
16.
4 visible light
17.
1 gamma rays
18.
6 microwaves
19.
2 X rays
20.
5 infrared
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
21. Bending of light—a change in its direction that often occurs when it moves from one
substance into another—is called:
a. absorption
b. refraction
c. fraction
d. transmission
22. If an object absorbs all of the wavelengths of light except yellow and red ones, our eyes will
perceive that object as being:
a.
b.
c.
d.
a mixture of colors that does not include yellow and red, probably brown
sometimes yellow and sometimes red
red, because it is dominant
orange
23. The magnification of an object can be calculated as follows:
a.
b.
c.
d.
height of the image/height of the object
height of the object/height of the image
focal length/height of the object
focal length/height of the image
Please provide the requested information.
24. Our eyes detect only ―visible‖ light.
25. Name three things that can happen to light when it strikes an object (use the proper scientific
terms):
absorption
reflection
transmission
26. What color do we perceive when our eyes detect no light? black
27. When we detect a wide variety of wavelengths at the same time? white
Red Section Review
See Lab Workbook
*Note: The Section Reviews as closed book tests unless you allow the student to look the test
over before the start of the semester or provide some kind of study guide.
Yellow Quiz 1
Lessons 1, 2, 3, 4, Labs 1, 2
True or false?
1. Evaporation is the process that converts water vapor to liquid water. false
2. The opposite of evaporation is constipation. false
3. Mass is a measure of an amount of matter. true
4. Atomic masses are measured in AMB (atomic mass bundles). false
5. Grams are a measure of liquid volume. false
6. All liquids freeze at the same temperature. false
7. One milliliter (ml) is the same as one cubic centimeter (cm3). true
8. Aluminum is more dense than iron. false
Match the following words with their descriptions:
9.
e
atom
a. pure substance combining two or more atoms of different kinds
10.
d proton
b. pure substance combining two or more bound atoms
11.
f
electron
c. pure substance consisting of only one kind of atom
12.
c
element
d. particle in an atom carrying a positive electric charge
13.
b molecule
e. smallest stable form of matter, all matter is made up of them
14.
a compound
f. particle in an atom carrying a negative electric charge
Match the following words with their descriptions:
15.
c
solid
a. neither as stiff as a solid nor as fluid as a liquid
16.
d liquid
b. distant molecules, free motion, little attraction among molecules
17.
b gas
c. tight molecules, little motion, strong attractions among molecules
18.
a semi-solid
d. close molecules, fluid motion, neither strong nor weak attractions
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
19. The value, 6.02 × 1023, is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Avogadro’s number
the number of atoms of any element in one gram-atomic-mass of that element
both of the above
neither of the above
20. The density of any substance is correctly calculated as follows:
a.
b.
c.
d.
mass/distance
number of atoms/volume
mass/volume
volume/mass
21. The usual units of density are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
g/m
#/ml or #/cm3
g/ml or g/cm3
ml/g
22. Archimedes principle states that:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
a floating object displaces its mass in liquid
a floating object displaces its volume in liquid
a sinking object displaces its mass in liquid
a sinking object displaces its volume in liquid
a and c
a and d
b and c
b and d
all of a through d
Provide the requested information.
23. What is the normal boiling point of water in ºC? 100
24. In ºF? 212
25. What is the freezing point of water in ºC? 0
26. What is the freezing point of water in ºF? 32
27. Hot gas that results from boiling water is called steam.
28. Changes of a substance from solid to liquid, liquid to gas or any of the changes in reverse are
called changes of phase.
Yellow Quiz 2
Lessons 5, 6, 7, 8, Labs 3, 4
True or false?
1. When chemicals interact with one anther they can be said to have reacted. true
2. When shared electrons are shared equally so that they spend about the same amount of time
with each atom, the resulting atom is likely to be polar. false
3. A double bond is stronger than a triple bond. false
4. A diatomic molecule is one having two of the same kind of atom bound together. true
5. Halogens often form diatomic molecules. true
6. The lanthanoids (or lanthanides) are also called the rare earth metals. true
7. None of the actinoid (or actinide) series elements are radioactive. false
8. Polar molecules tend to dissolve readily in water. true
9. Atoms consist of a few particles moving about in mostly empty space. true
Match the following groups of atoms with their group names:
10.
e
1A
a. transition metals
11.
f
2A
b. post-transition elements
12.
a B groups
c. noble gases
13.
b 3A to 6A
d. halogens
14.
d 7A
e. alkali metals
15.
c
f. alkaline earth metals
8A
Match the following symbols with their elements:
16.
g Mg
a. iron
17.
i
Mn
b. sodium
18.
c
O
c. oxygen
19.
j
Cu
d. gold
20.
a Fe
e. potassium
21.
d Au
f. lead
22.
h Ag
g. magnesium
23.
f
Pb
h. silver
24.
e
K
i. manganese
25.
b Na
j. copper
Match the following names of molecules with their molecular formulas:
26.
b CH4
a. carbon dioxide
27.
e
b. methane
28.
a CO2
c. oxygen
29.
c
d. ethylene
30.
d C2H2
H2O
O2
e. water
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
31. A substance that can be readily shaped is said to be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
duck-like
malleable
malevolent
malletable
32. Semiconductors are found among the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
metals
metalloids
Altoids
non-metals
Provide the requested information.
33. Atoms on the far right-hand side of the periodic table that are completely satisfied with their
number and arrangement of electrons. They are called the noble gases.
34. An ion is an atom that bears a charge. A ion carrying a positive charge is called a(n) cation,
while an ion carrying a negative charge is called a(n) anion.
35. Name two types of chemical bonding: ionic, covalent
36. Which of these two types is the stronger? covalent
37. In writing a chemical equation, the reactants are shown on the left-hand side of the arrow
and the products are shown on the right-hand side.
38. List four properties of metals:
shine when polished
malleable & ductile
conduct heat
conduct electricity
Yellow Quiz 3
Lessons 9, 10, 11, 12, Labs 5, 6
True or false?
1. The combined mass of the products is always exactly the same as the combined mass of the
reactants. true
2. The amount of energy contained in the reactant molecules is the same as the amount of
energy contained in the products of a chemical reaction. false
3. A reaction equation can have different numbers of atoms on the left and right sides of the
equation and still be correct. false
Match the atoms on the left with corresponding atoms on the right with which they will combine
to form a compound:
4.
d one atom of a group 1A element
a. one atom of a group 4A element
5.
c
two atoms of a group 1A element
b. one atom of a group 5A element
6.
b three atom of a group 1A element
c. one atom of a group 6A element
7.
c
d. one atom of a group 7A element
8.
a two atoms of a group 2A element
9.
b one atom of a group 3A element
10.
a one atom of a group 4A element
one atom of a group 2A element
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
11. One water molecule (H2O) consists of:
a. one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms
b. two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom
c. not enough information to give an answer
12. If the atomic weight of hydrogen is 1 AMU and the atomic weight of carbon is 12 AMU,
then the molecular weight of methane (CH4) is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
13 AMU
14 AMU
16 AMU
16 AMU plus a toothpick
13. Which of the following is a proper, balanced reaction equation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O
2 NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O
NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2
NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O
14. Which is the proper way to complete the following reaction:

CaCl2 + Li2O 
a. CaCl2 + Li2O  CaO + 2 LiCl
b. CaCl2 + Li2O  2 CaO + LiCl
c. CaCl2 + Li2O  CaLi2 + OCl2
15. Sulfate (SO42 –) is a polyatomic ion with a 2 – charge. Ammonium (NH4+) is a polyatomic
ion with a 1 + charge. Which is the proper way to complete the following reaction:

MgSO4 + NH4Cl 
a. MgSO4 + NH4Cl  MgCl2 + NH4SO4
b. MgSO4 + NH4Cl  Mg2Cl2 + (NH4)2SO4
c. MgSO4 + 2 NH4Cl  MgCl2 + (NH4)2SO4
Provide the requested information.
16. Atoms that stay together in charged (ionic) groups that act as though they were a single
element are called polyatomic ions.
Yellow Quiz 4
Lessons 13, 14, 15, 16, Labs 7, 8
True or false?
1. Children should lose weight by fasting. false
2. Fasting causes your body to accumulate fat during times when food is available. true
3. Bodies use food molecules for generating energy for activities and for keeping itself warm.
true
4. A person should always eat anytime he/she feels hungry. false
5. There are bacteria that can use petroleum for fuel (food). true
6. The best way to lose weight is to eat less and exercise. true
7. To lose weight we will probably have to be hungry sometimes. true
Match the following carbon compounds with their descriptions:
8.
b alkane
a. a straight carbon chain with at least one side chain
9.
e
b. a carbon chain consisting of only single bonds
10.
d alkyne
c. a carbon chain in the form of a ring
11.
a branched aliphatic
d. a carbon chain having at least one triple bond
12.
c
e. a carbon chain having at least one double bond
alkene
cycloaliphatic
Place the following petroleum fractions in the correct order in which they boil off from crude oil
(the last one doesn’t boil off at all):
13.
4 motor oil
14.
2 kerosene
15.
1 gasoline
16.
3 diesel fuel
17.
5 asphalt
Circle the letter(s) corresponding to the best answer(s).
18. Natural gas is gas that comes out of wells at a petroleum field that is used in homes for fuel.
It is composed of mostly:
a.
b.
c.
d.
gasoline
butane
nitrogen
methane
19. Which of the following come from petroleum?
a.
b.
c.
d.
petrolatum
beeswax
paraffin
potato chips
20. Which of the following equations are balanced?
a. HCl + NaOH  NaCl + H2O
b. 2 NH3 + O2  2 NO + 3 H2O
c. 2 Mg + CO2  2 MgO + C
d. CH4 + H2O  CO + 3 H2
Provide the requested information.
21. Automobiles have a device called a catalytic converter that improves the efficiency of fuel
burning.
22. The main dangerous gas that is removed by the device in the previous question is called
carbon monoxide.
23. There are always two products from an efficient fueling reaction. What are they?
carbon dioxide
water
24. Name two kinds of molecules people use for fuel.
fats (or lipids)
sugars (or carbohydrates)
Yellow Quiz 5
Lessons 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, Labs 9, 10
Note: This test includes a fifth lesson (Lesson 21) since it makes more sense to keep all this
biochemistry together.
True or false?
1. Two things that are needed by bodies are fuel molecules and carbon dioxide. false
2. Bodies produce carbon dioxide, energy, body mass and waste. true
3. The energy produced by our bodies is used for our activities and to generate heat. true
4. If we wish to lose weight we should be more physically active and eat more to fuel that extra
activity. false
5. If we wish to gain weight we should try to stop producing waste. false
6. Two types of proteins are structural proteins and enzymes. true
7. DNA and RNA store information that is used in guiding cellular processes. true
8. Genetic engineering is a scientific discipline in which scientists manipulate polysaccharides.
false
9. Vitamin C is an oxidizing agent. false
10. Rust is the result of chemical oxidation of iron. true
11. Meat tenderizer contains enzymes that break down meat proteins. true
12. Monosodium glutamate is a form of an amino acid used to flavor foods. true
13. Dextrose is an example of a fatty acid. false
14. Soap is made from nucleic acids. false
Match the following with one of the terms on the right:
15.
a made up of ―base pairs‖
16.
c
17.
b made up of amino acids
18.
c
19.
a make up the genetic code
20.
c
21.
a made of adenine, guanine, thymine, cytosine
22.
d made up of fatty acids
23.
c
24.
a DNA and RNA
25.
b enzymes, for example
26.
a deoxyribose and ribose sugars linked by PO42 –
27.
b collagen, for example
28.
c
a. nucleic acids
starch, for example
b. proteins
glycogen, for example
made up of sugars
c. polysaccharides
d. lipids
cellulose, for example
polymers of glucose, for example
Circle the letter(s) corresponding to the best answer(s).
29. Which of the following types of molecules have energy storage as a major function?
a.
b.
c.
d.
nucleic acids
proteins
polysaccharides
lipids
Yellow Quiz 6
Lessons 22, 23, 24, Labs 11, 12
True or false?
1. Chemical reactions take place readily in solutions because molecules of two different
substances can come into close contact with one another in solution. true
2. Polar solutes dissolve readily in non-polar solvents. false
3. True solutions are cloudy in appearance. false
4. More viscous liquids create more stable suspensions. true
5. Lakes have a considerable amount of suspended matter in them. true
6. Vegetable oil becomes less viscous when warmed. true
7. Sodium chloride is soluble in vegetable oil. false
Provide the requested information from the word list at the end.
8. Fill in the blanks to complete this sentence regarding solutions:
A solution results when a solute is dissolved in a solvent.
9. ―Likes dissolve likes.‖
10. Oil mixed into vinegar is an example of a suspension.
11. The chemists word for a thicker fluid is ―viscous.‖
solution, solvent, solute, dissolved, likes, dislikes, unlikes, solution, suspension, gluey, viscous,
tacky, gooey
Yellow Quiz 7
Lessons 25, 26, 27, 28, Labs 13, 14
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. When water ionizes, it creates H+ ions which are (acidic, basic) and OH– ions which are
(acidic, basic).
2. Evaporation of a liquid has a (warming, cooling) effect on the surface from which it
evaporates.
3. A solution having a pH of 6 is (acidic, basic, neutral).
True or false?
4. The unique nature of water keeps the temperature of the earth’s surface livable. true
5. The unique nature of water keeps lakes from freezing solid in the winter months. true
6. Blood and lymph are made of mostly protein. false
7. Water serves as a medium in which food and nutrient substances dissolve to feed living cells.
true
8. Acid/base reactions produce water and a salt. true
9. Soft drinks contain acid. true
10. Milk of magnesia works by neutralizing stomach acid. true
Circle the letter(s) corresponding to the best answer(s).
11. Which of the following are methods for separating suspensions:
a.
b.
c.
d.
filtration
settling
centrifugation
mixing
12. Which of the following reactions shows the correct, complete ionization of sodium
hydroxide:
a.
b.
c.
d.
NaOH  Na+ + O 2 – + H +
NaOH  Na+ + OH –
NaOH  NaO – + H +
none of the above
13. Which of the following reactions shows the correct way that hydrochloric acid normally
reacts with sodium hydroxide:
a.
b.
c.
d.
HCl + NaOH  NaCl + H2O
HCl + NaOH  Na+ + Cl – + H + + OH –
HCl + NaOH  NaOCl + H2
none of the above
Yellow Section Review
See Lab Workbook
Blue Quiz 1
Lessons 1, 2, 3, 4, Labs 1, 2
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. Reproduction that depends on the participation of male and female organisms of the same
kind is called (asexual, sexual) reproduction.
True or false?
2. A theory is a mental model for understanding our observations. true
3. The general theory of evolution suggests that all life evolved from a single-celled ancestor.
true
4. Most scientists classify humans as animals. true
5. Living things are different than non-living things because they do not obey the laws of
physics. false
6. Our scientific system for naming plants and animals is a ―binomial‖ system. true
7. The genome copies itself before a cell divides by a process called ―duplicity.‖ false
8. Sodium hypochlorite is added to city water to prevent the growth of harmful microbes. true
9. The gelatin that is often used to grow bacteria is called agar. true
10. Agar is layered on the inside of a special dish called a Putrid dish. false
11. A common way diseases are transmitted is by shaking hands. true
12. Chemical buffers are added to media to control the temperature. false
Place the following levels of organization of living things in order beginning with the least
organized and ending with the most highly organized:
13.
3 molecules
14.
1 subatomic particles (protons, neutrons, electrons)
15.
9 organ systems
16.
5 organelles
17.
2 atoms
18.
7 tissues
19.
8 organs
20.
4 large biomolecules
21.
10 organism
22.
6 cells
Place the following taxonomic classifications in order beginning with the broadest (kingdom)
and ending with the narrowest:
23.
4 order
24.
6 genus
25.
3 class
26.
2 phylum
27.
1 kingdom
28.
7 species
29.
5 family
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
30. The fluid inside a cell is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
cell juice
cytol
cytoplasm
plasma
31. The tiny functioning parts of a cell are called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
organelles
organs
protoplasm
cytoplasm
32. The entire genetic makeup of the cell is called the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
cytoplasm
gene
RNA
genome
33. The tiny device for assembling proteins is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
enzyme
protein factory
ribosome
proteinosome
Provide the requested information.
34. Name five characteristics of living things.
Made up of one or more cells
Cells contain DNA
Consume food and produce wastes
Reproduce
Self-maintenance
35. Name five kingdoms of living things.
Eubacteria (Eubacteriaceae)
Archaea
Plants (or Plantae)
Fungi
Animals (or Animalia)
Choose the correct answers from the word list below
36. The kind of plate used for culturing bacteria is called a Petri plate.
37. The eyepiece of a microscope is also called the ocular.
38. The objective of the microscope contains the lower lens of the microscope.
39. The higher magnification provided by a microscope allows you to resolve, or separate out,
fine details.
40. Organisms that require oxygen to live are called aerobic.
occipital, ocular, occulary, occult, objection, object, objective, obtrusive, resolution, resin,
reason, resolve, dissolve, aerobie, aesthetic, aerobic, anaerobic, pizza, pecuniary, Petra, Petri,
petrified, flat, fluted
Blue Quiz 2
Lessons 5, 6, 7, 8, Labs 3, 4
True or false?
1. Fungi, plants, archaea and bacteria cells all have some kind of rigid cell wall. true
2. Animal cells are known for having chlorophyll. false
3. Bacteria cells have a nucleus with a nuclear membrane. false
4. Plants often have starch storage granules in their cells. true
5. Fungi always have cells that are clearly separated from one another. false
6. Another word for chemical evolution is abiomophosis. false
7. A materialistic viewpoint is one base only on what can be directly observed. true
8. Photosynthesis is the process by which animals make their own food. false
9. Bacteria are all round in shape. false
Match the following organelles with their descriptions:
10.
g nucleus
a. folded, complex inner membrane
11.
f
b. paired strands of DNA in higher organisms
12.
d nucleoplasm
c. rigid covering outside the cell membrane
13.
b chromosome
d. fluid inside the nucleus
14.
c
e. ―powerhouse of the cell,‖ site of energy generation
15.
a endoplasmic reticulum
f. thin membrane surrounding the nucleus
16.
e
g. part of eukaryotic cells containing the genome
nuclear membrane
cell wall
mitochondria
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
17. The big bang theory is an attempt to explain:
a.
b.
c.
d.
how matter was originally dispersed throughout the universe
where matter came from
where people came from
Darwinism
18. The theory of chemical evolution is an attempt to explain:
a.
b.
c.
d.
where chemicals came from
how life arose from non-living matter
where Darwin came from
where Elijah Wood came from
19. Darwinian evolution is an attempt to explain:
a.
b.
c.
d.
where the first living thing came from
why apes are smarter than your siblings
how a single ancestor organism developed into all the diverse organisms present today
how a fish turned into a person
20. In which century did Charles Darwin live?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1400’s
1600’s
1800’s
He’s still alive
21. Which of the following support(s) the big bang theory:
a.
b.
c.
d.
the universe is dark
the universe appears to be expanding
the universe appears to be contracting
the universe exists
22. Which of the following is(are) taken to support chemical evolution:
a.
b.
c.
d.
bacteria are extremely complex
the universe appears to be expanding
large chemicals tend to be broken down into small ones
biochemicals can be manufactured in the laboratory under conditions that might be
thought to be like early earth conditions
23. On agar plates, bacteria grow in clusters called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
groups
hog piles
colonies
states
Blue Quiz 3
Lessons 9, 10, 11, 12, Labs 5, 6
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. For a living thing to increase in complexity over time is to go (against, with) the direction in
which natural processes tend to go.
2. Organisms that are less complex are considered ―less evolved‖ and are referred to as ―(lower
organisms, higher organisms).‖
3. (Plants, Animals) are at the bottom of the food chain.
4. Animals are (producers, consumers).
5. Oxygen is a (reactant in, product of) photosynthesis.
6. (Producers, Consumers) break plant material down into food chemicals which they use to
make new cells and energy.
True or false?
7. The word evolution means ―change.‖ true
8. Organisms do change over time. true
9. By selective breeding, people can bring about desired changes in organisms. true
10. Plants require carbon dioxide, water and sunlight in order to produce glucose. true
11. Carbon dioxide and water are products of consumers. true
Match the following microbes with their descriptions:
12.
d virus
a. microscopic animals
13.
f
archaea
b. microscopic plants
14.
e
bacteria
c. eukaryotic microbes including yeasts and molds
15.
c
microfungi
d. a non-living particle that reproduces inside living cells
16.
b microphyta
e. prokaryotic organisms occupying virtually every environment
17.
a microzoa
f. prokaryotic ―ancient ones‖ that occupy harsh environments
Circle the letter(s) corresponding to the best answer(s).
18. Three characteristics that all fungi have in common are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
eukaryotic
cell walls made of chitin
photosynthetic
feed on pre-formed organic matter
a squishy consistency
19. Three common types of fungi are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
yeasts
algae
molds
slime molds
bacteria
20. Three structures that typically appear in mold mycelia are:
a. seeds
b. hypae
c. spores
d. hairs
e. fruiting bodies
Provide the requested information.
21. Small changes that take place in organisms from one generation to another are called
adaptations.
22. If an organism can be seen only with the help of a microscope we say that that organism is
microscopic. The opposite of this term is macroscopic.
23. A bacterium that can no longer be defeated by antibiotics is referred to as antibiotic resistant.
24. An organism that loves high temperatures is called a thermophile.
25. Another name for blue-green algae is cyanobacteria.
26. The process by which plants produce glucose from sunlight and carbon dioxide is called
photosynthesis.
27. Plants capture sunlight using chemical pigments.
28. Chlorophyll a is the best known and most common of these chemicals.
microlutions, adaptations, macroevolution, really small, microscopic, a virus, a bacterium,
redundant, reclusive, resistant, macroscopic, intermedioscopic, largoscopic, really large, a
whopper, heatophile, tempophile, thermophile, cyanide, bacteria-cyanoverde, cyanobacteria,
blue-green slime, gluconeogenesis, glycolysis, photophotosynthesis, phototrophism, stains,
paints, greens, pigments, pygmies, Chlorophyte a, Chlorophyll a, Clorets a, Claustrophobi a,
Clavulinic acid
Blue Quiz 4
Lessons 13, 14, 15, 16, Labs 7, 8
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. The part of the life cycle of the plant in which sexual reproduction takes place is called the
(sporophyte, gametophyte) generation.
2. The seed is a product of (sexual, asexual) reproduction, while the spore is the product of
(sexual, asexual) reproduction.
3. Plants that produce pollen and seeds in cones are called (gymnosperms, angiosperms) while
those that produce pollen and seeds in flowers are called (gymnosperms, angiosperms).
4. Flowers having only male parts are called (staminate, pistillate), while those having only
female parts are called (staminate, pistillate).
True or false?
5. The word phytoplankton means ―suspended plants.‖ true
6. The word microphyta means ―large plants.‖ false
7. If something is too large to be microscopic it is called macrophagic. false
8. Mosses and worts are likely to be found in the dessert. false
9. Vascular plants are plants having vessels to carry water and food within the plant. true
10. The evolutionist might describe a vascular plant as a ―higher plant‖ and an alga as a ―lower
plant.‖ true
11. A spore is a dormant, resistant form of plant life that germinates when the conditions are
right. true
12. The fruit of a plant may be referred to as vegetable matter. true
13. Germination can refer to the emergence of a plant from either a seed or a spore. true
Match the following phyla of phytoplankton with their representative organisms:
14.
c
Pyrrophyta
a. Volvox, spirogyra
15.
d Chrysophyta
b. Euglena
16.
b Euglenophyta
c. dinoflagellates
17.
a Chlorophyta
d. coccolithophorids, diatoms
Match the following phyla of plants with their meanings:
Pyrrophyta
a. ―red plants‖
18.
f
19.
b Chrysophyta
b. ―gold plants‖
20.
e
c. ―dusky plants‖
21.
d Chlorophyta
d. ―green plants‖
22.
a Rhodophyta
e. ―good-eyeball plants‖
23.
c
f. ―fire plants‖
Euglenophyta
Phaeophyta
Match the following phyla of plants with the types of plants represented:
24.
e
Chlorophyta
a. brown algae (kelp)
25.
c
Rhodophyta
b. mosses and worts
26.
a Phaeophyta
c. red algae
27.
b Bryophyta
d. vascular plants
28.
d Tracheophyta
e. green filamentous algae
Match the following flower parts to their descriptions:
29.
j
sepal
30.
g petal
b. top surface of the carpal that receives pollen for fertilization
31.
k
calyx
c. hollow organ that contains the ovules
32.
i
anther
d. stalk connecting the stigma to the ovary
33.
e
filament
e. long slender stalk to which an anther is attached
34.
a stamen
f. entire female organ of a flower including the stigma and style
35.
f
g. brightly colored landing pad for insects
36.
b stigma
h. contains a single egg which may be fertilized to form a seed
37.
c
i. male part on which pollen forms
38.
d style
j. green, leaf-like structures making up the calyx
39.
h ovule
k. entire cup-like base of a flower
carpal
ovary
a. entire male organ of a flower including the anther and filament
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
40. Water and oxygen from photosynthesis are released from the leaves of vascular plants
through special pores called
a.
b.
c.
d.
stomata
tomato
stromboli
stigma
41. Which of the following plants is a tracheophyte (vascular plant)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
liverwort
wart
oak tree
green alga
42. Which of the following lines the pores in leaves to control the escape of water from the
plant?
a.
b.
c.
d.
centurion cells
soldier cells
guard cells
dehydration protection thingies
43. Inside a seed you will find a(n):
a.
b.
c.
d.
embryo
fetus
bugaboo
egg
44. Division of plants into monocotyledons and dicotyledons is based on the number of :
a.
b.
c.
d.
flowers
flower petals
centimeters in a meter
seed leaves
45. A sugary fluid that insects remove from flowers is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
neck tar
nectar
honey
beeswax
46. A seed-bearing or spore-bearing part of a plant or the mature ovary are called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
fruiting bodies
juicy fruit
bodies
vegetables
Blue Quiz 5
Lessons 17, 18, 19, 20
True or false?
1. The classification Mesozoa consists mainly of parasitic worms. true
2. Eucoelomates are animals that have legs. false
3. ―Convergent evolution‖ is the process by which two very different organisms are supposed to
have evolved very similar features. true
4. In an evolutionary sense, arthropods are a successful group of organisms. true
5. The word diversity refers to how many of a single exact kind of organism is alive at one time.
false
6. A trilobite is an extinct arthropod. true
7. Spiders are in the class Merostomata. false
8. Spiders and horseshoe crabs are arthropods. true
9. Spiders and horseshoe crabs are Trilobites. false
10. Spiders, ticks, mites and scorpions are all arachnids. true
Match the following phyla of metazoans with their representative animals:
11.
f
Porifera
a. flatworm
12.
j
Coelenterata
b. proboscis, nemertine and ribbon worm
13.
h Ctenophora
c. roundworm
14.
a Platyhelminthes
d. arrow worm
15.
b Rhinochocoela
e. spiny-headed worm
16.
c
Nematoda
f. sponge
17.
e
Acanthocephala
g. acorn worm
18.
d Chaetognatha
h. comb jelly
19.
i
i. horsehair worm
20.
m Brachiopoda
j. jellyfish, anemone, sea fan, coral
21.
l
Tardigrada
k. chiton, snail, abalone, whelk, slug, periwinkle, cowrie
22.
k
Mollusca
l. ―water bear‖
23.
g Hemichordata
m. lamp shells
Nematomorpha
Match the following classes of mollusks with their representative animals:
24.
e
Amphineura
25.
d Pelecypoda
b. tooth shell or tusk shell
26.
b Scaphopoda
c. octopus, squid, nautilus
27.
a Gastropoda
d. bivalve
28.
c
e. chiton
Cephalopoda
a. snail, whelk, slug
Match the following classes of annelid worms with their representative animals:
29.
c
Archiannelida
a. leeches
30.
d Polychaeta
b. bristled worms with few appendages
31.
b Oligochaeta
c. a group of simple marine worms
32.
a Hirudinea
d. worms with many appendages
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer(s).
33. An arthropod has an exoskeleton made of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
protein
mostly calcium
chitin
Jell-O
Provide the requested information from the list at the end.
34. The study of animals is called zoology.
35. Single-celled and colonial animals are classified as protozoa.
36. The mesozoa are multi-celled animals having only a few different cell types.
37. Multi-celled animals having a large variety of cell structures and functions are classified as
metazoa.
botany, zoology, protozoology, animology, zoography, protoplasm, protein, probiotic, protozoa,
mesozoa, mesoderm, mesobiotic, metabiotic, metazoa, metaplasm
Labs 9, 10
1. The composite family of plants includes marigolds, dandelions, chrysanthemums, asters and
dahlias.
2. Circle one. This previous family is the most (diverse, similar) group of plants on earth.
3. This family of plants has special ligulate flowers that are ―strap-like.‖
4. These flowers are made up of a strap-like petal, a female part, like a pistil, called a(n)
gynoecium; a male part, like a stamen, called a androecium. It also has a fuzzy, frilly pappus,
and a(n) ovary which contains the seed when it is mature.
dandelion, composite, deposit, expository, repository, suppository, ligand, leg-like, leprous,
ligulate, pedal, petal, gymnasium, gynoecium, gynecologist, androgen, androecium,
philanthropist, papilla, pupa, pappus, puppy, oval, Orville Redenbacher, ovary, ornery, obituary
Blue Section Review I
Lessons 21, 22, 23, 24 (and cumulative from Lesson 1)
Labs 11, 12 (and cumulative from Lab 1)
See Lab Workbook
Blue Quiz 7
Lessons 25, 26, 27, 28 (Future labs will be quizzed only in the section reviews in the Lab
Workbook)
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. The mammalian subclass Prototheria includes the (monotremes, marsupials).
2. An animal that is active mostly by day is (diurnal, nocturnal) while one that is active mostly
by night is (diurnal, nocturnal).
True or false?
3. Birds are in the class Aves. true
4. Birds are vertebrates. true
5. Birds are chordates. true
6. The mammalian subclass Eutheria includes the kangaroo. false
7. Opossums are marsupials. true
8. Bats are in the class Aves. false
9. Bats are marsupials. false
Match the following orders of mammals with their representative animals:
10.
k
Insectivora
11.
b Dermoptera
b. gliding lemur
12.
c
Chiroptera
c. bat
13.
l
Edentalia
d. squirrel, beaver, paca
14.
a Pholidota
e. swine, camel, llama, deer, giraffe, antelope
15.
f
f. rabbit, hare
16.
d Rodentia
g. whale, dolphin, porpoise
17.
h Hyracoidea
h. hyrax
18.
e
Artiodactyla
i. sea lion, seal, walrus
19.
j
Perissodactyla
j. horse, tapir, rhinoceros
20.
g Cetacea
k. shrew, mole, hedgehog
21.
i
l. anteater, sloth, armadillo
Lagomorpha
Pinnipedia
a. pangolin
Blue Quiz 8
Lessons 29, 30, 31, 32
True or false?
1. Giant panda are classified as carnivores, even though they eat no meat. true
2. An endangered animal is one that is in danger of becoming too popular with wildlife
enthusiasts. false
3. The word anatomy is the breaking apart of ―an atom.‖ false
Match the following orders of mammals with their representative animals:
4.
d Carnivora
a. elephant
5.
a Proboscidia
b. monkey, ape, man, lemur, baboon
6.
c
c. manatee, dugong, sea cow
7.
b Primates
Sirenia
d. cat, dog, bear, weasel
Circle the letter(s) corresponding to the best answer(s).
8. The following are characteristics of primates:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
opposable thumbs
opposable big toes
ball and socket joints
large brain
flat nails
tails
all of the above
9. The upper appendages include which of the following:
a.
b.
c.
d.
upper extremities
pelvic girdle
collar bones (clavicles)
shoulder blades (scapulas)
10. Which of the following are types of bone joints:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
ball and socket
dovetail
hinge
saddle
pivot
gliding
flying
spreading
ball and bat
twist
11. The tips of our noses and outer ears are made of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
rubber
chiton
cartilage
Carthage
agar
12. Name three types of connective tissue:
ligaments
tendons
cartilage
Blue Quiz 9
Lessons 33, 34, 35, 36
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. The word (gamete, zygote) describes either the egg cell or the sperm cell alone. The word
(gamete, zygote) describes the new individual formed when the egg and the sperm come
together.
True or false?
2. Bronchitis is a condition which describes an inflamed glottis. false
3. Ovulation is the production of a new egg for possible fertilization. true
4. Womb is another name for the ovary. false
5. Sperm cells are produced in the testicles and stored in the epidydimus. true
6. The prostate is a female organ. false
Match the following organs with their descriptions or functions:
7.
d liver
a. site where food chemicals are absorbed into the blood
8.
c
gall bladder
b. place where undigested waste is packaged and processed
9.
f
salivary glands
c. produces an emulsifier to aid digestion
10.
a small intestine
d. the site of storage of some digested food chemicals
11.
b large intestine
e. temporary storage for solid waste
12.
e
f. located about the mouth
rectum
Match the following organs with their descriptions or functions:
13.
b kidney
a. temporary storage for liquid waste
14.
c
b. organ that removes excess water and waste chemicals from
blood
15.
a urinary bladder
c. tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder
16.
d urethra
d. tube that removes urine from the urinary bladder
ureter
Place the following organs in the correct order in which food passes through them, beginning
with the mouth as number 1:
17.
7 anus
18.
2 esophagus
19.
6 rectum
20.
4 small intestine
21.
5 large intestine
22.
1 mouth
23.
3 stomach
Place the following organs in the correct order in which air passes into them from the outside,
beginning with the mouth:
24.
3 larynx
25.
1 mouth
26.
4 trachea
27.
6 bronchioles
28.
2 glottis
29.
5 bronchi
30.
7 alveoli
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
31. Which of the following are glands which secrete digestive juices into the stomach:
a.
b.
c.
d.
small intestine
gall bladder
liver
pancreas
32. The female menstrual cycle lasts:
a.
b.
c.
d.
exactly 14 days
exactly 28 days
about 48 days
about 28 days, but it varies from one individual to another
33. The common term for the menstrual cycle is the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
comma
period
exclamation point
fertilization
34. Fertilization usually takes place inside the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ovary
oviduct
uterus
vagina
Provide the requested information.
35. Name four types of teeth in order from the front of the mouth to the back:
incisor
canine
premolar
molar
36. Explain why hemoglobin is usually thought of as part of the circulatory system, but could be
considered part of the respiratory system as well.
Hemoglobin is part of the circulatory system because it is a chemical found in red blood cells
that circulate throughout the body. However, it may be considered part of the respiratory system
because it absorbs oxygen in the lungs.
Blue Quiz 10
Lessons 37, 38, 39, 40
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. Blood with the cells taken out of it is called (lymph, plasma, tissue fluid). The fluid, similar
to plasma, that keeps the cells bathed in their required substances is called (lymph, plasma,
tissue fluid). When this fluid collects in the lymphatic vessels, it is called (lymph, plasma,
tissue fluid).
2. The largest single artery of the body is the (aorta, pulmonary artery). The large (aortas,
pulmonary arteries) take blood to the lungs.
3. The large arteries that carry blood to the arms are the (femorals, subclavians) while those that
carry blood to the legs are the (femorals, subclavians).
4. Athlete’s foot and diaper rash are examples of two types of (bacterial, fungal, viral) infection.
(Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses) are the only group of organisms that are treated with antibiotics.
(Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses) on the other hand are non-living pathogens that cause a large
variety of diseases including AIDS and the common cold.
True or false?
5. The blood flows to your head through two large arteries, one on each side of your neck called
the carotid arteries. true
6. A nerve cell is called a neurotic. false
7. The sensation of the need to vomit is called malaise. false
8. Olfactory receptors are special nerve endings that sense pain. false
9. The brain sends signals to certain glands in the body causing them to release chemicals into
the blood. true
10. The brain and spinal cord together are called the Grand Central Station (GCS). false
11. Genetics is the study of inheritance. true
12. The father of Genetics was Gregor Mendel. true
13. Offspring having specific characteristics can be directed by a process called selective eating.
false
14. Genetic engineering is based on chemical methods for changing DNA. true
15. Bacterial cells and the cells of higher organisms reproduce in exactly the same way. false
16. Trichinosis is a disease caused by worms in poorly cooked pork. true
Place the following in the order in which they receive oxygenated blood:
17.
4 venules
18.
1 arteries
19.
5 veins
20.
2 arterioles
21.
3 capillaries
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer(s).
22. Which are the six major portions of the brain?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
k.
l.
m.
n.
frontal lobe
backal lobe
auditory lobe
temple lobe
temporal lobe
spatial lobe
brain stem
brain root
cerebellum
antebellum
occidental lobe
occipital lobe
parietal lobe
parental lobe
Blue Section Review II
See Lab Workbook
Rainbow Quiz 1
Lessons 1, 2, 3, 4, Labs 1, 2
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. An experimental (―control group,‖ ―treatment group‖) is changed in some important detail
while the (―control group,‖ ―treatment group‖) is held constant.
2. Since feelings and beliefs are (objective, subjective), they do not serve as adequate bases for
a scientific conclusion. The decision about an experiment’s outcome must be (objective,
subjective).
3. (Plaster of Paris, Cement) is calcined calcium and aluminum silicates while (plaster of Paris,
cement) is heat-treated gypsum.
True or false?
4. A theory might be described as a model for thinking. true
5. A rock (according to the science of geology) is a small piece of crystalline material that
might be held in the palm of your hand. false
6. Settled materials are called sediments. true
7. The Ring of Fire is the ring of activity around a volcano. false
8. Ground water is water that lies on top of the ground. false
9. A spring that arises from pressure from beneath the ground surface is called an artesian
spring. true
10. Water enters the atmosphere when it is warmed by the sun by a process we call exasperation.
false
11. Water reenters the liquid phase by a process we call consternation. false
12. The study of fresh surface water is called limnology. true
13. The study of ocean water is oceanology. false
14. An ―abiotic control‖ is a poisoned, negative-control sample. true
15. Corundum is also called ―alumina,‖ and is made of aluminum trioxide. true
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
16. Molten rock within the earth is called.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
magnetite
lava
magma
mantle
lavage
17. One method of detecting the growth of bacteria is monitoring for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
morbidity
turbidity
light production
condensation
18. What are the main components of concrete:
a.
b.
c.
d.
sand, gravel, glue
sand, lava rock, textile fibers
duct tape, dinosaur bones, library paste, saliva
sand, gravel, cement
19. The German scientist after whom the hardness scale is named is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Frederich Moz
Frederich Mohs
Moses
Fred Moe
20. Which of the following may be products of a volcano.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
tectonic plates
gases
lava
oceans
mudslides
ash
21. Which of the following are thought to be the result of tectonic activity:
a.
b.
c.
d.
tidal waves
tsunamis
earthquakes
Botswana
Provide the missing information.
22. The central part of the earth is called the core. Which is probably made of magnetic solid and
magma. Surrounding this inner part is the thick, dense, crystalline rock we call the mantle.
The outermost layer is a relatively thin layer of soil, rock and water that we call the crust.
23. A large crack in the crust at the bottom of the ocean is called a trench.
24. Soil is presumed to have formed by the erosion of rock.
25. A basin is a place where water collects to form a lake or pond.
26. Artificial lakes for holding water, called impoundments, are formed by damming up a river.
27. An experiment is a test of a hypothesis.
28. What is the hardest natural substance? diamond.
mantle, hearth, heart, mantissa, cloak, core, crust, corps, corpus, corpse, filling, crust, crest, crud,
fissure, fizzy, trench, wench, crevasse, explosion, erosion, evasion, invasion, incantation,
bassoon, basin, sink, sinkhole, lavatory, compoundments, impoundments, hypothesis, theory,
suspicion, student, corundum, emerite, diamond, science
Rainbow Quiz 2
Lessons 5, 6, 7, 8, Labs 3, 4
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. The dinosaurs are supposed to have first arisen during the (Jurassic, Triassic) period of the
Mesozoic era.
2. Modern humans are supposed to have first arisen during the (Recent, Pleistocene) epoch of
the Quaternary period of the Cenozoic era.
3. A representative of every vertebrate phylum appears in the (Precambrian era, Cambrian
period).
4. Saltier water is (more, less) dense than less salty water.
True or false?
5. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas. true
6. Geology is the study of the solar system. false
7. Beneath the earth’s surface are layers of sediment called strata. true
8. Fossil fuels are believed to come from aging of dead plants and animals. true
9. Water that has more solid dissolved in it than it can continue to hold is referred to as
―supercilious.‖ false
Match the following terms with their descriptions:
10.
e
continental shelf
11.
b continental rise
b. dives 600 meters to the ocean floor
12.
f
c. depth of rapidly-changing water temperature
13.
h continental drift
d. an underwater mountain range that occurs approximately
halfway between continents
14.
d mid-ocean ridge
e. shallow-sloping border around continents having shallow
water above it
15.
a sediment
f. dives 3500 meters from the continental shelf
16.
g ocean floor
g. the bottom of the ocean
17.
c
h. separation of the continents over time
continental slope
thermocline
a. 500-meter-thick layer of dead organic matter, mineral
matter and shells of dead animals
Place the following terms eras of geochronolgy in their proper order beginning with the most
recent:
18.
1 Cenozoic
19.
3 Paleozoic
20.
4 Precambrian
21.
2 Mesozoic
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
22. To remove the salt from water is to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
decant
desaltize
desalinize
disabuse
23. Which is not an example of the greenhouse effect:
a.
b.
c.
d.
the heating of air inside a greenhouse
the heating of air inside your car on a sunny day
the heating of the atmosphere due to accumulation of gases that hold in heat
the heating of air inside your house due to the use of an electric heater
24. Which of the following words is used to describe the study of life history on earth:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
geology
mineralogy
paleontology
geochronology
agronomy
25. Which of the following words is used to describe the study of the age of the earth:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
geology
mineralogy
paleontology
geochronology
agronomy
26. Which of the following words is used to describe the study of soil for agriculture:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
geology
mineralogy
paleontology
geochronology
agronomy
27. The opposite of catastrophism is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
evolutionism
uniformitarianism
Darwinism
geochronology
28. Sea water is approximately what percent salt-saturated? This is equal to what percent salt by
weight?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.125% saturated; 0.00361% salt
1.25% saturated; 0.0361% salt
12.5% saturated; 0.361% salt
125% saturated; 36.1% salt
29. Magnesium sulfate heptahydrate is the chemical name for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
rock salt
ice cream salt
pickling salt
Epsom salts
Rainbow Quiz 3
Lessons 9, 10, 11, 12, Labs 5, 6
True or false?
1. Ground water is water that fills the pore spaces of soil and rock beneath the ground surface.
true
2. Soil is always made up of particles that are about the same size. false
3. Air that is holding its capacity of water is said to be saturated. true
4. Commercial jetliners typically travel at the boundary between the thermosphere and
exosphere. false
5. The main factor affecting motion in the atmosphere is the heating of atmospheric gases by
the sun. true
6. Natural acids decrease the pH of groundwater, causing it to dissolve minerals. true
Match the following weather phenomena with their descriptions:
7.
c
lightening
a. frozen precipitation that damages crops, houses and cars
8.
f
flood
b. a condensation phenomenon
9.
b fog
c. generated from static charges
10.
a hail
d. frozen precipitation with driving wind
11.
e
wildfire
e. usually results from unusually dry conditions
12.
d blizzard
f. generated from moisture on saturated ground
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
13. Which word refers to liquid, especially water, that is suitable for drinking:
a. potable
b. drinkable
c. palatable
d. portable
14. Which of the following is not a major function of the atmosphere:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
keeps us warm by holding in solar heat
provides food for us
protects us from the sun’s ultraviolet radiation
provides us with oxygen in the correct concentration to support life
brings about our climate and weather patterns
Provide the requested information.
15. Name the five major divisions of the atmosphere in order beginning at the earth’s surface.
troposphere
stratosphere
mesosphere
thermosphere
exosphere
Rainbow Quiz 4
Lessons 13, 14, 15, 16, Labs 7, 8
Circle the best response(s) to complete the sentence(s).
1. While (climate, weather) has to do with long term conditions on earth, (climate, weather) has
to do with day to day changes in those conditions.
2. A(n) (anticyclone, cyclone) is a(n) area of low atmospheric pressure, while a(n) (anticyclone,
cyclone) is an area of high pressure.
3. In the northern hemisphere, an anticyclone rotates in a (clockwise, counterclockwise)
direction while a cylcone rotates (clockwise, counterclockwise).
4. In North America, most of us live in a (temperate, tropical) climate.
True or false?
5. Prevailing winds are also called ―trade winds.‖ true
6. Ocean currents are brought about in part by the effects of prevailing winds. true
7. Deforestation results in the loss of wildlife habitat. true
8. Cyclones and anticyclones are collectively called climate systems. false
9. Jet streams are tubes of rapidly moving air. true
10. There are six permanent jet streams (three in each hemisphere) false
Match the following climatic features with their descriptions:
11.
c
Hadley cells
12.
a prevailing winds
b. experiences constant low pressure from rising warm air
13.
f
c. large masses of air circulating in the atmosphere
14.
b equator
d. receive moisture that is picked up by air at the equator then
dropped north and south of the equator
15.
e
e. from constant dry air pressing on the surface of the earth
16.
d tropical rainforests
Coriolis effect
deserts
a. largely caused by Hadley cells
f. effect of inertia on objects moving across a spinning earth
Circle the letter corresponding to the best answer.
17. Hadley cells are:
a. large areas of low pressure that circulate above the earth
b. large areas of high pressure that circulate above the earth
c. large areas of circulating air that result from warming at the equator and cooling as the
air travels north and south toward the poles
d. large air masses that loom over the equator
18. Hadley cells do not extend from the equator to the poles because:
a.
b.
c.
d.
the earth rotates, breaking them up into several smaller cells
surface features of the earth break them up
radio waves from outer space cause interference
high pressure battles with low pressure
19. Air pressure is measured using a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
hygrometer
hydrometer
barometer
thermometer
Rainbow Section Review
See Lab Workbook