Date:08/11/2015
Max. Marks : 100
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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
(NTSE-2016) STAGE - 1
MAHARASHTRA STATE : SAT (39-C)
SOLUTIONS
Time allowed : 90 Mins
Fuse wire should be placed in the path of ............................wire.
(1)
neutral
(2)
phase
(3)
earth
(4)
none of these
(2)
phase
Fuse wire should be placed in the path of phase wire. If fuse wiere is connected in phase
(live) wire, it isolate the load and wiring from live supply when it burns as current
exceeds its limit.
Since neutral is not live conductor coming from source disconnecting a neutral line can
only open the circuit and prevents the current flow, but live phase carries a potential and
always provides a live supply to the load.
The average drift velocity of electrons in a wire not connected to a cell is .................
(1)
zero
(2)
always positive
(3)
infinite
(4)
always negative
(1)
zero
The drift velocity is the flow velocity of an electron, attains due to electric field. As
conductor is not connected to cell there is no electric field and the electrons randomly
more to any direction, so average drift velocity of electrons in a conductor not connected
to cell is zero.
Most of the power stations produce ..........................
(1)
direct current
(2)
electric power
(3)
potential difference
(4)
alternating current
(4)
alternating current
Colour of scattered light depends .........................
(1)
only on size of scattering particle
(2)
only on length of travelling light
(3)
both size of scattering particle and length of travelling light
(4)
on colour of incident light
(3)
both size of scattering particle and length of travelling light
If speed of light travelling from air to a medium decreases by 40%, find the refractive
index of the medium with respect to air.
(1)
2.5
(2)
1.67
(3)
1.3
(4)
1.25
(2)
1.67
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Sol. Let ‘x’ m/s be the speed of light in air.
Then, speed of light in medium is x - 0.4 x = 0.6 x
Speed of light in air
R.I. of medium with respect to air = speed of light in medium
R.I. of medium with respect to air =
x
10
= = 1.67
0.6 x 6
6.
Choose the correct alternative which matches second and third coloumn with first column:
Column - I
Column - II
Column - III
(I)
thickening of eye
(A)
focal length
(i)
ciliary muscles
lens
increases
contract
(II)
thining of eye
(B)
focal length
(ii)
ciliary muscles
lens
decreases
elongate
(1)
(I) - (B) - (i), (II) - (A) - (ii)
(2)
(I) - (B) - (ii), (II) - (A) - (i)
(3)
(I) - (A) - (i), (II) - (B) - (ii)
(4)
(I) - (A) - (ii), (II) - (B) - (i)
Ans (2)
(I) - (B) - (ii), (II) - (A) - (i)
7.
In an electric circuit 1 x 1018 hydrogen ions are travelling per second in the right direction
while double number of electrons are travelling per second in left direction, the total
current through the path is ........................
(Charge on one electron = 1.6 x 10-19 C)
(1)
4.8 A
(2)
1A
(3)
0.48 A
(4)
0.1 A
Ans (3)
0.48 A
Sol. For Hydrogen ions,
I1 =
Q ne 1 ´ 108 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
=
=
t
t
1
I1 = 0.16 A
For electrons, I 2 =
8.
Q ne 2 ´ 1 ´ 10 8 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
=
=
t
t
1
I2 = 0.32 A
As electrons move towards positive ions,
total current is addition of both currents
\ I = I = I 1 + I2 = 0.16 + 0.32 = 0.48 A
Choose the correct alternative, in relation to properties of magnetic lines of force
(1)
magnetic lines of force start from south pole and end on north pole.
(2)
magnetic lines of force intersect each other at the poles
(3)
magnetic lines of force are far from each other where the field is strong
(4)
tangent at any point on the magnetic lines of force gives the direction of the
magnetic field at that point.
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Ans (4)
Sol
9.
tangent at any point on the magnetic lines of force gives the direction of the
magnetic field at that point.
1.
Magnetic lines of force start from north pole and end on south pole.
2.
Magnetic lines of force never intersect each other.
3.
Magnetic lines of force are close from each other where the field is strong.
4.
Tangent at any point on the magnetic lines of force gives the direction of the
magnetic field at that point.
Choose the correct alternative which matches second and third coloumn with first column:
Column - I
Column - II
Column - III
(I)
(II)
Tap key
Ammeter
(a)
(b)
+
+
_
A
_
G
(i)
to be connected in
series
(ii)
to be connected in
parallel
(III)
Voltmeter
(c)
(IV)
Galvanometer
(d)
+
_
V
(iii)
detects presence of
current
(iv)
to keep circuit open
(1)
(I) - (b) - (ii), (II) - (c) - (iv), (III) - (a) - (i), (IV) - (d) - (iii)
(2)
(I) - (a) - (i), (II) - (b) - (iii), (III) - (c) - (iv), (IV) - (d) - (ii)
(3)
(I) - (d) - (iii), (II) - (b) - (iv), (III) - (a) - (i), (IV) - (c) - (ii)
(4)
(I) - (c) - (iv), (II) - (a) - (ii), (III) - (d) - (i), (IV) - (b) - (iii)
Ans Answer has given below:
Sol. (I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
Tap key
(c)
Ammeter
(a)
Voltmeter
Galvanometer
+
+
(d)
(n)
A
+
_
V
G
_
_
(iv)
to keep the circuit open
(i)
to be connected in
series
(ii)
to be connected in
parallel
(iii)
detects presence of
current
10.
Choose the wrong statement related to virtual image:
(1)
images are always produced by plane mirrors only
(2)
images are always erect
(3)
image cannot be obtained on the screen
(4)
image is formed at a point where reflected and refracted rays appear
Ans (1)
images are always produced by plane mirrors only
Sol. 1.
Virtual images are formed by plane, concave and also by convex mirrors.
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2.
3.
4.
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12.
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15.
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Virtual images are always erect
Virtual image cannot be obtained on the screen
Virtual image is formed at a point where reflected and refracted rays appear to
meet.
.......................identifies quality of sound in human ear.
(1)
Nerve impulse
(2)
Pinna
(3)
Cochlea
(4)
Ear drum
(3)
Cochlea
Identifies quality of sound in human ear.
Cleaning of dust from carpet is due to ........................
(1)
inertia of motion
(2)
inertia of rest
(3)
inertia of direction
(4)
momentum
(2)
inertia of rest
Cleaning of dust from carpet is due to inertia of rest
Arrange the following metals in increasing resistivities
Chromium, Nickel, Manganese, Iron
(1)
Nickel - Iron - Manganese - Chromium
(2)
Nickel - Iron - Chromium - Manganese
(3)
Manganese - Chromium - Iron - Nickel
(4)
Chromium - Iron - Manganese - Nickel
(2)
Nickel - Iron - Chromium - Manganese
Resistivity of Nickel - 6.85 x 10-8 Wm
Iron - 9.71 x 10 -8 Wm
Chromium - 13 x 10 -8 Wm
Manganese - 185 x 10 -8 Wm
Therefore order of metals according the increasing resistinties is
Nickel - Iron - Chromium - Manganese
The total number of elements present in 4th period of modern periodic table is
(1)
8
(2)
18
(3)
32
(4)
12
(3)
32
Number of different elements = Number of electrons in 4th shell
Number of electrons in a shell is given by 2n2
\
No. of electrons in 4th shell = 2(4) 2 = 32
Which of the following medicines is used for Indigestion?
(1)
Antibiotic
(2)
Antacid
(3)
Analgesic
(4)
Antiseptic
(2)
Antacid
Antacid is used to treat indigestion.
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16.
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17.
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18.
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19.
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20.
Which of the following is an ore of mercury?
(1)
Bauxite
(2)
Haematite
(3)
Cinnabar
(4)
Dolomite
(3)
Cinnabar
Cinnalar is an ore of mercury
Cinnabar = HgS
Bauxite is an ore of Aluminium
Haematite is an ore of iron
Dolomite is an ore of magnesium
KNO3(s) when mixed with water, temperature of solution falls, this reaction is
(1)
Endothermic reaction
(2)
Exothermic reaction
(3)
Cooling reaction
(4)
Heating reaction
(1)
Endothermic reaction
Temperature of solution falls which means heat is absorbed from the solution, reactions
involving absorption of heat are called endothermic reaction.
Ammonium chloride is a salt of
(1)
Weak Acid and Weak Base
(2)
Weak Acid and Strong Base
(3)
Strong Acid and Strong Base
(4)
Strong Acid and Weak Base
(4)
Strong Acid and Weak Base
NH4Cl is made from neutralization of NH4OH and HCl i.e. a weak base and strong acid.
What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?
(1)
pent-2-ene
(2)
pent - 1 - ene
(3)
pent-3-ene
(4)
1-methyl-but-2-ene
(1)
pent-2-ene
The given structure has a straight chain structure i.e. it has no branches. Double bond is
between carbon number 2 and 3 from L.H.S.
Hence, name is pent-2-ene.
Which of the following is correct electron dot structure of oxygen?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans (1)
Sol. Each oxygen atom should have 8 electrons two pairs of shared
bond.
21. What type of oxide would Eka-Aluminium (Gallium) form?
(1)
GaO3
(2)
Ga3O2
(3)
Ga2O3
(4)
GaO
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to denote the double
Ans (3)
Ga2O3
Sol. Aluminium oxide = Al2O3
\ Gallium oxide = Ga2O3
22. During Electrolytic refining of copper:
(a)
Pure Copper acts as Anode
(b)
Pure Copper acts as Cathode
(c)
Impure Copper acts as Anode
(d)
Impure Copper acts as Cathode
(1)
(a), (b)
(2)
(b), (c)
(3)
(a), (d)
(4)
(b), (d)
Ans (2)
(b), (c)
Sol. Impure metal acts as anode
Pure metal acts as cathode
23. Which of the following is not an example of single displacement reaction?
(1)
CuO + H2 ® H2O + Cu
(2)
Zn + CuSO4 ® ZnSO4 + Cu
(3)
AgNO3 + NaCl ® AgCl + NaNO3 (4)
Zn + 2HCl ® ZnCl2 + H2
Ans (3)
AgNO3 + NaCl ® AgCl + NaNO3
Sol. AgNO3 + NaCl ®AgCl + NaNO3
This is a double displacement reaction
24. The ratio of Hydrogen and Oxygen by mass in water is
(1)
1:8
(2)
8:1
(3)
2:1
(4)
1:2
Ans (1)
1:8
Sol. Water has molecular formula H2O
mass of Hydrogen 2 ´ mass of H atom
1 1
=
= 2´ =
mass of Oxygen
mass of Atom
16 8
25.
Which of the following reactions is involved in Black and White photography?
(1)
2Cu + O2 ¾¾
D ® 2CuO
(2)
Sunlight
® 2Ag + Br 2
2AgBr ¾¾¾¾¾
(3)
ZnO + C ¾¾
® Zn + CO
(4)
CaCO3 ¾¾
D ® CaO + CO 2
Sunlight
® 2Ag + Br2
2AgBr ¾¾¾¾¾
Sol. In presence of sunlight, AgBr decomposed into Ag and Br.
26. Which of the following reactions wil not occur?
Ans (2)
(1)
® MgSO4 + H2
Mg + H2SO4 ¾¾
dil
(2)
® CuCl 2 + H2
Cu + 2HCl ¾¾
dil
(3)
® 2AlCl3 + 3H2
2Al + 6HCl ¾¾
dil
(3)
Fe + 2HCl ¾¾
® FeCl 2 + H2
dil
Ans (2)
® CuCl 2 + H2
Cu + 2HCl ¾¾
dil
Sol. Cu doesn’t react with dilute acid as it lies below H in reactivity series.
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27.
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28.
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29.
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30.
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31.
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Sol.
Which organism breakdown the food material into simple substance outside the body
and then absorb it?
(1)
Mushroom
(2)
Cuscuta
(3)
Ticks
(4)
Tape worms
(1)
Mushroom
Mushroom is saprophyte which obtains nutrition by breakdown of dead and decaying
organic material and then absorbs it.
The ...................receives deoxygenated blood collected from different organs of the body
via large vein called vena cava.
(1)
Left atrium
(2)
Right atrium
(3)
Right ventricle
(4)
Left ventricle
(2)
Right atrium
The right atrium of heart receives deoxygenated blood from different body parts and
through right ventricle sends it to lungs for oxygenation.
Which plants has a trap, which looks and smells like a flower to insects?
(1)
Drosera
(2)
Balsam
(3)
Lotus
(4)
Venus Fly trap
(1)
Drosera
Drosera and Venusfly trap both are insectivorous plants but Drosera resembles and smells
more like a flower to insects.
Which of the following organisms has a nervous system that is at very primitive stage
of development?
(1)
Amoeba
(2)
Hydra
(3)
Earthworm
(4)
Paramoecium
(2)
Hydra
Simplest type of nervous system is found in Hydra which is represented by nerve net.
The vegetative reproduction in Bryophyllum takes place through which organ?
(1)
Root
(2)
Stem
(3)
Leaf
(4)
Seed
(3)
Leaf
32.
A pollen tube, produced from the pollen grain, contains .................male gametes.
(1)
One
(2)
Two
(3)
Seven
(4)
Eight
Ans (2)
Two
Sol. A pollen tube contains two male gametes, one of which fuses with egg cell to produce
zygote and other gamete with central cell to produce endosperm.
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33.
In Mendel’s dihybrid cross how many groups of phenotypic characters are found in F2
generation (second filial generation)?
(1)
Four
(2)
Two
(3)
One
(4)
Sixteen
Ans (1)
Four
Sol. In a dihybrid cross, the F2 generation has two new combinations besides two
parental combinations, thus producing four types of phenotypic characters.
34. According to palaeontological evidences, identify the correct sequence of animal
development:
(1)
Fish ® Reptiles ® Amphibians ® Birds ® Mammals
(2)
Fish ® Reptiles ® Birds ® Amphibians ® Mammals
(3)
Fish ® Amphibians ® Birds ® Reptiles ® Mammals
(4)
Fish ® Amphibians ® Reptiles ® Birds ® Mammals
Ans (4)
Fish ® Amphibians ® Reptiles ®Birds ® Mammals
Sol. The fossil evidence suggest that life evolved from water to land, so the sequence of
organism devlopment is fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, mammals.
35. According to origin, identify the secondary air pollutant.
(1)
SO3
(2)
Ash
(3)
Smoke
(4)
Radioactive compound
Ans (1)
SO3
Sol. SO3 is secondary air pollutant which is not released into the atmosphere directly, but
produced as a result of interaction of primary air pollutants.
36. In residential area at night, the standard limit of sound intensity is ....................Decibel.
(1)
55
(2)
70
(3)
45
(4)
40
Ans (3)
45
Sol. The standard limit of sound intensity is 45 Db in residential area at night according
to sound pollution control norms.
37. The absorption of useful material from urine before it is passed out takes place through
...........................epithelium tissue.
(1)
Cuboidal
(2)
Ciliated columnar
(3)
Columnar
(4)
Stratified squamous
Ans (1)
Cuboidal
Sol. The cuboidal epithelial tissue absorbs useful material from urine before it is passed.
38. Which is the smallest unit of classification of organisms?
(1)
Genus
(2)
Species
(3)
Family
(4)
Order
Ans (2)
Species
Sol. Hence species is the smallest unit of classification.
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39.
Female ovaries secrete __________ hormone.
(1)
Estrogen
(2)
Testosterone
(3)
Auxin
(4)
Gibberellins
Ans (1)
Estrogen
Sol. Estrogen is secreted by ovaries which is responsible for development and maintainance
of secondary sexual characters in females.
40. Liver gland secretes ..............................
(1)
Pancreatic juice
(2)
Bile juice
(3)
Gastric juice
(4)
Various digestive juices
Ans (2)
Bile juice
Sol. Bile juice is secreted by liver and stored in gall bladder which helps in emulsification of
fats .
41. What was the fact that caused the failure of the League of Nations? Choose from the
following alternatives:
(1)
Hitler’s attack on Austria
(2)
The issue of Sweden-Finland and Holland
(3)
To take vote in Saar province
(4)
Attack of Italy on Kaifu island
Ans (1)
Hitler’s attack on Austria
Sol. Main failure was Hitler’s attack on Austria.
42. Which one of the following nations was not member at the time of G-7 organization
established?
(1)
Holland
(2)
Japan
(3)
Italy
(4)
France
Ans (1)
Holland
43. Which one of the following was Supreme God of Greeks?
(1)
Hera
(2)
Apollo
(3)
Zeus
(4)
Venus
Ans (3)
Zeus
44. The following pairs are given about discover and discovery. Choose incorrect pair from
the following:
(1)
Mungopark ---- Discovered basins of the Niger river
(2)
Livingstone ----Discovered basins of the Zambezi river
(3)
Christopher Columbus ----Discovered American Continent
(4)
Bartholomew Dias ----Circumnavigation of the earth
Ans (4)
Bartholomew Dias ----Circumnavigation of the earth
Sol. Bartholomew Dias was the first European to reach the Southern tip of South Africa.
45. Which one of the following reasons is inappropriate about cold war?
(1)
Supremacy between America and Russia
(2)
Non-Alliance Movement
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(3)
Communism in Soviet Russia
(4)
Differences in philosophical thinking
Ans (2)
Non-Alliance Movement
46. The office which is shown in the given picture belongs to which International
Organization?
Ans
Sol.
47.
Ans
Sol.
48.
Ans
49.
(1)
United Nations Organization
(2)
League of Nations
(3)
International Court
(4)
International Worker’s Organization
(1)
United Nations Organization
The office is of United Nations.
Arrange the following events in chronological order
(I)
Treaty between England-France
(II)
A political revolution in Turkey
(III)
A friendship treaty between English -Japan
(IV)
A friendship treaty between England - Russia
Option:
(1)
(I), (III), (II), (IV)
(2)
(II), (I), (IV), (III)
(3)
(III), (I), (IV), (II)
(4)
(IV), (III), (II), (I)
(3)
(III), (I), (IV), (II)
III
I
IV
II
|
|
|
|
1902 1904
1907
1908
“The rule of one lion is ever better than hundred rats.” Who had proclaimed this statement?
(1)
Montesquieu
(2)
Voltaire
(3)
Mirabo
(4)
Napoleon Bonaparte
(2)
Voltaire
Which one of the princely state was merged under the pretext of maladministration?
(1)
Satara
(2)
Nagpur
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Ans
Sol.
50.
Ans
Sol.
51.
Ans
52.
Ans
Sol.
53.
Ans
Sol.
54.
Ans
55.
Ans
Sol.
(3)
Sambalpur
(4)
Ayodhya
(4)
Ayodhya
Ayodhya was merged under the pretext of maladministration.
Educational institutions were established in the colonies by each of the colonialistic
nation because
(1)
To get Western education
(2)
To eradicate ignorance of the people in the colony
(3)
To get secondary grade staff for the administrative convenience
(4)
To popularize and spread their culture
(3)
To popularize and spread their culture
To get secondary grade staff for the administrative convenience
Which one is the desctructive effect of Imperialism?
(1)
Spread of Education
(2)
Intellectual Change
(3)
Physical Reformations
(4)
Trade of Slaves
(4)
Trade of Slaves
Who took advantages of the dispute between France and Italy about religious and colonial
problems?
(1)
Kaiser William II
(2)
Hitler
(3)
Bismarck
(4)
Benito Mussolini
(3)
Bismarck
Otto Von Bismarck
During the cold war which country was not a part of the ‘SEATO TREATY’ established
under the leadership of America?
(1)
Pakistan
(2)
Philippines
(3)
Indonesia
(4)
Thailand
(3)
Indonesia
Indonesia was not the part of ‘SEATO TREATY’.
Which revolution made an attempt to create a social order without religion class and
exploitation?
(1)
Industrial Revolution
(2)
Meiji Revolution
(3)
Russian Revolution
(4)
Formation of United Nations Organization
(3)
Russian Revolution
Who is considered as ‘The Father of China’?
(1)
Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen
(2)
Yuan-Shih-Kai
(3)
Kang-Yu-Wei
(4)
Mao-Tse-Tung
(1)
Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen
Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen is considered as “The Father of China”.
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56.
Ans
57.
Ans
58.
Ans
Sol.
59.
Ans
Sol.
60.
Ans
61.
Ans
62.
The region situated to the foothills of Jalpaiguri and Darjeeling is known as ................
(1)
Marshy area
(2)
Flood plain
(3)
Duars
(4)
Doab
(3)
Duars
Which group has correct order of rivers from south to north in the Deccan Plateau region?
(1)
Cauvery ® Godavari ® Mahanadi ® Tungabhadra
(2)
Cauvery ® Mahanadi ® Tungabhadra ® Godavari
(3)
Cauvery ® Tungabhadra ® Godavari ® Mahanadi
(4)
Cauvery ® Godavari ® Tungabhadra ® Mahanadi
(3)
Cauvery ® Tungabhadra ® Godavari ® Mahanadi
Which of the following factors is going to reduce the soil degradation?
(1)
Excess use of soil
(2)
Excess irrigation
(3)
Excess use of chemical fertilizers (4)
Crop rotation method
(4)
Crop rotation method
Crop rotation method.
Which of the following states do not share land border with Myanmar?
(1)
Meghalaya
(2)
Manipur
(3)
Mizoram
(4)
Nagaland
(1)
Meghalaya
Meghalaya does not share border with Myommas.
Mining occupation is well developed on the Chhota Nagpur plateau because
(1)
Road transport
(2)
Availability of minerals
(3)
Generation of employment
(4)
Labour supply
(2)
Availability of minerals
The largest wool market of Asia is ...........................
(1)
Barmer
(2)
Bikaner
(3)
Jaisalmer
(4)
Jodhpur
(2)
Bikaner
The direction of river in the following contour pattern is
C
400 m 500 600 700 800 900
B
D
A
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63.
Ans
64.
Ans
65.
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Sol.
66.
Ans
67.
Ans
Sol.
68.
Ans
69.
Ans
70.
Ans
(1)
D to B
(2)
B to C
(3)
A to C
(4)
C to D
(1)
D to B
Find the wrong pair
(1)
Coast of Gujrat --Region of gulf
(2)
Konkan Coast -- Region of many headlands
(3)
Malabar Coast -- Region of backwaters
(4)
Coromandel Coast -- Delta region of Narmada
(4)
Coromandel Coast -- Delta region of Narmada
The correct order of rivers of Punjab-Haryana plains from North to South is ...............
(1)
Beas ® Satluj ® Ghaggar
(2)
Ghaggar ® Beas ® Satluj
(3)
Satluj ® Beas ® Ghaggar
(4)
Satluj ® Ghaggar ® Beas
(1)
Beas ® Satluj ® Ghaggar
Out of the total area under cultivation of Himachal Pradesh how much area is under
irrigation?
(1)
1/4
(2)
1/5
(3)
1/3
(4)
1/2
(2)
1/5
1/5 of the total area under cultivation of Himachal Pradesh
The largest physical division of India is ...........................
(1)
The North Indian Plain
(2)
The Mountainous region in the North
(3)
The Peninsular Plateau Region
(4)
The Coastal Plains
(3)
The Peninsular Plateau Region
Which of the following is a one-dimensional diagram?
(1)
Quadrilateral
(2)
Divided Circle
(3)
Divided Rectangle
(4)
A line graph
(4)
A line graph
A line graph is one-dimensional.
The famous place of ‘Kumbha Mela’ from the Central Highlands is
(1)
Ujjain
(2)
Nasik
(3)
Prayag
(4)
Haridwar
(1)
Ujjain
Garhjat hills occupied the North-Western part of which state?
(1)
Tripura
(2)
West Bengal
(3)
Meghalaya
(4)
Odisha
(4)
Odisha
What is the cause of not getting High grade coal in Meghalaya?
(1)
Less proportion of limestone
(2)
Less content of Sulphur
(3)
Greater proportion of coke
(4)
Greater proportion of Sulphur
(4)
Great proportion of Sulphur
13 of 24
71.
Ans
Sol.
72.
Ans
73.
Ans
74.
Ans
Sol.
75.
Ans
76.
Ans
77.
Ans
78.
Ans
“In a democracy each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one
value.” Which one of the following countries is irrelevant for this statement?
(1)
Russia
(2)
China
(3)
Fiji
(4)
United Arab Emirates
(3)
Fiji
Fiji, the vote of an indigenous Fiji has mroe value than that of an Indian Fiji.
What is recall?
(1)
To call the representative back
(2)
Presenting proposal of Law by the people
(3)
Taking decisions on important public issues on the basis of public opinion
(4)
To change the government
(1)
To call the representative back
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on ......................
(1)
26th January, 1950
(2)
26th November, 1949
(3)
10th February, 1948
(4)
9th December, 1946
9th December, 1946
..........................seats are reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha.
(1)
43
(2)
40
(3)
41
(4)
45
(3)
41
41 seats for ST in Lok Sabha.
Which one of the following inequality is excess then democracy remains only in name?
(1)
Economic
(2)
Social
(3)
Cultural
(4)
Political
(1)
Economic
In Socialism, the decisions about production depend upon the objectives and priorities
laid down by ...............................
(1)
Food Corporation
(2)
Central Planning Commission
(3)
Reserve Bank
(4)
Central Productive Body
(2)
Central Planning Commission
How much percentage of share of Tertiary Sector is in the Gross Domestic Product in
India 2011?
(1)
18
(2)
26
(3)
45
(4)
56
(4)
56
Consumer must be provided with accurate information about quality, purity, price,
quantity and the standard of the goods and service. What right of a consumer is this?
(1)
Right to choose
(2)
Right to safety
(3)
Right to be informed
(4)
Right to consumer education
(3)
Right to be informed
14 of 24
79.
Ans
80.
Ans
81.
Ans
Sol.
Which is incorrect reason out of the following reasons to increase in demand for goods
and services?
(1)
Lopsided production
(2)
Increase in export
(3)
Reduction in tax
(4)
Availability of credit
(1)
Lopsided production
What factors are included as ‘Arteries’ to an economy?
(1)
Small Scale and Cottage Industries
(2)
Transportation and Communication
(3)
Capital and Labour Supply
(4)
Government Policy and Credit Supply
(2)
Transportation and Communication
In the year 2013, Pravin saves Rs 1 on the first day, Rs. 3 on the second day, Rs. 5 on the
third day and so on. Find the total amount of his saving in that year.
(1)
Rs. 133225
(2)
Rs. 132225
(3)
Rs. 123225
(4)
Rs. 134225
(1)
Rs. 133225
Saving on 1st day ® Rs. 1
Saving on 2nd day ® Rs. 3
There are 365 days to 2013
\
an = a + (n -1)d
a = 1, d = 2, n = 365
\
a365 = 1 + (365 - 1)2
= 1 + (364 ´ 2)
= 729
\
Sn =
=
n
(a + 1)
2
365
365
(1 + 729) =
(730)
2
2
Sn = 133225
82. Ganesh has to pay Rs. 482 for 19 apples and 11 guavas. If he would have exchanged the
number of apples and guavas purchased, then he would have paid Rs. 64 less. Find how
much more amount he has to pay to purchase 1 apple than 1 guava?
(1)
Rs. 19
(2)
Rs. 8
(3)
Rs. 11
(4)
Rs. 7
Ans (2)
Rs. 8
Sol. Let 1 guava be Rs. x
1 apple be Rs. y
19y + 11x = 482
...(1)
after exchange
15 of 24
19x + 11y = 418
...(2)
Adding (1) and (2)
30x + 30y = 900
x + y = 30
...(3)
Subtracting
8y - 8x = 64
y-x=8
...(4)
Adding (3) and (4)
2y = 38 Þ y = 19
\ x = 11
\ He has to pay Rs. 8 more
83.
Find the quadratic equation whose one root is 2 + 5
(1)
(3)
Ans (2)
x2 - 4x + 1 = 0
x2 - 4x + 3 = 0
x2 - 4x - 1 = 0
(2)
(4)
x2 - 4x - 1 = 0
x2 - 4x - 3 = 0
one root = 2 + 5
Sum of roots is rational
\ other root = 2 - 5
(
)(
\ Product of root = 2 + 5 2 - 5
)
= 4 - 5 = -1
\ Quadratic equation is x2 - 4x - 1 = 0
84. In a frequency distribution table, modal value of the wages of 130 workers is Rs. 97.50
L = 94.5, fm = x + 15; f1 = x; f2 = x + 5. Find the upper limit of the modal class.
(1)
96.5
(2)
97.5
(3)
98.5
(4)
99.5
Ans (4)
99.5
Sol.
85.
æ
x + 15 - x
ö
97.5 = 94.5 + 4 ç
÷
è 2(x +15) - x - (x + 5) ø
\ x=5
\ upper limit = 94.5 + 5 = 99.5
Given the equality of the following determinants. Find the value of (a + b)
4 3
6 a
(1)
(3)
Ans (2)
=
6 b
4 5
8
14
12
(2)
(4)
16 of 24
12
16
Sol. Þ
Þ
Þ
86.
If a = 6 + 5 ; b = 6 - 5 , then find the value of 2a2 - 5ab + 2b2.
(1)
(3)
Ans (3)
Sol.
4a - 18 = 30 - 4b
4a + 4b = 48
a + b = 12
36
39
39
(2)
(4)
37
41
a= 6 + 5
b= 6 - 5
ab = 6 - 5 = 1
\ 2a2 - 5ab + 2b2
87.
Þ
2( 6 + 5) 2 - 5(1) + 2( 6 - 5)2
Þ
2(6 + 5 + 2 30) - 5 + 2(6 + 52 30)
Þ
44 - 5 = 39
Out of a group of Swans,
7
times the square root of number of Swans are playing on the
2
shore of the tank. Remaining two are quarreling in the water. Calculate the total number
of Swans. Find the number of Swans playing on the shore of the tank.
(1)
14, 16
(2)
16, 12
(3)
14, 12
(4)
16, 14
Ans (4)
16, 14
Sol. Let no of swans be x
ATQ,
7
x +2= x
2
\
49
x = x2 + 4 - 4x
4
Þ
x2 - 4x -
Þ
Þ
Þ
Þ
Þ
4x2 - 16x - 49x + 16 = 0
4x2 - 65x + 16 = 0
4x2 - 64x - x + 16 = 0
4x ( x - 16) - 1(x - 16) = 0
(4x - 1) (x - 16) = 0
\
x=
\
Swans playing on the shore of the tank =
49 x
+4=0
4
1
, 16
4
17 of 24
7
16
2
7
´ 4 = 14
2
=
\
88.
total no. of swans = 16
\
Solution (16, 14)
A coin and a die is tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of the event that ‘tail’
and a prime number turns up?
(1)
1
2
(2)
1
4
(3)
1
3
(4)
2
3
Ans (2)
1/4
Sol. Sample space
H1 , H2 , H3 , H4 , H5 , H6
T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6 Þ 12
P (A tail & prime no.) =
89.
3 1
=
12 4
In a frequency distribution median is
11
times the mean, and mode is 5.2. Find the
10
median.
(1)
4.4
(3)
4.1
Ans (1)
4.4
Sol. Median =
90.
(2)
(4)
11
Mean
10
10
Median
11
\
Mean =
\
2 Mean = 3 Median - Mode
Þ
2
Þ
æ 20
ö
ç 11 - 3 ÷ Median = -5.2
è
ø
Þ
Median =
If
(1)
4.3
4.0
10
Median = 3 Median - 5.2
11
5.2 ´ 11
= 0.4 ´ 11 = 4.4
13
x
y
z
=
=
and x + y + z ¹ 0, then what is each ratio equal to
2y + z - x 2z + x - y 2 x + y - z
1
2
(2)
18 of 24
1
3
(3)
Ans (1)
Sol.
2
(4)
2
3
1/2
x
y
z
=
=
2y + z - x 2z + x - y 2 x + y - z
Let
\
x
y
z
=
=
=k
2y + z - x 2z + x - y 2 x + y - z
\
x = k(2y + z - x)
y = k (2z + x - y)
z = k(2x + y - z)
x + y + z = k (2y + 2z + 2x)
\
k=
\
Each fraction is equal is
1
2
1
2
A
91.
4.5
D
7.5
C
B
In the above figure DABC, mÐB = 900, BD ^ AC, AD = 4.5, AB = 7.5,
then find A(DBDC) : A(DABC)
(1)
16 : 25
(2)
4:5
(3)
25 : 16
(4)
5:4
Ans (1)
16 : 25
Sol. AD = 4.5
AB = 7.5
DADB ~ DABC
\
AD DB AB
=
=
AB BC AC
Þ
Þ
AB2 = AD ´ AC
(7.5)2 = 4.5 ´ AC
Þ
AC =
7.5 ´ 7.5
4.5
AC = 12.5 cm
D CDB ~ D CBA
19 of 24
\
92.
Ans
Sol.
93.
Ans
Sol.
Ar.D CDB CB2 12.52 - 7.52
=
=
= 0.64 = 16 : 25
ArD CBA AC2
12.52
If sin q = -0.60, then find the quadrant from which the terminal arm making an angle of
q0 passes.
(1)
I quadrant
(2)
II quadrant
(3)
III quadrant
(4)
IV quadrant
(3)
III quadrant
sin = -0.60
since the arm is in 4th quadrant
\
angle passes through III quadrant
A roller of diameter 1.4 m and length 1.4 m is used to press the ground having area 3080
sq. m. Find the number of revolutions that the roller will make to press the ground.
(1)
700
(2)
500
(3)
1000
(4)
800
(2)
500
Diameter of roller = 1.4 m
r = 0.7 m
Length = 1.4 m
\
Curved surface area = 2 prh
= 2´
=
22 7 14
´ ´
7 10 10
44 ´ 14
100
Ground Area = 3080 m2
\
Number of revolution =
3080
´ 100 = 500
44 ´ 14
94.
If a line passes through the intersection point of the graphs of the lines x + 2y = 7 and
x - y = 4 and the origin, then find the equation of the line.
(1)
y = 0.5x
(2)
y = 5x
(3)
y = 0.2x
(4)
y = 2x
Ans (3)
y = 0.2 x
Sol. x + 2y = 7
x-y=4
\
3y = 3 Þ y = 1, x = 5
\
point of intersection = (5,1)
origin = (0,0)
\
Equation of line
y -1 x - 5
y -1 x - 5
=
Þ
=
o -1 o - 5
-1
-5
20 of 24
Þ
5y - 5 = x - 5
Þ
5y = x
Þ
y = 0.2x
95. In DABC, mÐBAC = 1400, ‘P’ is the centre of the circumcircle of DABC. Find mÐPBC.
(1)
400
(2)
500
(3)
800
(4)
1000
Ans (2)
500
A
Sol. p is the circumcircle
\
A circle passing three B, A, C has centre P.
140
\
Reflex BPC = 140 x 2 = 280
\
ÐBPC = 360 - 280 = 80
B
C
180 - 80
0
Ð
PBC
=
=
50
\
0
2
96.
If the ratio of the radii of the circular ends of a conical bucket whose height is 60cm is
2:1 and addition of the area is 770 sq.cm. Find the capacity of the bucket in litres.
(1)
21.56 litres
(2)
215.6 litres
(3)
21560 litres
(4)
2156 litres
Ans (3)
21560 litres
Sol Let the radius be r, 2r
p r2 + p(2r)2 = 770
Þ
22
´ 5r 2 = 770
7
Þ r2 =
770 ´ 7
= 49
22 ´ 5
Þ r = 7cm
\
=
\
volume of Bucket =
Top radius = 14cm
1
ph (r2 + R2 + rR)
3
22
1
´ 60 ´ (49 + 196 + 98) ´
7
3
= 21,560 cm 3 = 21.56 lh
A
97.
D
B
E
C
In the above figure DABC, DE || BC, A(DADE) = 48 sq.cm.,
21 of 24
AD 4
= .
DB 5
Find the area of DBEC
(1)
60 sq. cm
(3)
108 sq. cm
Ans (4)
135 sq. cm
Sol. Given DE || BC
Ar( DADE) = 48 sq.cm
(2)
(4)
95 sq. cm
135 sq. cm
A
w
D
AD 4
=
DB 5
48 =
h ´ AD
2
\
h ´ AD = 96
Area of DBDE =
B
1
´ h ´ AD
2
Area of D ADE =
E
C
1
´ BD ´ h
2
=
1 5AD
´
´h
2
4
5
= ´ 96 = 60 cm 2
6
Also,
DE 4
=
BC 5
\ Area of DBDE =
Þ H ´ DE =
1
´ 4H ´ DE = 48
2
96
= 24
9
\ Area of ABC =
1
1
9DE
x 9H x BC = ´ 94 ´
2
2
4
81
´ 24 Þ 243cm 2
8
Area of BEC = 243 - (48 + 60)
= 243 - 108 = 135 cm2
=
\
A
98.
P
B
C
Q
In the above figure DAPQ, P-B-C-Q and AB = AC = PB = CQ. Find the angle congruent
to Ð PAQ
22 of 24
ÐACP
ÐAPC
ÐABP
(1)
(3)
Ans (2)
(2)
(4)
ÐABP
ÐBAQ
(2)
(4)
sin 480
cot 420
A
x
Sol
P
x
y
2x 2y
B
C
y
Q
Given : AB = AC = PB = CQ
AB = PB Þ ÐPAB = ÐBDA = x
AC = CQ Þ ÐCAQ = ÐCQA = y
\ ÐABC = 2x
and ÐACB = 2y
Also, AB = AC
\ 2x = 2y Þ x = y
PAQ = x + 180 - [(2x + 2x)] + x
= 180 - 2x
\ ÐPBA = 180 - x
\ ÐPAQ = ÐPBA
99.
Find the value of
(1)
(3)
Ans (1)
Sol
sin 480 + cos 420
1
0
cot 42
sec 480
cos 480
sec 480
cos 480
sin 480 + cos 420
1
0
cot 42
sec 480
Þ
sin 48 + sin 48
- cos 48
tan 48
Þ
2sin 48
.cos48 - cos48
sin 48
Þ cos 48
100. The incircle of DABC touches the sides AB, BC and AC in the point P. Q and R
respectively. If AP = 7 cm, BC = 13cm, find the perimeter of DABC.
(1)
27 cm
(2)
30 cm
(3)
40 cm
(4)
41 cm
Ans (3)
40 cm
23 of 24
7c
m
A
R
P
Sol.
B
Q
C
Given :
AP = 7cm
BC = 13 cm
Let
BQ = x = BP
AP = AR = 7cm
BP = BQ & QC = CR
Perimeter of DABC
= AP + AR + BQ + QC + BP + CR
= 7 + 7 + 13 + 13
= 40 cm
24 of 24