Chapter 2
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Section 2.1)
Air is an example of a homogeneous mixture.
A mixture is made up of substances that can be separated by physical means.
An element is a pure substance made up of only one type of atoms.
A compound is a type of matter known as a homogeneous mixture.
Matter is anything that has mass and takes up space.
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following is not a pure substance? (Section 2.1)
carbon monoxide
tarnished silver
smoke
uranium
water
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following is not an element? (Section 2.2)
Helium.
Neon.
Gold.
Air.
Carbon.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
What shows the elements in a compound and the ratio of their atoms? (Section 2.3)
A scientific equation.
The atomic emission spectra.
The periodic table.
A chemical formula.
None of these.
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Chapter 3
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following is a measurable physical property? (Section 3.1)
shape
odor
freezing point
color
hardness
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following is not a physical property? (Section 3.1)
Diffusion
Surface tension
Viscosity
Specific gravity
None of these.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Choose an extensive property of water from the following (Section 3.1):
specific gravity
taste
viscosity
temperature
mass
4. Which of the following statements is not correct when a compound forms? (Chapter 2 and
Chapter 3)
A) The elements in a compound always combine in a specific ratio.
B) A new substance forms.
C) The new compound has different properties from the elements in it?
D) Only a physical change occurs.
E) The mass is conserved.
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Chapter 4
1. The figures below represent a two dimensional structure of different solids. Which figure(s)
represent(s) a crystalline solid? (Section 4.1)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
I only.
II only.
III only.
I and III.
II and IV.
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
In which type of matter are atoms tightly held in place? (Section 4.1)
Gas.
Liquid.
Plasma.
Solid.
All of these.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following is correct about amorphous solids? (Section 4.1)
The particles vibrate about fixed points.
Quartz, salt, and sugar are all examples of amorphous solids.
They have a definite melting point.
The particles are arranged in a regular repeating pattern.
None of these.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Choose the wrong statement about plasma (Section 4.1):
Plasma can exist only at a very high temperature.
Plasma cannot be created artificially.
On Earth, plasma is found naturally in lightning.
Plasma is an ionized gas.
Plasma is the state of matter in 99% of the known universe.
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5. A gas is kept at a constant pressure in a container of variable volume. If the average kinetic
energy of the molecules of the gas increases, which of the following three variables below must
also increase? I. Volume II. Temperature III. Number of molecules of the gas (Section 4.3)
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
E) II and III only
6. A student is measuring volume and pressure of a gas while keeping its temperature constant.
When he multiplies the volume and pressure he always gets the same value. This law is known
as (Section 4.3)
A) Gas diffusion.
B) Charles’s law for a gas.
C) Boyle’s law for a gas.
D) Charles’s law for matter in any state.
E) Boyle’s law for matter in any state.
7. At constant pressure, the volume of a gas is 10 L at 100 °C. What will it be when the temperature
increases to 200 °C? (Section 4.3)
A) 2.0 L
B) 3.2 L
C) 8.4 L
D) 10.0 L
E) 12.7 L
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
In which of the following processes does matter absorb energy? (Section 4.4)
Melting.
Sublimation.
Vaporization.
All of these.
None of these.
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following changes a material from a gas to a liquid? (Section 4.4)
Condensation
Fusion.
Melting.
Sublimation.
Vaporization.
10. The boiling point of water is 100 °C at sea level. Its boiling point at an elevation of 2 km above
sea level could be (Section 4.4)
A) 95 °C
B) 100 °C
C) 105 °C
D) 110 °C
E) All of these.
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11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Sublimation is (Chapter 3 and Section 4.4)
a physical property.
a chemical property.
a physical change.
a chemical change.
None of these.
12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
What do evaporation and boiling have in common? (Section 4.4)
Occur only at the surface of a liquid.
None of these.
Occur at any temperature.
The temperature of the liquid may change during the change of state.
Bubbles form within the liquid.
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The change of state in which a solid changes directly into a gas is called (Section 4.4)
Sublimation
Boiling
Fusion
Vaporization
Condensation
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following processes changes a material from a liquid to a gas? (Section 4.4)
Condensation.
Fusion.
Sublimation.
Vaporization.
Melting.
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15. Look at the figure below. In which portion(s) does the state of water remain unchanged?
(Section 4.4)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
II only.
IV only.
I and III.
II and IV.
None of these.
16. In the figure below, on which portion(s) of the graph can the water exist in the solid and liquid
phases at the same time? (Section 4.4)
A) a
B) b
C) a and b
D) b and c
E) b and d
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17. Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 4)
A) The state of matter is determined by how fast the particles in a substance move and how
strongly they are attracted to one another.
B) A change in state is the conversion of a substance from one physical form to another.
C) Plasma is more abundant on Earth than liquids, solids, or gases.
D) A gas is matter that does not have a definite shape or a definite volume.
E) Thermal energy that is transferred from one substance to another is called heat.
18.
A)
B)
C)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 4)
A change of state is defined as the conversion of a substance from one physical form to another.
Salt and sugar are examples of crystalline solids.
A solid in which the particles are arranged in a repeating pattern of rows is known as an
amorphous solid.
D) Matter in the liquid state has a definite volume, but not a definite shape.
E) When matter changes from one state to another, thermal energy is absorbed or released.
19. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Chapter 4)
A) Thermal energy that is transferred from one substance to another is called heat.
B) The temperature of the melting point is the same as the temperature of vaporization point for a
substance.
C) All changes of state involve a change in color.
D) The change of state from a gas to a liquid is called sublimation.
E) Increasing pressure decreases the boiling point of a liquid.
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which of the following statements is not correct? (Chapter 4)
Freezing is an exothermic process.
Viscosity is the resistance of a fluid to flow.
Rain drops and drops of dew form as a result of surface tension.
For a fixed amount of gas, temperatures and volumes are inversely proportional at constant
pressure.
E) Condensation is the change of state from gas to liquid.
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is correct? (Chapter 3 and Chapter 4)
Flammability is a physical property of some materials like Gasoline.
Release of energy cannot be a sign that a physical change has occurred.
Change of taste is a sign that a chemical change could have occurred.
Being amorphous is a chemical property of some materials like glass.
Sanding a piece of wood is a chemical change.
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Chapter 5
1. How can a hydrogen atom, which has only one electron, have so many spectral lines? (Section
5.2)
A) The electron is able to move at various speeds.
B) The atomic radius of the hydrogen atom is relatively large.
C) One electron can jump to any of the many allowed energy levels.
D) Hydrogen gas exits in large quantities in our atmosphere.
E) Hydrogen atom has more than one isotope.
2. Suppose that a certain atom has only four distinct energy levels. If all transitions between these
levels are possible, how many spectral lines will this atom have? (Section 5.2)
A) Three.
B) Four.
C) Six.
D) Sixteen.
E) Unlimited.
3. Two photons are emitted when an electron “jumps” from the fifth quantum level to the fourth
and then directly to the first. How does the total energy of the two photons compare to the
energy of the single photon that would be emitted if the electron “jumps” directly from the fifth
level to the first level? (Section 5.2)
A) Equal to the energy of the single photon.
B) Not predictable because other factors, such as the temperature of the surroundings, must be
considered.
C) Less than the energy of the single photon.
D) Greater than the energy of the single photon.
E) None of these.
4. How might the spectrum of an atom appear if its electrons were not restricted to discrete (not
continuous) energy levels? (Section 5.2)
A) There would be no colors within the visible portion of the spectrum.
B) A broad spectrum of all colors would be observed.
C) It would appear the same as it does with the energy level restrictions.
D) The spectrum would be a combination of discrete and continuous colors.
E) None of these.
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
How did Bohr explain the origin of atomic spectra? (Section 5.2)
Photons are continuously emitted as electrons move around the nucleus.
Photons are emitted when nucleons are excited inside the nucleus.
Photons are emitted when electrons move away from the nucleus.
Photons are emitted when electrons make transitions from higher energy orbits to lower energy
orbits.
E) Photons are emitted when electrons repel each other.
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6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which statement is NOT true about Bohr’s atomic model? (Section 5.2)
Each energy level has an energy sublevels.
When an electron drops from one energy level to another, a spectral line is produced.
Each energy sublevel can hold a certain number of electrons.
Electrons move around the nucleus in a region known as the electron cloud.
The energy of an electron in its orbit is fixed.
7. When an electron drops from one energy level to another, a spectral line is produced. The color
of the spectral line depends on (Section 5.2)
A) the energy of the lower level.
B) the energy addition of the two levels.
C) the energy difference between the two levels.
D) the energy of the higher level.
E) None of these.
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Isotopes of an element have (Section 5.3)
the same number of neutrons but different number of protons.
the same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.
the same number of protons but different number of electrons.
the same number of protons but different number of neutrons.
none of these.
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons are called (Section 5.3)
Metals.
Isotopes.
Halogens.
Metalloids.
Radioactive Elements.
10. If an atom has 43 electrons, 56 neutrons, and 43 protons, what is the approximate atomic mass?
(Section 5.3)
A) 43 amu
B) 56 amu
C) 99 amu
D) 142 amu
E) None of these.
11. Boron has two isotopes. One with an atomic mass of 11 amu and its abundance is 18.9%. The
other has an atomic mass of 10 amu and its abundance is 81.1%. What is the atomic mass of
Boron? (Section 5.3)
A) 10 amu.
B) 10.19 amu.
C) 10.51 amu.
D) 10.81 amu.
E) 11 amu.
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12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
“Hydrogen-3” means (Section 5.3)
three hydrogen atoms.
a molecule of hydrogen gas.
a hydrogen isotope with three protons.
a hydrogen isotope with three neutrons.
a hydrogen isotope with one proton and two neutrons.
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
represents a uranium isotope with (Section 5.3)
92 protons and 146 neutrons.
238 neutrons and 92 protons.
92 neutrons and 238 protons.
92 neutrons and 146 protons.
92 electrons and 238 protons.
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
If two neutrons are removed from a gold (Au) isotope, what element is formed? (Section 5.3)
Gold (Au).
Iridium (Ir).
Thallium (Tl).
Palladium (Pa).
Cadmium (Cd).
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
What distinguishes an element from another? (Section 5.3)
The number of neutrons.
The number of protons.
The number of electrons.
The number of nucleons
The size of the nucleus.
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Atoms are invisible because they (Section 5.3)
are much smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
are mostly empty space.
are always in motion.
have very small masses.
are electrically neutral.
17. Which has more atoms: 1 kg of C-12 atoms, 1 kg of C-13 atoms, or 1kg of C-14 atoms? (Section
5.3)
A) 1 kg of C-12 atoms.
B) 1 kg of C-13 atoms.
C) 1 kg of C-14 atoms.
D) They all have the same number of atoms.
E) Need more information.
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18. The figure below represents the nuclei of two atoms. Which of the following statements is
TRUE? (Section 5.3)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A and B are isotopes of Helium.
A and B are isotopes of Carbon.
A and B have the same mass number.
A and B have different chemical properties.
A is a Carbon atom, whereas B is an Oxygen atom.
19.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 5)
A pure substance can be either an element or compound.
A fruit salad is a heterogeneous mixture.
Every type of atom has a different number of protons.
The change of state from a gas to a liquid is called condensation.
Smoke is a compound.
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 5)
The dense region in the center of an atom is called the nucleus.
The second principal energy level can hold a maximum of four electrons.
The region around an atom’s nucleus occupied by electrons is called the electron cloud.
The sum of the number of protons and neutrons in an atom’s nucleus is the mass number.
Bohr speculated that electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular orbits and that these orbits
are at fixed distances from the nucleus.
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Chapter 2 and 5)
The rocky soil in a garden is a compound.
Two or more atoms combine to form an isotope.
Matter is anything that has length and takes up space.
Carbon dioxide, water, and table salt are examples of compounds.
The properties of compounds are the same as the properties of the elements from which they
are made.
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Section 2.1 and 5.3)
Two or more elements combine to form an isotope.
Air is an example of a compound.
The elements in a compound always combine in a specific ratio.
Mixtures always contain the same ratio of the substances that make them up.
Gold is an example of a compound.
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23. Which of the following statements is false? (Chapter 2, Chapter 3, and Chapter 5)
A) A mixture that is made up of substances that cannot be separated by physical means is a
homogeneous mixture.
B) Matter could be a pure substance or a mixture.
C) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is different for different elements.
D) Light is not matter.
E) An element is a pure substance that cannot be decomposed by chemical means.
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Chapter 11
1. The figure below shows the change in the neutron-to-proton ratio of stable nuclei within the
band of stability (shown in the figure). Such a change is explained based on the fact that:
(Section 11.1)
A) The electrostatic force is much weaker than the strong (nuclear) force, but it acts over much
greater distances.
B) The electrostatic force is much stronger than the strong (nuclear) force, but it acts over much
greater distances.
C) The electrostatic force is much weaker than the strong (nuclear) force, but it acts over much
smaller distances.
D) The electrostatic force is much stronger than the strong (nuclear) force, but it acts over much
smaller distances.
E) The number of protons is larger than the number of neutrons in large nuclei.
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
It is not possible to chemically separate
they are heavy.
Uranium is radioactive.
they have a large number of protons.
they have a large number of neutrons.
they are isotopes of the same element.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
What percentage of radioactive nuclei will decay after two half-lives? (Section 11.2)
0%
25 %
50 %
75 %
100 %
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and
because (Section 11.1)
Page 13
4. The figure below shows three types of radiation and their relative penetrating power. Based on
this figure one may conclude that the penetrating power (Section 11.2)
A) of γ rays is the lowest.
B) of α particles is the highest.
C) is independent of the charge of the emitted radiation.
D) increases with increasing charge of the emitted radiation.
E) decreases with increasing charge of the emitted radiation.
5. A 200-gram sample of a radioactive substance decays such that its mass is reduced to 25 grams
in 18.6 hours. What is its half-life? (Section 11.2)
A) 2.3 hours.
B) 6.2 hours.
C) 9.3 hours.
D) 12.4 hours.
E) 55.8 hours.
6. Which of the following types of radiation emitted in a nuclear decay has (have) no electrical
charge? I. Alpha II. Beta III. Gamma (Section 11.2)
A) I and II only.
B) I and III only.
C) II only.
D) III only.
E) II and III only.
7. Arrange the Alpha, Beta, and Gamma radiations according to their penetrating power, greatest
first. (Section 11.2)
A) Alpha, Beta, Gamma.
B) Beta, Alpha, Gamma.
C) Beta, Gamma, Alpha.
D) Gamma, Alpha, Beta.
E) Gamma, Beta, Alpha.
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Iodine-131 decays by emitting a beta particle. The newly formed element is (Section 11.2)
Xenon (Xe).
Tellurium (Te).
Krypton (Kr).
Selenium (Se)
Radon (Rn).
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9. A radioactive nucleus has Z protons and N neutrons. When this nucleus decays by the emission
of a beta particle ( ), this results in a new nucleus with (Section 11.2)
A) N neutrons.
B) Z protons.
C) Z − 1protons.
D) Z + 1 protons.
E) N + 1 neutrons.
10. In which of the following decay reactions does a neutron change into a proton? (Section 11.2)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following is responsible for the radiant energy of the Sun? (Section 11.3)
Alpha decay.
Gamma decay.
Nuclear fission.
Nuclear fusion.
None of these.
12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The reaction H-2 + H-2 ----► He-4 + Energy is (Section 11.3)
a fusion reaction.
a fission reaction.
an alpha decay process.
a chemical reaction.
none of these.
13. The figure below shows an example of a fission reaction that takes place in nuclear reactors to
generate electricity. The unlabeled element at the top is: (Section 11.3)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E) None of these.
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14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
We need special detectors when dealing with radiation because we cannot (Section 11.3)
feel it.
hear it.
see it.
smell it.
all of these.
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Chapter 12
1. A car starts out on a circular track whose radius is 100 m. After the car completes one circle, its
displacement and distance are respectively (Section 12.1)
A) 0 m and 100 m
B) 0 m and 628 m
C) 100 m and 628 m
D) 628 m and 0 m
E) 628 m and 628 m
2. The figure below shows the position versus time graph for the motions of two cars A and B that
are moving along the same straight road. Do cars A and B ever have the same speed? If so, at
what times? (Section 12.1)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Yes, at time t = 0 s.
Yes, at time t = 4 s.
Yes, at time t = 10 s.
No, they never have the same speed.
None of these.
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3. The figure below shows the position-time graph for an object moving in a straight line. What is
the average speed of this object for the whole trip of 40 seconds? (Section 12.1)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2.5 m/s
5.0 m/s
7.5 m/s
10.0 m/s
25.0 m/s
4. Consider two cars, A and B. Car A is moving west with a speed of 100 km/h. Car B is moving east
with a speed of 150 km/h. The velocity of car B relative to car A is (Section 12.1)
A) 50 km/h east
B) 50 km/h west
C) 150 km/h east
D) 250 km/h east
E) 250 km/h west
5. Car A is moving east with a speed of 100 km/h. Car B is moving west at 100 km/h. What is the
velocity of car B with respect to car A? (Section 12.1)
A) 0 km/h.
B) 100 km/h west.
C) 200 km/h east.
D) 200 km/h west.
E) None of these.
6. Two cars are moving towards each other on a straight road. The first car is moving at 100 km/h
and the second car is moving at 90 km/h. The speed of the second car measured relative to the
first car is (Section 12.1)
A) 10 km/h.
B) 90 km/h.
C) 95 km/h.
D) 100 km/h.
E) 190 km/h.
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7. You are sitting in a bus that is traveling in a straight line at a speed of + 40 km/h relative to the
ground. The speed (relative to the ground) of another person sitting next to you in the bus is
(Section 12.1)
A) – 80 km/h.
B) – 40 km/h.
C) 0 km/h.
D) + 40 km/h.
E) + 80 km/h.
8. You are sitting inside a bus that is travelling in a straight line at a speed of +60 km/h relative to
the ground. Your speed relative to the bus would be (Section 12.1)
A) -120 km/h
B) -60 km/h
C) 0 km/h
D) +60 lm/h
E) +120 km/h
9. A car moves along a circular race track with a constant speed of 50 km/h. What is its average
speed during one full circle? (Section 12.1)
A) 0 km/h
B) 25 km/h
C) 50 km/h
D) 100 km/h
E) 500 km/h
10. A satellite moves in a circular orbit around Earth. The distance from the center of Earth to the
satellite is 6500 km. It takes the satellite 24 hours to make one full revolution. The average
speed of the satellite is about (Section 12.1)
A) 270 km/h.
B) 850 km/h.
C) 1600 km/h.
D) 1700 km/h.
E) 1800 km/h.
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
How fast an object is moving in a certain direction is described by the objects (Section 12.2)
Acceleration.
Kinetic energy.
Momentum.
Speed.
Velocity
12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following correctly describes velocity? (Section 12.2)
10 m/s.
100 km/s East.
150 km North.
200 km/h.
250 km/s2 West.
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13. In reference to the figure shown below, what is the acceleration of the object along the “C”
portion of the graph? (Section 12.2)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
-3 m/s2
-2.5 m/s2
zero m/s2
+2.5 m/s2
+3 m/s2
14. The following graphs show the displacement S versus time t and velocity V versus time t for a
moving object. In which of the graphs does the moving object reverse its direction? (Section 12.1
and Section 12.2)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
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15. The figure below shows the velocity-time graph of an object moving in a straight line. What is
the acceleration of the object at t = 20 seconds? (Section 12.2)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
− 8 m/s2
− 4 m/s2
− 2 m/s2
+ 2 m/s2
+ 4 m/s2
16. An object is moving in a straight line towards the west. Its speed decreases from 20 m/s to 10
m/s in 2 seconds. What is its acceleration? (Section 12.2)
A) 15 m/s2 west.
B) 10 m/s2 west.
C) 5 m/s2 west.
D) 5 m/s2 east.
E) 10 m/s2 east.
17. A bus is moving towards the north at 30 m/s. Suddenly, the driver applies the brakes and the
bus stops in 10 seconds. What is the acceleration of the bus during these 10 seconds? (Section
12.2)
A) 3 m/s2 south.
B) 3 m/s2 north.
C) 30 m/s2 south.
D) 30 m/s2 north.
E) 300 m/s2 south
18. At one instant, a car is moving at 10 m/s north. One second later it is moving at 10 m/s south.
What is its acceleration during this one second interval? (Section 12.2)
A) 0 m/s2
B) 20 m/s2 north
C) 20 m/s2 south
D) 10 m/s2 south
E) 10 m/s2 north
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19. What is the acceleration of a car that moves in a straight line at a constant speed of 100 km/h
for 10 seconds? (Section 12.2)
A) 0 km/h.s.
B) 10 km/h.s.
C) 10 m/s2.
D) 100 km/h.s.
E) 1000 km/h.s.
20. A person sitting inside a forward accelerating truck throws a ball straight up. Which of the
following statements is TRUE? (Section 12.2)
A) The ball goes up and falls behind the person.
B) The ball goes up and then straight back down into the person’s hand.
C) The ball goes up and lands in front of the person.
D) The ball goes up and lands to the left of the person.
E) The ball goes up and lands to the right of the person.
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following best describes momentum? (Section 12.3)
5 kg.m/s.
10 kg.m/s, north.
15 m/s, south.
20 kg/s, east.
20 kg.m.s.
22. An object has a mass of 1 kg and is moving north with a speed of 10 m/s. What is the
momentum of the object when it is measured by an observer inside a car moving north with a
speed of 10 m/s. (Section 12.3)
A) Zero kg.m/s.
B) 10 kg.m/s south.
C) 10 kg.m/s north.
D) 20 kg.m/s south.
E) 20 kg.m/s north.
23. Object A has a mass of 2 kg and is moving south with a speed of 4 m/s. Object B has a mass of 3
kg and is moving north with a speed of 6 m/s. What is the total momentum of the two objects?
(Section 12.3)
A) 10 kg.m/s south.
B) 10 kg.m/s north.
C) 18 kg.m/s north.
D) 26 kg.m/s south.
E) 26 kg.m/s north.
24. Two identical 1-kg billiard balls roll toward each other with equal speeds. What is the magnitude
of the total momentum of the two balls? (Section 12.3)
A) 0 kg.m/s.
B) 1 kg.m/s.
C) 2 kg.m/s.
D) 20 kg.m/s.
E) Need more information.
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25. Two identical balls (each with a mass of 1 kg) are moving toward each other as shown in the
figure below. The first ball is moving East at 4 m/s and the second is moving West at 7 m/s. With
no external forces acting, what is the total momentum of the two balls after collision? (Section
12.3)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Zero kg.m/s.
3 kg.m/s East.
3 kg.m/s West.
7 Kg.m/s West.
11 kg.m/s East.
26. A heavy truck and a small car, starting from rest and from the same position, roll down a hill.
Neglecting friction, at the bottom of the hill, the heavy truck will have greater (Section 12.3)
A) acceleration.
B) momentum.
C) speed.
D) all of these.
E) none of these .
27. What is the magnitude of the impulse (change in momentum) applied to a 1000-kg satellite
during one-half revolution if it orbits Earth in a circle at a constant speed of 500 m/s? (Section
12.3)
A) 0 kg.m/s.
B) 500,000 kg.m/s.
C) 1,000,000 kg.m/s.
D) 5,000,000 kg.m/s.
E) 10,000,000 kg.m/s
28. A 1000-kg satellite is orbiting the Earth at a constant speed of 6,000 km/h. If it takes 90 minutes
to make one revolution, what is the impulse (change in momentum) experienced by the satellite
in one revolution? (Section 12.3)
A) 0 N.s.
B) 9,000 N.s.
C) 54,000,000 N.s.
D) 600,000 N.s.
E) 1,666,666 N.s
29. A boy drops a 1-kg ball. It hits the ground with a speed of 6 m/s and bounces back with the same
speed. The change in its momentum (impulse) is (Section 12.3)
A) 0 kg.m/s
B) 6 kg.m/s down
C) 6 kg.m/s up
D) 12 kg.m/s down
E) 12 kg.m/s up
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30. A tennis player receives a 0.05-kg tennis ball traveling horizontally at 50 m/s and hits it back with
his racket so that the ball travels afterwards at a speed of 40 m/s in the opposite direction. What
is the magnitude of the impulse (change in momentum) delivered by the racket to the ball?
(Section 12.3)
A) 0.5 N.s
B) 2.0 N.s
C) 2.5 N.s
D) 4.5 N.s
E) 45 N.s
31. A 5000-kg railroad car collides and sticks to another 5000-kg stationary railroad car. After
collision, they move off together with a speed of 5 m/s. What was the speed of the moving 5000
kg car before the collision? (Section 12.3)
A) Zero m/s.
B) 2.5 m/s.
C) 5 m/s.
D) 10 m/s.
E) 15 m/s.
32. A moving 10-kg object collides with a stationary 5-kg object. If the two objects stick together and
move forward with a speed of 2 m/s after the collision, then the speed of the 10-kg object
before the collision was (Section 12.3)
A) 2 m/s.
B) 3 m/s.
C) 5 m/s.
D) 4 m/s.
E) 6 m/s.
33. Object A of mass 1 kg moves towards the east at a speed of 10 m/s and collides with a 3-kg
object B initially at rest. After the collision, objects A and B move together as one system (A & B).
What is the velocity of the system after the collision? (Section 12.3)
A) 2.5 m/s east.
B) 2.5 m/s west.
C) 10 m/s east.
D) 30 m/s east.
E) None of these.
34. A 2-kg rifle fires a 0.01-kg bullet with a speed of 200 m/s. The recoil speed of the rifle is (Section
12.3)
A) 0.001 m/s.
B) 0.01 m/s.
C) 0.1 m/s.
D) 1 m/s.
E) none of these.
35.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
What is the recoil speed of a 920-kg cannon that fires a 2-kg shell at 92 m/s? (Section 12.3)
0.2 m/s.
1.2 m/s.
10 m/s.
46 m/s.
92 m/s.
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36. A Railroad car A moving at a certain speed collides elastically with another railroad car B
originally at rest and of equal mass. After collision, car A is at rest. The speed of B after collision
(Section 12.3)
A) is zero (it will not move).
B) is half the speed of A before collision.
C) is equal to the speed of A before collision.
D) is twice the speed of A before collision.
E) none of these.
37. A bullet of mass m is fired horizontally at a wooden block of mass M resting on a frictionless
horizontal table. The bullet sticks to the block and they move together with speed V. What was
the initial speed of the bullet? (Section 12.3)
A) V
B) (m/M)V
C) (M/m)V
D) [(m + M)/m]V
E) [m/(m + M)]V
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Chapter 13
1. Two forces F1 and F2 are acting on an object. If the magnitude of net force F = F1 + F2 has a
maximum value of 9 N and a minimum value of 1 N, the magnitudes of each of the two forces F1
and F2 would be (Section 13.1)
A) 8 N and 1 N.
B) 7 N and 2 N.
C) 5 N and 4 N.
D) 6 N and 3 N.
E) 9 N and 1 N.
2. In the diagram shown below, four horizontal forces act upon an object of mass 6 kg resting on a
smooth surface. What is the net force acting on the object? (Section 13.1)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
–34 N.
–10 N.
+10 N.
+24 N.
+34 N.
3. A force of 10 N is applied westward on an object. Another force of 15 N is applied eastward. The
net force acting on the object is (Section 13.1)
A) 25 N eastward.
B) 5 N eastward.
C) 0 N.
D) 5 N westward.
E) 25 N westward.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The friction force is always (Section 13.2)
along the direction of motion.
perpendicular to the direction of motion.
opposite to the direction of motion.
equal to the weight of the object.
larger than the weight of the object.
5. Which of the following statements is TRUE? The friction force on an object is always (Section
13.2)
A) along the direction of motion of the object.
B) equal to the applied force on the object.
C) opposite to the force of gravity.
D) equal to the weight of the object.
E) none of these.
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6. A 60-kg person stands on two identical bathroom scales with his weight evenly distributed
between the two scales. Each scale should read (Section 13.2)
A) Zero N
B) 200 N
C) 600 N
D) 1200 N
E) None of these
7. Nellie hangs at rest from the ends of the rope as shown in Figure 1. Her mass is 50 kg. What is
the reading on the scale? (Section 13.2)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
0 kg
25 kg
50 kg
75 kg
100 kg
8. If the mass of Earth doubles and its radius is also doubled, compared to your original weight,
your new weight will be (Section 13.3)
A) One-fourth as much.
B) Half as much.
C) The same.
D) Twice as much.
E) Four times as much.
9. The mass of planet Jupiter is about 300 times the mass of Earth and its radius is about 10 times
the radius of Earth. Compared to your weight at the surface of Earth, your weight at the surface
of Jupiter would be (Section 13.3)
A) 3 times smaller.
B) 3 times larger.
C) 30 times smaller.
D) 30 times larger.
E) 300 times larger.
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following objects is in free fall (ignore air resistance)? (Section 13.3)
A stone thrown downward
A bullet fired from a gun
A stone dropped from a building
A stone thrown upward
All mentioned objects are in free fall
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11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following objects is in free fall (ignore air resistance)? (Section 13.3)
A stone thrown upward.
A bullet fired from a gun.
A falling droplet of water (rain).
A stone dropped from a building.
All mentioned objects are in free fall.
12. A skydiver is falling into the air. The speed-time graph of his motion is shown in the figure below.
At which point (a, b, c, d or e) did the skydiver open his parachute? (Section 13.3)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
13. A falling object is encountering air resistance. At the moment the object reaches its terminal
speed, (Section 13.3)
A) air resistance is zero.
B) the falling object starts to fall faster.
C) the falling object starts to slow down.
D) the acceleration of the falling object is 9.8 m/s2.
E) the net force acting on the falling object is zero.
14. A falling object is encountering air resistance. At the moment the object reaches its terminal
speed, (Section 13.3)
A) air resistance becomes zero.
B) the falling object starts to slow down.
C) the falling object starts to fall faster.
D) the acceleration of the falling object is zero.
E) the acceleration of the falling object is 9.8 m/s2.
15. A stone is thrown downward from a high bridge. Taking air resistance into account, while the
stone is falling and before reaching its terminal speed, (Section 13.3)
A) its speed and acceleration both increase.
B) its speed and acceleration both decrease.
C) its speed decreases and its acceleration increases.
D) its speed increases and its acceleration decreases.
E) its speed increases and its acceleration remains constant.
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16. An object is dropped from an airplane and falls down into the air. As the object is falling down,
and before reaching its terminal speed, which of the following statements is TRUE? (Section
13.3)
A) Both, its speed and its acceleration decrease.
B) Its speed is constant and its acceleration is zero.
C) Its speed increases and its acceleration decreases.
D) Its speed increases and its acceleration is constant.
E) Its speed decreases and its acceleration increases.
17. Consider an object falling through air. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Section 13.3)
A) The object experiences an air resistance force in the downward direction all the way until it hits
the ground.
B) The object experiences an air resistance force in the upward direction all the way until it hits the
ground.
C) The acceleration of the object increases all the way until it hits the ground.
D) The speed of the object decreases all the way until it hits the ground.
E) At the moment the object reaches its terminal speed, its acceleration is 9.8 m/s2.
18. Two balls of the same size and of different masses are dropped from a tall building into the air at
the same time and from the same height. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Section
13.3)
A) The heavier ball reaches its terminal speed first.
B) The lighter ball reaches its terminal speed first.
C) Both balls reach their terminal speeds at the same time.
D) Both balls have the same terminal speed.
E) None of these.
19. A heavy man and a light man jump from an airplane at the same time. They both open their
identical parachutes immediately after jumping from the airplane. Which of the following
statements is TRUE? (Section 13.3)
A) The heavy man reaches his terminal speed first.
B) The terminal speeds of both men are equal.
C) The light man reaches the ground first.
D) The terminal speed of the heavy man is larger than that of the light man.
E) The terminal speed of the light man is larger than that of the heavy man.
20. A skydiver jumps from an airplane and falls from rest towards the ground. Taking air resistance
into consideration, which of the following statements is TRUE? (Section 13.3)
A) The skydiver experiences minimum air resistance at the start of his fall.
B) The skydiver experiences maximum air resistance at the start of his fall.
C) The skydiver experiences increasing acceleration during his fall.
D) The speed of the skydiver increases after he reaches his terminal speed.
E) The speed of the skydiver decreases after he reaches his terminal speed.
21. An airplane drops a box that falls towards the ground. Considering air resistance, which of the
following statements is TRUE? (Section 13.3)
A) The box experiences increasing acceleration during its fall.
B) The box experiences minimum air resistance at the start of its fall.
C) The box experiences maximum air resistance at the start of its fall.
D) The net force on the box increases all the way until it reaches the ground.
E) Air resistance becomes zero at the moment the box reaches its terminal speed.
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22. A ball thrown straight upward takes 10 s to go up and return to the starting point. Because of air
resistance, the time taken by the ball to reach its maximum height could be (Section 13.3)
A) 4 s.
B) 5 s.
C) 6 s.
D) 7 s.
E) none of these.
23.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Weight is (Section 13.3)
Inertia
A force
Not a vector
Same as mass
Acceleration due to gravity
24. A 2-kg ball thrown straight up from the ground moves to a maximum height and falls back to the
ground. When the ball is at its maximum height, (Section 13.3)
A) its acceleration is 9.8 m/s2.
B) its acceleration is zero m/s2.
C) its inertia has its maximum value.
D) the support force acting on it is 20 N.
E) the force of gravity acting on is zero.
25. When a basketball player jumps to make a shot, once his feet are off the ground, the player’s
acceleration (Section 13.3)
A) is 9.8 m/s2.
B) depends on his mass.
C) depends on the initial speed he jumps with.
D) depends on how hard he pushes against the ground.
E) none of these.
26. An object is thrown vertically upward with an initial speed of 50 m/s. When it is halfway to the
top of its trajectory, its acceleration is (Section 13.3)
A) 0 m/s2
B) 5 m/s2 down.
C) 5 m/s2 up.
D) 9.8 m/s2 down.
E) 9.8 m/s2 up.
27. At a certain height, object X is dropped at the same time as object Y is thrown vertically upward
and object Z is thrown horizontally. Neglecting air resistance, which of the following objects have
a downward acceleration of 9.8 m/s2? (Section 13.3)
A) X only.
B) Y only.
C) Z only.
D) X & Y only.
E) All of them.
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28. Two objects, one heavier than the other, fall to the ground on the Moon with the same
acceleration. This happens because (Section 13.3)
A) there is no gravity on the Moon.
B) the two objects have equal masses.
C) there is no air resistance on the Moon.
D) the force of gravity is the same on both objects.
E) none of these.
29. An object is rolling down a frictionless ramp as shown in the figure below. If the maximum speed
of the object on the first half (left side) of the ramp is 10 m/s and its acceleration is 5 m/s2, then
on the second half (right side) of the ramp its maximum speed and acceleration can be (Section
13.3)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12 m/s and 2 m/s2.
10 m/s and 2 m/s2.
12 m/s and 5 m/s2.
12 m/s and 7 m/s2.
10 m/s and 5 m/s2.
30. A stone is dropped towards a river from a very high bridge. At the same time, a similar stone is
thrown downward towards the water with an initial speed of 5 m/s. Neglecting air resistance,
the acceleration just before striking the water (Section 13.3)
A) is the same for each stone.
B) is greater for the thrown stone.
C) is greater for the dropped stone.
D) depends (for each stone) on how high the bridge is.
E) none of these.
31. An airplane is flying at a constant velocity towards East. At a certain instant, it drops a package.
Neglecting air resistance, at the moment the package hits the ground, the airplane’s position
(Section 13.3)
A) is behind the package.
B) is ahead of the package.
C) is directly above the package.
D) with respect to the package depends on the speed of the airplane.
E) need more information.
32. An object weighs 50 N on Earth. A second object weighs 50 N on the Moon. Which of the
following statements is TRUE? (Section 13.3)
A) The object on Earth has smaller mass.
B) The object on the Moon has smaller mass.
C) Both objects have the same mass on Earth.
D) Both objects have the same mass on the Moon.
E) None of these.
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Newton’s First Law of Motion
33. The statement “An object at rest will remain at rest, and an object moving in a straight line at
constant speed will remain doing so, unless an outside force acts on it” is known as (Section 13.4)
A) the law of inertia.
B) the law of gravitation.
C) the law of action and reaction.
D) the law of conservation of energy.
E) none of these.
34. Object A has twice as much mass as object B. This means object A has twice as much (Section
13.4)
A) Gravitational acceleration
B) Inertia
C) Speed
D) Velocity
E) Volume
35.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Inertia is the property of an object to (Section 13.4)
fall freely in air.
be in equilibrium.
resist changes in its motion.
have smaller mass on the Moon.
none of these.
36.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
An object is dropped from a tall building. While the object is falling, its inertia (Section 13.4)
increases.
decreases.
remains the same.
becomes zero just before it hits the ground.
none of these.
37. According to Galileo, if we neglect air resistance, a ball fired from a cannon will continue to
move away from the cannon because of (Section 13.4)
A) the wind.
B) the inertia of the ball.
C) the heat of the cannon.
D) the mass of the cannon.
E) the ball’s spherical shape.
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Newton’s Second Law of Motion
38.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The acceleration of an object is (Section 13.4)
directly proportional to its mass.
opposite to the net force acting on it.
directly proportional to the net force acting on it.
inversely proportional to the net force acting on it.
none of these.
39. A car is travelling west at 80 km/h in a straight line. The driving force from the car’s engine is
1200 N. The net force on the car is (Section 13.4)
A) 0 N.
B) 15 N east.
C) 80 N west.
D) 1200 N east.
E) 1200 N west.
40. A 3-kg object is moving in a straight line with a speed of 3 m/s. How much net force is required
to keep the object moving at this velocity? (Section 13.4)
A) 0 N.
B) 3 N.
C) 9 N.
D) 10 N.
E) 30 N.
41. A 10-kg object falls in the air. What is the air resistance on the object when its acceleration is 4
m/s2? (Section 13.4)
A) 6 N.
B) 40 N.
C) 50 N.
D) 60 N.
E) None of these.
42. A 1-kg object falls in the air. What is the acceleration of the object when the air resistance on it
is 1 N? (Section 13.4)
A) 0 m/s2.
B) 8.8 m/s2.
C) 9.8 m/s2.
D) 10.8 m/s2.
E) None of these.
43. A 10-kg object is falling into the air. Consider air resistance constant. What is the magnitude of
the air resistance if the acceleration of the object is g/4, where g is the acceleration of free fall?
(Section 13.4)
A) 25 N.
B) 50 N.
C) 75 N.
D) 100 N.
E) None of these.
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44. A push on a 1-kg brick accelerates it. Neglecting friction, to equally accelerate a 10-kg brick, one
would have to push with (Section 13.4)
A) one-tenth as much of force.
B) just as much force.
C) 10 times as much force.
D) 100 times as much force.
E) none of these.
45. A 6-kg block placed on a smooth horizontal table is connected to another 4-kg block by a light
rope that passes over a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure. As the rope becomes fully
stretched and the 4-kg block starts to fall, its acceleration is (Section 13.4)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
zero m/s2.
4 m/s2.
6 m/s2.
10 m/s2.
none of these.
46. A force of 10 N applied to a certain object accelerates it by 2 m/s2 on a smooth horizontal floor.
If the same force is applied to the object on a rough floor where the friction force is 2 N, what
would be the acceleration of the object? (Section 13.4)
A) 1.0 m/s2.
B) 1.6 m/s2.
C) 1.8 m/s2.
D) 2.0 m/s2.
E) None of these.
47. A force of 100 N is applied to a box at rest on a rough horizontal table. If the box remains at rest,
the friction force on the box is (Section 13.4)
A) slightly less than 100 N.
B) exactly 100 N.
C) slightly more than 100 N.
D) a lot more than 100 N.
E) none of these.
48. A 2-kg book is at rest on a rough horizontal table. How much friction is acting on the book?
(Section 13.4)
A) 0 N
B) 1 N
C) 2 N
D) 10 N
E) 20 N
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49.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
In which of the following cases is a car “accelerating” towards the north? (Section 13.4)
A car slowing down while moving north.
A car slowing down while moving south.
A car moving north with constant velocity.
A car moving south with constant velocity.
A car speeding up while moving south.
50. A 1000-kg object is pushed forward for 10 s by a constant 5000-N force in the presence of a
constant 1000-N friction force. What is the change in the speed of the object during these 10 s?
(Section 13.4)
A) 4 m/s.
B) 5 m/s.
C) 40 m/s.
D) 50 m/s.
E) 100 m/s.
51. What is the mass of an object that requires a net force of 100 N to change its speed by 10 m/s in
5 s? (Section 13.4)
A) 10 kg.
B) 50 kg.
C) 100 kg.
D) 200 kg.
E) None of these.
52. A 10-kg object is moving East on a frictionless surface with an initial speed of 5 m/s. A force of 5
N directed West is then applied to it for 1 second. What is the final momentum of the object?
(Section 13.4)
A) 5 kg.m/s East.
B) 5 kg.m/s West.
C) 45 kg.m/s East.
D) 45 kg.m/s West.
E) none of these.
53. A crate is pushed along a rough horizontal surface with a force of 150 N. What is the magnitude
of the force of friction acting on the crate if it moves with a constant velocity? (Section 13.4)
A) Less than 150 N.
B) 0 N.
C) 150 N.
D) More than 150 N.
E) None of these.
54. In which of the following examples is the net force acting on the object equal to Zero? (Section
13.4)
I. A car moving in a circular track at constant speed.
II. An airplane moving at constant velocity.
III. A truck slowing down.
A) I only.
B) II only.
C) III only.
D) I and II only.
E) I and III only
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55. An object is being accelerated along a horizontal direction in the absence of friction by a force of
100 N. A second force of 100 N is then applied to the object in a direction opposite to its
direction of motion. The object with these two forces acting on it will (Section 13.4)
A) stop rapidly.
B) move in a circle.
C) move backward.
D) slowly come to a full stop.
E) move at constant velocity.
56. Two forces with magnitudes of 35 N and 65 N are applied on an object. Both forces are along the
north direction. The force needed to keep the object in mechanical equilibrium (acceleration is 0
m/s2) is (Section 13.4)
A) 30 N, north.
B) 30 N, south.
C) 65 N, north.
D) 100 N, north.
E) 100 N, south.
57. A 5-kg object is put into motion in a straight direction with an initial speed of 3 m/s on a rough
horizontal surface. The object comes to a full stop in 1.5 seconds. What is the magnitude of the
force of friction acting on the object? (Section 13.4)
A) 5 N
B) 10 N
C) 15 N
D) 22.5 N
E) 50 N
58. Object A of mass
is placed between objects B of mass
and object C of mass . All of
these objects lie in a straight line as shown in the figure below. If
, for what value of
the ratio
will the net gravitational force on A be zero? (Section 13.4)
A) 1/2
B)
C) 1
D)
E) 2
59. A crate is resting on a rough horizontal surface. You push on the crate with a force of magnitude
F, but the crate does not move. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Section 13.4)
A) There is no frictional force in this case.
B) The crate moves only when the surface is made frictionless.
C) The static friction between the crate and the surface is equal to F.
D) The static friction between the crate and the surface is less than F.
E) The static friction between the crate and the surface is larger than F.
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Newton’s Third Law of Motion
60.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
According to Newton’s third law of motion, the action and reaction forces (Section 13.4)
must be equal in magnitude, but need not act in opposite directions.
act on two different objects.
act on the same object.
must be equal in magnitude and must act in the same direction.
need not be equal in magnitude, but must act in opposite directions.
61.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements about an action-reaction pair of forces is False? (Section 13.4)
They always act on the same object.
They are always equal in magnitude.
They are always opposite in direction.
They always obey Newton’s third law of motion.
They always act on different objects.
62.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which of the following statements about two balanced forces is TRUE? (Section 13.4)
They must have equal magnitudes and must have opposite directions.
They must have equal magnitudes but do not necessarily have opposite directions.
They do not necessarily have equal magnitudes but must have opposite directions.
They do not necessarily have equal magnitudes, nor do they necessarily have opposite
directions.
E) None of these.
63. A book is resting on a table. The action force is the weight of the book. The reaction force to this
weight is (Section 13.4)
A) The force exerted by the table on the book.
B) The force exerted by the table on the ground.
C) The force with which the book is pulling on Earth.
D) The force exerted by the ground on the table.
E) None of these.
64. A 2-kg object is resting on a table. The pull of Earth on the book is called an action force. The
reaction force is (Section 13.4)
A) the weight of the book.
B) the pull of the book on Earth.
C) the normal force exerted by the table on the book.
D) the normal force exerted by the ground on the table.
E) none of these.
65.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The force that propels a rocket is provided by (Section 13.4)
gravity.
the exhaust gases.
the rocket’s inertia.
the air against which the rocket pushes.
none of these.
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66. A person with a mass of 60 kg pushes against a box (resting on a table) with a horizontal force of
20 N, but the box does not move. If the box weighs 3,000 N, what is the magnitude of the force
that the box exerts on the person? (Section 13.4)
A) Less than 20 N.
B) 20 N.
C) More than 20 N.
D) 600 N.
E) 3,000 N.
67. Two objects, A with a mass of 4 kg and B with a mass of 1 kg, have a head-on collision. Object A
exerts a force of 400 N on object B during the collision. The acceleration of object A after the
collision is (Section 13.4)
A) 80 m/s2.
B) 100 m/s2.
C) 200 m/s2.
D) 400 m/s2.
E) 1600 m/s2.
68. As an object falls, the action force is the pull of Earth on the object. The reaction force is the
(Section 13.4)
A) non-existent in this case.
B) weight of Earth.
C) air resistance acting on the object.
D) pull of the object on Earth.
E) none of these.
69. The force exerted on the tires of a car to directly accelerate it along a road is exerted by the
(Section 13.4)
A) engine.
B) air.
C) road.
D) tires
E) none of these.
70. As you stand on a balance scale resting on the floor, the reaction force to your weight is (Section
13.4)
A) The force with which you are pulling on Earth.
B) The force with which the scale is pushing on you.
C) The force with which you are pushing on the scale.
D) The force with which the floor is pushing on the scale.
E) None of these.
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Chapter 15
1. A 20-kg object dropped from a height of 5 meters hits the ground after 1.01 seconds. What is
the work done by gravity on the object during its fall? (Section 15.1)
A) Zero J
B) 100 J
C) 196 J
D) 970 J
E) 980 J
2. How much work is done in vertically lifting a 200-kg object by 2 m in a time of 4 seconds?
(Section 15.1)
A) 400 J
B) 980 J
C) 1600 J
D) 3920 J
E) 7840 J
3. A man uses stairs to carry a 10-kg suitcase from the ground floor to an upper level that is 30 m
higher. The amount of work done on the suitcase by the man is (Section 15.1)
A) 29.4 J.
B) 294 J.
C) 2940 J.
D) 29400 J.
E) depends on the number of stairs.
4. The work done in holding a weight of 40 N at a height of 3 meters above the floor for 2 seconds
is (Section 15.1)
A) 0 J.
B) 40 J.
C) 80 J.
D) 120 J.
E) 240 J.
5. A 1-kg object falls through air and reaches a terminal speed of 1 m/s. What is the power
delivered by the gravitational force to the object while it is moving at its terminal speed?
(Section 13.3 and Section 15.1)
A) 0.98 W
B) 4.9 W
C) 9.8 W
D) 49 W
E) 98 W
6. What is the power needed to keep an object moving in a straight line at a constant speed of 10
m/s when a constant friction force of 2 N is acting on it? (Section 15.1)
A) 2 W.
B) 5 W.
C) 10 W.
D) 20 W.
E) Need more information.
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7. If the amount of work needed to raise a 10-kg object to a height of 1 m on a certain planet is 60
J, the acceleration of free fall on that planet is (Section 15.1)
A) 0.6 m/s2.
B) 6 m/s2.
C) 10 m/s2.
D) 12 m/s2.
E) 60 m/s2.
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Chapter 16
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The process of converting light energy to chemical energy in plants is called (Section 16.1)
Analysis.
Electrolysis.
Emission.
Photosynthesis.
Respiration.
2. A car is traveling at 30 km/h. Another car of twice the mass is traveling at 15 km/h. Which of the
following statements is TRUE? (Section 12.3 and Section 16.1)
A) Both cars have the same momentum.
B) Both cars have equal kinetic energies.
C) The kinetic energy of the 30 km/h car is half that of the 15 km/h car.
D) The momentum of the 30 km/h car is twice that of the 15 km/h car.
E) None of these.
3. Car A with a mass of 1000 kg moves with a speed of 100 km/h. Car B with a mass of 4000 kg
moves with speed V. What is the value of V such that both cars would have equal kinetic
energies? (Section 16.1)
A) 25 km/h
B) 50 km/h
C) 100 km/h
D) 200 km/h
E) 400 km/h
4. A moving object has 20 Joules of kinetic energy. What is the change in its kinetic energy if its
speed is made three times larger? (Section 16.1)
A) 40 J
B) 60 J
C) 160 J
D) 180 J
E) None of these.
5. An object moving at a certain speed has a kinetic energy KE of 90 J. If its speed is made 3 times
smaller, what would the decrease in its KE be? (Section 16.1)
A) 30 J.
B) 80 J.
C) 90 J.
D) 270 J.
E) Need more information.
6. An object of mass 1 kg is pushed up along a 5 m long incline to a vertical height of 1 m. The
change in its potential energy is (Section 16.1)
A) 9.8 J.
B) 5 J.
C) Zero J.
D) +5 J.
E) +9.8 J.
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7. The weight of an object on an outer planet is 10 times less than its weight on Earth. Compared
to its kinetic energy on Earth, the kinetic energy of an object moving with the same speed on the
outer planet is (Section 16.1)
A) 100 times less.
B) 10 times less.
C) the same.
D) 10 times more.
E) 100 times more.
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Consider two moving objects. Which of the following cannot possibly be TRUE? (Section 16.1)
They have equal momenta.
Their total momentum is zero.
They have equal kinetic energies.
The kinetic energy of one is double the other.
The total kinetic energy of the two objects is zero.
9. A 1-kg ball dropped from a height of 20 m hits the floor and rebounds to a height of 15 m. The
amount of energy converted to heat and other forms of energy (excluding potential energy) is
(Section 16.2)
A) zero J.
B) 4.9 J.
C) 49 J.
D) 15 J.
E) 19.6 J.
10. A 1-kg object is dropped from a height of 40 m and falls freely to the ground. When the object is
halfway down, its kinetic energy is (Section 16.2)
A) 39.2 J.
B) 98 J.
C) 196 J.
D) 294 J
E) 392 J
11. An object is thrown vertically upward with an initial speed of 20 m/s. At which height (from the
starting point) will its kinetic energy and its potential become equal to each other? Neglect air
resistance. (Section 16.2)
A) 5.1 m.
B) 10.2 m.
C) 15.3 m.
D) 20.4 m.
E) None of these.
12. A 2-kg object is thrown straight up from the ground with a kinetic energy of 40 J. Neglecting air
resistance, the maximum height the object will reach is (Section 16.2)
A) 2 m.
B) 4 m.
C) 10 m.
D) 20 m
E) 40 m.
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13. A 4-kg object is lifted 10 m above the ground and then dropped. Neglecting air resistance, the
kinetic energy of the object after it has fallen 4 m is (Section 16.2)
A) 15.6 J.
B) 24 J.
C) 156.8 J.
D) 240 J
E) None of these.
14. An object in free fall reaches a speed of 20 m/s at a certain height h1. What will its speed be
when it has fallen to a height h2 that is 25 m less that h1? [Use the law of conservation of
energy]. (Section 16.2)
A) 29.8 m/s.
B) 25 m/s.
C) 35 m/s.
D) 45 m/s.
E) 55 m/s.
15. An object is initially held at a height of 500 m. It is then released from rest and the object falls to
the ground. What is the object’s speed just before it hits the ground? Neglect air resistance.
(Section 16.2)
A) 9.90 m/s
B) 49.49 m/s
C) 98.99 m/s
D) 494.95 m/s
E) 500 m/s
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 16)
Shorter electromagnetic waves carry more energy.
In any energy conversion, some useful energy is lost as chemical energy.
Microwaves, visible light, and gamma rays are all forms of radiant energy.
Heat on a sunny day and microwaves that cook food travel at the speed of light.
None of these.
17.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 16)
Incandescent light bulbs lose most of their energy as heat.
Nerves use thermal energy to communicate with the body.
Electricity generated using Earth's heat is referred to as geothermal energy.
Biomass fuels are inexpensive but they can create pollution when they are burned.
Recycling aluminum cans requires less energy than making new aluminum cans from bauxite
ore.
18.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 16)
Wind power is renewable.
Most of Earth’s energy comes from the Sun.
The total energy of an object at rest must be zero.
Nuclear energy creates hazardous radioactive wastes.
Units of energy can be expressed in KWh (KiloWatts-hour).
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19.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following processes can be used to conserve energy? (Section 16.4)
Recycling material.
Reusing items.
Reducing consumption.
All of these.
None of these.
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The law of conservation of energy states that (Section 16.2)
Useful energy is always equal to wasted energy.
Energy should be saved because it is easily destroyed.
Energy must not be used up faster than it is created, otherwise supply runs out.
Energy can be converted from one form into another but not created or destroyed.
All of these.
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Chapter 19
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following is not an electromagnetic wave? (Section 16.1 and section 19.1)
X-rays.
Radar Waves.
Gamma rays.
Seismic waves.
Infrared radiation.
2. For a certain wave, the amount of time needed for one wavelength to pass a given point is two
seconds. The frequency of this wave is (Chapter 19)
A) 0.5 Hz.
B) 1 Hz.
C) 2 Hz.
D) 4 Hz.
E) None of these.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Section 19.1 and section 19.2)
Electromagnetic waves are mechanical waves.
Electromagnetic waves can travel through vacuum.
Seismic waves travel through Earth and along its surface.
The matter through which a wave travels is called the medium.
In a transverse wave, the vibration is at right angles to the direction in which the wave travels.
4. The figure below represents a wave propagating along a string with a speed of 320 cm/s. The
frequency of the wave is (Section 19.3)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
40 Hz
80 Hz
320 Hz
640 Hz
1280 Hz
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
For a given wave, if the wavelength is reduced by half, its frequency (Section 19.3)
Doubles.
Remains the same.
Is also reduced by half.
Is reduced by four times.
Becomes four times larger.
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6. A wave with a period of 0.1 second is traveling from left to right across a rope as shown in the
figure below. Positions A and B are separated by a horizontal distance of 50 cm. Determine the
speed of this wave. (Section 19.3)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5 cm/s
25 cm/s
125 cm/s
250 cm/s
500 cm/s
7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 16 and Chapter 19)
In any conversion, some useful energy is lost as heat.
Incandescent light bulbs lose only a small portion of their energy as heat.
One way to conserve energy is to improve house insulation during heating and cooling.
In a compressional wave, the medium moves back and forth parallel to the direction in which
the wave travels.
E) All of these.
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Section 19.1 and section 19.3)
The frequency and period of a wave are inversely related.
As the energy of a transverse wave increases, its amplitude decreases.
The amplitude of a compressional wave depends on how tightly the medium is squeezed.
An important property of waves is that they transfer energy, but not matter, from place to place.
None of these.
9. A student shakes a rope back and forth to form waves. Compared to the rate of the rope’s
vibration, the rate at which crests and troughs form is (Section 19.3)
A) The same.
B) Half as much.
C) Twice as much.
D) Four times as much.
E) One-fourth as much.
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Chapter 20
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 20)
An echo is a reflected sound wave.
Sound travels through water at 30°C faster than water at 70°C.
The speed of sound in iron is greater than the speed of sound in water.
All waves are subject to the Doppler Effect, including electromagnetic waves.
None of these.
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 20)
An echo is a reflected sound wave.
Pitch is how high or low a sound seems to be.
Sound travels through water at 20°C faster than water at 80°C.
A sound intensity above 85 dB may cause permanent hearing damage.
None of these.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
For the Doppler Effect to take place, (Chapter 20)
The listener must be moving.
The sound source must be moving.
Both, source and listener must be moving.
Either source or listener must be moving.
None of these.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The speed of a sound wave traveling through air depends on (Chapter 20)
Its period.
Its frequency.
Its wavelength.
The air temperature.
None of these.
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A sound source of high frequency must have high (Chapter 20)
Pitch.
Speed.
Amplitude.
All of these.
None of these.
6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
If the speed of sound in a medium is 5100 m/s, this medium is a (Section 20.1)
Gas.
Liquid.
Solid.
Vacuum.
None of the others.
7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Compared to a 0-dB sound, a 20-dB sound is --------- times louder. (Section 20.2)
2
10
20
100
200
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Chapter 21
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Chapter 19 and Chapter 21)
Electromagnetic waves carry mechanical energy.
Seismic waves are transverse electromagnetic waves.
Gamma rays travel faster than Radio waves in vacuum.
Frequencies of ultraviolet light are higher than those of visible light.
In a transverse wave, the distance from the rest position to either a crest or a trough is called
wavelength.
2. Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 19 and Chapter 21)
A) Gamma rays travel faster than Radio waves in vacuum.
B) In a transverse wave, the distance from the rest position to either a crest or a trough is called
amplitude.
C) Doppler effect takes place when the source and receiver are moving with respect to each other.
D) Seismic waves are mechanical waves.
E) The amplitude of a sound wave can be determined by the density of the particles in the
compressions and rarefactions.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Section 21.2)
Light is an electromagnetic wave.
Light with higher frequency has higher energy.
An atomic spectrum is an element's fingerprint.
An atom emits electromagnetic radiation when one of its electrons "jumps” from a higher
energy level to a lower energy level.
E) All of them.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Electromagnetic waves are (Chapter 21)
Mechanical.
Transverse.
Longitudinal.
Compression.
A combination of transverse and compressional waves.
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Section 21.2)
The total energy of an object at rest must be zero.
Useful energy is always equal to wasted energy.
Electromagnetic waves are compressional waves.
Nerves use radiant energy to communicate with the body.
Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelength carry less energy.
6. Order the following electromagnetic waves as a function of their frequency, smallest first.
(Section 21.2)
A) Microwaves, Visible light, X rays.
B) Microwaves, X rays, Visible light.
C) X rays, Visible light, Microwaves.
D) X rays, Microwaves, Visible light.
E) Visible light, X rays, Microwaves.
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7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which type of electromagnetic wave from the Sun has the greatest intensity? (Section 21.2)
X rays.
Infrared.
Visible light.
Ultraviolet.
Microwaves.
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following colors of light has the lowest frequency? (Section 21.2)
Blue
Green
Red
Violet
Yellow
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Chapter 23
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Chapter 21 and Chapter 23)
Lightning is a large discharge of static electricity.
Ozone is a molecule made up of three oxygen atoms.
The electromagnetic spectrum is continuous (contains no gaps).
Ozone is vital to life on Earth because it absorbs harmful ultraviolet waves emitted by the Sun.
All of these.
2. The rearrangement of electrons on a neutral object, caused by a nearby charged object, is called
charging by (Chapter 23)
A) Sampling.
B) Induction.
C) Conduction.
D) Conversion.
E) Magnetization.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following has the smallest resistance? (Chapter 23)
Long, thin wire.
Short, thin wire.
Long, thick wire.
Short, thick wire.
The resistance does not depend on the length or thickness of a wire.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Section 23.1)
Neutrons and protons repel each other.
Neutrons and electrons attract each other.
Electrons are found inside the nucleus of an atom.
Like charges attract one another, but opposite charges repel each other.
None of these.
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following materials is a good insulator? (Section 23.2)
Air.
Glass.
Plastic.
Rubber.
All of these.
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Chapter 24
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 24)
Magnets always have two poles.
Moving electric charges produce magnetic fields.
Magnetic induction occurs when one magnet makes another material magnetic.
Magnets made of materials that are easy to magnetize, but lose their magnetism easily, are
called electromagnets.
E) None of these.
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Chapter 25
1. Which of the following is a device that increases or decreases voltage in an AC (alternating
current) power line? (Chapter 25)
A) Motor.
B) Polarizer.
C) Generator
D) Transformer.
E) Commutator.
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following can be used to increase voltage? (Chapter 25)
Solenoid.
Voltmeter.
Electromagnet.
Galvanometer.
Step-up transformer.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 25)
Magnetic field lines form circles around a straight current-carrying wire.
A current-carrying wire coiled around an iron core is called an electromagnet.
A current is produced when a moving loop of wire passes over a stationary magnet.
A battery contains chemicals that convert stored chemical energy into electric energy.
The strength of an electromagnet can be increased by reducing the number of turns on the wire
coil.
4. A 20-volt DC (direct current) source is connected to the primary coil of a transformer. If the
primary coil has 10 turns and the secondary coil has 5 turns, what would be the output voltage?
(Chapter 25)
A) Zero volts.
B) 10 volts.
C) 20 volts.
D) 40 volts.
E) 100 volts.
5. A transformer has an alternating current (AC) input voltage of 60 V. The primary coil has 10 turns
of wire and the secondary coil has 20 turns of wire. What is the voltage of the output? (Chapter
25)
A) 30 V.
B) 120 V.
C) 240 V.
D) 600 V.
E) 1200 V.
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6. Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Chapter 25)
A) An electric current produces a magnetic field.
B) The magnetic field strength of an electromagnet can be altered by changing the current through
it.
C) An electric current is produced when there is relative movement between a wire loop and a
magnetic field.
D) Electromagnetic induction occurs when a changing magnetic field produces forces that push
electrons through a wire, creating a current.
E) None of these.
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Chapter 28
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Water)
Most aquifers are replenished via rivers or rain.
Saudi Arabia is mostly a desert country with no permanent rivers or lakes and very little rainfall.
Any water-bearing underground region through which groundwater can flow is called an aquifer.
Rain that does not soak into the ground becomes runoff, which empties into lakes, rivers and
streams.
E) None of these.
2.
A)
B)
C)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Water)
A well is a man-made hole deeper than the water table.
A confined aquifer that is under pressure is an artesian aquifer.
An unconfined aquifer is a water supply that has an impermeable layer below it, but not above
it.
D) Flowing artesian wells usually need a pump to bring water to the surface from the aquifer they
are drilled into.
E) A confined aquifer is a water supply which is sandwiched between two layers of soil or rock that
water cannot pass through (impermeable layers).
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (Water)
About 2.5% of Earth’s water is fresh water.
About 97.5% of the water on Earth is salt water.
A spring is a man-made hole deeper than the water table.
The Earth’s unfrozen fresh water is found mainly as groundwater.
Slightly over two thirds of Earth’s fresh water is frozen in glaciers and polar ice caps.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Most of the Earth's water is found in the (Water)
ground.
glaciers.
oceans.
ice caps.
rivers, lakes, and streams.
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Most of the Earth's fresh water is located in (Water)
aquifers.
groundwater.
the atmosphere.
polar ice caps and glaciers.
rivers, lakes, and streams.
6. Consider a well in an unconfined aquifer. If no pump is used, what would be the highest level
water can rise to in such a well? (Water)
A) The top of the well.
B) The level of water table.
C) Depends on how deep the well is.
D) Just below the level of water table.
E) Depends on the hydraulic conductivity of the aquifer.
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7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Evaporation and precipitation are greatest over the (Water)
lakes.
equator.
oceans.
continents.
polar ice caps.
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Most of Earth’s fresh water is located in the (Water)
rivers.
oceans.
polar ice caps.
saturated zone.
unsaturated zone.
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Precipitation that does not soak into the ground or evaporate becomes (Water)
runoff.
groundwater.
soil moisture.
artesian wells.
the water table.
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which has the longest residence time on the continents? (Water)
Lakes.
Glaciers
Rivers.
Deep groundwater.
Shallow groundwater.
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Water that precipitates on land (Water)
percolates into the ground.
evaporates from the surface to the atmosphere.
enters streams and lakes and makes its way to the oceans.
all of these.
none of these.
12. As rain falls and sinks into the ground, some of it percolates downward and fills pore spaces
between sediment grains. This water is now specifically called (Water)
A) moisture.
B) rain water.
C) groundwater.
D) fresh water.
E) water table.
13. In a confined aquifer, groundwater may flow out (to the land surface) through openings. If the
opening is natural (not man-made) and water flows out of the ground, then it is called (Water)
A) water table.
B) fresh water.
C) natural water.
D) an artesian well.
E) an artesian spring.
Organized By Jawad Ahmad
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14. Some of the largest dams in Saudi Arabia are located in the Wadi Jizan, Wadi Fatima, Wadi Bisha
and Najran. Water from these dams is mainly used for (Water)
A) Fishing.
B) Industry.
C) Recreation.
D) Agriculture.
E) Domestic use.
15. In the figure below, the area referred to by “X” is (Water)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Dam.
Spring.
Swamp.
Artesian well.
Flowing artesian well.
Organized By Jawad Ahmad
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