JUPITER EDUCATION ACADEMY
MOCK TEST NO:3
Questions
1. Select the correct statement:
(a) Sodium metal is stored under
kerosene
5. The basic character of hydrides of
the V-group elements decreases in the
order
(b) One of the oxides of carbon is a
basic oxide
(a) SbH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > NH3
(b) NH3 > SbH3 > PH3 > AsH3
(c) Metals can form only basic oxides
(c) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(d) Metals can form only basic oxides
(d) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
2. When HNO3 is dropped into the
palm and washed with water, it turns
into yellow. It shows the presence of
6. Which hydride is the strongest
base?
(a) NO2
(b) NH3
(b) N2O
(a) AsH3
(c) PH3
(c) NO
(d) SbH3
(d) N2O5
3. Which one has the
percentage of nitrogen?
highest
(a) Urea
(b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Ammonium nitrate
7. BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas
NCl3 is pyramidal because
(a) BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas
NCl3 has a lone pair of electrons
(b) B-Cl bond is more polar than N-Cl
bond
(c) nitrogen atom is smaller than boron
atom
(d) Calcium nitrate
4. Each of the following is true for
white and red phosphorus except that
they
(a) are both soluble in CS2
(b) can be oxidised by heating in air
(c) consists of same kind of atoms
(d) can be converted into one another
(d) N-Cl bond is more covalent than BCl bond
8. H3PO2 has the name and basicity
respectively:
(a) phosphorus acid and two
(b) hypophosphorus acid and two
(c) hypophosphorus acid and one
(d) hypophosphoric acid and two
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9. Oxidation number of As in H2As𝑂4−
is
(a) 6
(b) All oxo-acids contains atleast one P
– O unit and one P – OH group
(c) Orthophosphoric acid is used in the
manufacture of triple superphosphate
(d) All oxo-acids contain tetrahedral
four coordinated phosphorus
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 9
10. Which one of the following
combines with Fe(II) ions to form a
brown complex?
(a) N2O
14. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur
dioxide have some properties in
common. Which property is shown by
one of these compounds, but not by
the other?
(a) Is soluble in water
(b) NO
(b) Is used as a food preservative
(c) N2O3
(c) Forms ‘acid-rain’.
(d) N2O5
(d) Is a reducing agent
11. In 𝑁𝑂3− ion, the number of bond
pair and lone pair of electrons on
nitrogen atom are:
15. Strong reducing behaviour of
H3PO2 is due to:
(a) 4, 0
(b) Presence of two-OH groups and
one P-H bond
(b) 3, 1
(a) High oxidation state of phosphorus
(c) Presence of one-OH group and two
P-H bonds
(c) 1, 3
(d) 2, 2
(d) High electron gain enthalpy of
phosphorus
12. Which of the following statement is
wrong?
(a) Nitrogen cannot form d𝜋-𝜋 bond
(b) The stability of hydrides increase
from NH3 to BiH3 in group 15 of the
periodic table
(c) Single N-N bond is weaker than the
single P-P bond
(d) N2O4 has two resonance structure
13. Which of the following statements
is not valid for oxo-acids of
phosphorus?
(a) Hypophosphorus acid is a diprotic
acid
16. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to
(a) Reduction
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Its acidic nature
17. When H2S is passed through
acidified KMnO4, we get
(a) K2SO3
(b) MnO2
(c) KHSO3
(d) Sulphur
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18. Which one of the gases dissolves
in H2SO4 to give oleum
(a) SO2
23. Which one is responsible for
depletion of ozone layer in the upper
strata of the atmosphere?
(a) Polyhalogens
(b) Ferrocene
(b) H2S
(c) Fullerenes
(c) S2O
(d) Freons
(d) SO3
19. Hypo is used in photography to
(a) Reduce AgBr grains to metallic
silver
(b) Convert the metallic silver to silver
salt
(c) Remove undecomposed
bromide as a soluble complex
silver
24. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to
its
(a) Oxidising property
(b) Acidic property
(c) Basic property
(d) Reducing property
(d) Remove reduced silver
25. The angular shape of ozone
molecule (O3) consists of
20. There is no S-S bond in
(a) 2 sigma and 2 pi-bonds
(a) S2𝑂42−
(b) 1 sigma and 1 pi-bond
(b) S2𝑂52−
(c) 2 sigma and 1 pi-bond
(c) S2𝑂32−
(d) 1 sigma and 2 pi-bonds
(d) S2𝑂72−
21. Which of the following is not a
chalcogen?
26. Which of the following does not
give oxygen on heating?
(a) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(a) O
(b) K2Cr2O7
(b) S
(c) Zn(ClO3)2
(c) Se
(d) KClO3
(d) Na
22. Oxygen molecule exhibits
(a) Paramagnetism
(b) Diamagnetism
(c) Ferromagnetism
(d) Ferrimagnetism
27. Which of the statements given
below is incorrect?
(a) ONF is isoelectronic with O2N(b) OF2 is an oxide of fluorine
(c) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric
acid
(d) O3 molecule is bent
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28. Which one is correctly matched:
(a) Vit. E – Tocoferol
(a) Vitamin B6 – Loss of appetite
(b) Vit. D – Riboflavin
(b) Vitamin B1 – Beriberi
(c) Vit. B – Calciferol
(c) Vitamin B2 – Pellagra
(d) Vit. A – Thiamine
(d) Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anemia
29. Stool of a person contains whitish
grey colour due to malfunction of
which type of organ:
(a) Pancreas
(b) Spleen
34. A patient is generally advised to
specially consume more meat, lentils,
milk and eggs in diet only when he
suffers from:
(a) Anemia
(c) Kidney
(b) Scurvy
(d) Liver
(c) Kwashiorkor
30. Continuous bleeding from an
injured part of body is due to
deficiency of:
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Vitamin E
31. The richest sources of vitamin B12
are:
(a) Chocolate and green gram
(b) Rice and hen’s egg
(c) Carrot and chicken’s breast
(d) Goat’s liver and spirulina
32. Duodenum has characteristic
Brunner’s glands which secrete two
hormones called
(a) Secretin, cholecystokinin
(b) Prolactin, parathormone
(c) Extradiol, progesterone
(d) Kinase, estrogen
33. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
(d) Rickets
35. Examination of blood of a person
suspected of having anemia shows
large,
immature,
nucleated
erythrocytes without haemoglobin.
Supplementing his diet with which of
the following is likely to alleviate his
symptoms?
(a) Thiamine
(b) Folic acid and cobalamin
(c) Riboflavin
(d) Iron compounds
36. Which one of the following
mammalian cells is not capable of
metabolizing glucose to carbon dioxide
aerobically?
(a) Red blood cells
(b) White blood cells
(c) Unstriated muscle cells
(d) Liver cells
37. Which one of the following is a fatsoluble vitamin and its related
deficiency disease?
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41. Which one of the following pairs of
food compounds in humans reaches
the stomach totally undigested?
(a) Calciferol - Pellagra
(b) Ascorbic acid - Scurvy
(c) Retinol - Xerophthalmia
(a) Starch and cellulose
(d) Cobalamin – Beriberi
(b) Protein and starch
38. What will happen if the secretion of
parietal cells of gastric glands is
blocked with an inhibitor?
(c) Starch and fat
(d) Fat and cellulose
(a) In the absence of HCI secretion,
inactive pepsinogen is not converted
into the active enzyme pepsin
42. Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the
absorption of substances like
(b) Enterokinase will not be released
from the duodenal mucosa and so
trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin
(b) glucose and fatty acids
(a) amino acids and glucose
(c) fatty acids and glycerol
(c) Gastric juice will be deficient in
chymosin
(d) fructose and some amino acids
(d) Gastric juice will be deficient in
pepsinogen
43. For its activity, carboxypeptidase
requires:
39. When breastfeeding is replaced by
less nutritive food low in proteins and
calories, the infants below the age of
one year are likely to suffer from:
(a) Iron
(b) Niacin
(c) Copper
(d) Zinc
(a) Pellagra
(b) Marasmus
44. The purplish red pigment
rhodopsin contained in the rods type of
photo receptor cells of the human eye
is a derivative of:
(c) Rickets
(d) Kwashiorkor
40. A young infant may be feeding
entirely on mother’s milk which is white
in colour but the stools which the infant
passes out is quite yellowish. What is
this yellow colour due to?
(a) Pancreatic
duodenum
juice
poured
into
(b) Intestinal juice
(c) Bile pigments passed through bile
juice
(d) Undigested milk protein casein
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B1
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
45. Anxiety and eating spicy food
together in a otherwise normal human
may lead to
(a) Diarrhoea
(b) Vomiting
(c) Indigestion
(d) Jaundice
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46. Select the correct match of the
digested products in humans given in
column I with their absorption site and
mechanism in column II.
Column I
(a)
Glycine,
glucose
(b)
Fructose
Na+
(c)
Glycerol,
fatty acids
(d)
Cholesterol,
maltose
Column II
small intestine, active
small
intestine,
passive absorption
duodenum, move as
chylomicrons
large intestine, active
absorption
47. The initial step in the digestion of
milk in human is carried out by?
(a) Lipase
(d) Oxyntic cells are present in the
mucosa of stomach and secrete HCI.
50. Gastric juice of infants contains:
(a) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
(b) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
(c) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
(d) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
51. The primary dentition in human
differs from permanent dentition in not
having one of the following type of
teeth:
(a) Incisors
(b) Canine
(c) Premolars
(d) Molars
(b) Trypsin
(c) Rennin
52. The enzymes that is not present in
succus entericus is:
(d) Pepsin
48. Fructose is absorbed into the blood
through mucosa cells of intestine by
the process called
(a) active transport
(a) lipase
(b) maltase
(c) nucleases
(d) nucleosidase
(b) facilitated transport
(c) simple diffusion
(d) co-transport mechanism
49. Which of the following statements
is not correct?
(a) Acini are present in the pancreas
and secrete carboxypeptidase
(b) Brunner’s glands are present in the
submucosa of stomach and secrete
pepsinogen
(c) Goblet cells are present in the
mucosa of intestine and secrete
mucus
53. Blood analysis of a patient reveals
an unusually high quantity of
carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which
of the following conclusions is most
likely to be correct? The patient has
been inhaling polluted air containing
unusually high content of
(a) Chloroform
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Carbon disulphide
54. When CO2 concentration in blood
increases, breathing becomes
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(a) There is no effect on breathing
enhances RBC production
(b) Slow and deep
(d) People eat more nutritive food,
therefore more RBCs are formed
(c) Faster and deeper
(d) Shallower and slow
55. Which one of the
statements is incorrect?
following
(a) The residual air in lungs slightly
decreases the efficiency of respiration
in mammals
(b) The presence of non-respiratory air
sacs, increases the efficiency of
respiration in birds
(c) In insects, circulating body fluids
serve to distribute oxygen to tissues
(d) The principle of countercurrent flow
facilitates efficient respiration in gills of
fishes
56. The majority of carbon dioxide
produced by our body cells is
transported to the lungs:
(a) Dissolved in the blood
(b) As bicarbonates
(c) As carbonates
(d) Attached to hemoglobin
57. People living at sea level have
around 5 million RBC per cubic
millimeter of their blood whereas those
living at an altitude of 5400 metres
have around 8 million. This is because
at high altitude
(a) People get pollution-free air to
breathe and more oxygen is a
available
(b) Atmospheric O2 level is less and
hence more RBCs are needed to
absorb the required amount of O2 to
survive
(c) There is more UV radiation which
58. Which one of the following
mammalian cells is not capable of
metabolizing glucose to carbon dioxide
aerobically?
(a) Red blood cells
(b) White blood cells
(c) Unstriated muscle cells
(d) Liver cells
59. What is true about RBCs in
humans?
(a) They carry about 20-25 per cent of
CO2
(b) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2
(c) They transport about 80 per cent
oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of
its transported in dissolved state in
blood plasma
(d) They do not carry CO2 at all
60. The figure given below shows a
small part of human lung where
exchange of gases takes placed. In
which one of the options given below,
the one part A, B C or D is correctly
indentified along with its function.
Options:
(a) B: red blood cell – transport of CO2
mainly
(b) C: arterial capillary – passes
oxygen to tissues
(c) A: alveolar cavity – main site of
exchange or respiratory gases
(d) D: Capillary wall – exchange of O2
and CO2 takes place here
61. A large proportion of oxygen is left
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unused in the human blood even after
its uptakes by the body tissues. This
O2:
of 0.035 kg. If tension in the string is
60.5 N, then speed of a wave on the
string is
(a) helps in releasing more O2 to the
epithelial tissues
(a) 77 m/s
(b) acts as a reserve during muscular
exercise
(c) 110 m/s
(c) raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm
of Hg
(d) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin
saturation at 96%
62. Which one of the following is the
correct statement for respiration in
humans?
(a) Workers in grinding and stonebreaking industries may suffer, from
lung fibrosis
(b) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2)
is carried by haemoglobin as
carbamino haemoglobin
(c) Cigarette smoking may lead to
inflammation of bronchi
(d) Neural signals from pneumotoxic
centre in pons region of brain can
increase the duration of inspiration
63. People who have migrated from
the planes to an area adjoining
Rohtang Pass about six months back:
(a) Suffer from altitude sickness with
symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.
(b) Have the usual RBC count but their
haemoglobin has very high binding
affinity to O2
(c) Have more RBCs and their
haemoglobin has a lower binding
affinity to O2
(d) Are not physically fit to play games
like football
(b) 102 m/s
(d) 165 m/s
65. If the tension and diameter of a
sonometer wire of fundamental
frequency n are doubled and density is
halved then its fundamental frequency
will become
(a)
𝑛
4
(b) √2𝑛
(c) 𝑛
(d)
4
√2
66. A source and an observer move
away from each other with a velocity of
10 m/s with respect to ground. If the
observer finds the frequency of sound
coming from the source as 1950 Hz,
then actual frequency of the source is
(velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s)
(a) 1950 Hz
(b) 2068 Hz
(c) 2132 Hz
(d) 2486 Hz
67. A whistle revolves in a circle with
an angular speed of 20 rad/sec using a
string of length 50 cm. If the frequency
of sound from the whistle is 385 H,
then what is the minimum frequency
heard by an observer, which is far
away from the centre in the same
plane? (v = 340 m/s)
(a) 333 Hz
64. A string of 7 m length has a mass
(b) 374 Hz
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(c) 385 Hz
phase
difference
between
oscillations of two points?
(d) 394 Hz
(a)
68. Which one of
statements is true?
the
following
(b)
𝜋
3
2𝜋
3
(a) Both light and sound waves in air
are transverse
(c) 𝜋
(b) The sound waves in air are
longitudinal while the light waves are
transverse
6
(c) Both light and sound waves in air
are longitudinal
(d) Both light and sound waves can
travel in vacuum
69. The time of reverberation of a
room A is one second. What will be the
time (in seconds) of reverberation of a
room, having all the dimensions
double of those of room A?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c)
1
2
(d) 1
70.
Two
sound
waves
with
wavelengths 5.0 m and 5.5 m
respectively, each propagates in a gas
with velocity 330 m/s. We expect the
following number of beats per second:
(a) 12
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 6
71. Two points are located at a
distance of 10m and 15 m from the
source of oscillation. The period of
oscillation is 0.05 s and the velocity of
the wave is 300 m/s. What is the
(d)
the
𝜋
72. Each of the two strings of length
51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are tensioned
separately by 20 N force. Mass per
unit length of both the strings is the
same and equal to 1 gm-1. When both
the strings vibrate simultaneously the
number of beats is
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 3
73. The driver of a car travelling with
speed 30 ms-1 towards a hill sounds a
horn of frequency 600 Hz. If the
velocity of sound in air is 330 ms-1, the
frequency of reflected sound as heard
by driver is
(a) 550 Hz
(b) 555.5 Hz
(c) 720 Hz
(d) 500 Hz
74. A transverse wave is represented
by y = A sin (𝜔𝑡 − 𝑘𝑥). For what value
of the wavelength is the wave velocity
equal to the maximum particle
velocity?
(a) 𝜋 𝐴/2
(b) 𝜋 𝐴
(c) 2 𝜋 𝐴
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(d) A
75. A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz
makes 4 beats/s with the vibrating
string of a piano. The beat frequency
decreases to 2 beats/s when the
tension in the piano string is slightly
increased. The frequency of the piano
string before increasing the tension
was
(a) 510 Hz
reflected back to the train as echo. The
frequency of the echo as detected by
the driver of the train is
(speed of sound in air is 330 ms-1)
(a) 3500 Hz
(b) 4000 Hz
(c) 5000 Hz
(d) 3000 Hz
(c) 516 Hz
79. If we study the vibration of a pipe
open at both ends, then the following
statement is not true
(d) 508 Hz
(a) Open end will be anti-node
(b) 514/Hz
76. Sound waves travel at 350 m/s
through a warm air and at 3500 m/s
through brass. The wavelength of a
700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters
brass from warm air
(a) increases by a factor 20
(b) increases by a factor 10
(c) decreases by a factor 20
(d) decreases by a factor 10
77. Two identical piano wires kept
under the same tension T have a
fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. the
fractional increase in the tension of
one of the wires which will lead to
occurrence of 6 beat/s when both the
wires oscillate together would be
(b) Odd harmonics of the fundamental
frequency will be generated
(c) All harmonics of the fundamental
frequency will generated
(d) Pressure change will be maximum
at both ends
80. A source of unknown frequency
gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a
source of known frequency 250 Hz.
The second harmonic of the source of
unknown frequency gives five beats
per second, when sounded with a
source of frequency 513 Hz. The
unknown frequency is
(a) 254 Hz
(b) 246 Hz
(c) 240 Hz
(d) 260 Hz
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.03
(c) 0.04
(d) 0.01
78. A train moving at a speed of 220
ms-1 towards a stationary object emits
a sound of frequency 1000 Hz. Some
of the sound reaching the object gets
81. A speeding motorcyclist sees
traffic jam ahead of him. He slows
down to 36 km/hour. He finds that
traffic has eased and a car moving
ahead of him at 18km/hour is honking
at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speed
of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of
the honk as heard by him will be
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(a) 1332 Hz
(b) 1372 Hz
(c) 1412 Hz
(d) 1454 Hz
82. The fundamental frequency of a
closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is
equal to the second overtone of an
organ pipe at both the ends. The
length of organ pipe open at both the
ends is
(a) 80 cm
(b) 100 cm
(c) 120 cm
(d) 140 cm
83. A string is stretched between fixed
points separated by 75.0 cm. It is
observed to have resonant frequencies
of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no
other resonant frequencies between
these two. The lowest resonant
frequency for this string is
(a) 105 Hz
(b) 155 Hz
(c) 205 Hz
(d) 10.5 Hz
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