SECTION VIII
Model Question Papers
An ounce of practice is worth more than tons of preaching.
Mahatma Gandhi
Practice as if you are the worst, perform as if you are the best.
Anonymous
MODEL QUESTION PAPERS
This section consists of three model question papers. These have been set as per the changed syllabus of
Paper II of Civil Services (Preliminary) examination and the sample questions, notified by the UPSC.
The Aptitude Test (Paper II) will be of 200 marks. Two hours will be the time given to attempt this paper.
The constraint of time is likely to be an important challenge associated with this paper which the candidates
will have to overcome.
The objective of these model question papers is to provide an opportunity to assess your standing vis-àvis the complexity of questions and the constraint of time. It is advised that you attempt these papers only
after you have gone through the preceding theory portions and acquired a fair degree of proficiency over
the subject. Besides, you should attempt each paper in a single sitting of two hours so as to simulate an
examination-like environment.
The paper has been divided in several sections and marks allotted to each question have been indicated.
It should be remembered that for attempting questions worth 200 marks, a time span of 120 minutes has
been given. This works out to slightly less than two minutes for each three-marks question. As such, it will
be prudent to time yourselves sectionwise also. This will give you a fair idea as to for which section you are
overshooting the permissible time and in which you are saving some. This helps in time management in the
examination. Besides, this also gives a good idea of the sections you need to work upon and in which you can
speed up yourself. Use this idea while solving the second and the third model question papers and analyse
how your performance has changed.
So, make the best use of the model question papers.
MODEL QUESTION PAPER 1
Comprehension
Read the passages and answer the questions which follow.
(1)
Passage
The norm of anonymity means that the civil servants must work from behind the curtain, without praise or
blame. In the words of Mohit Bhattacharya, “Anonymity meant that the civil servant would merely advise the
politician from behind and would be protected from being exposed to the din and fury of politics.”
The norm of anonymity requires that the Minister has to answer for the actions of the civil servants
working under him in the Parliament and thus, protect them from the criticism of the Parliamentarians. This
implies that the Minister assumes total responsibility for the commissions and omissions of the civil servants
working under him.
The Minister runs his department/ministry and is politically responsible for its activities. He is mainly
concerned with policy and consults his Secretary on policy decisions. It is the Minister who decides which
course of action to adopt. He alone would be answerable in the Parliament for good or bad results of the
policy, not the Secretary.
Therefore, the norm of anonymity is the counterpart of the principle of ministerial responsibility. In other
words, the principle of anonymity goes hand in hand with the principle of ministerial responsibility.
India has adopted the Parliamentary form of government. The bedrock principle of this system of government is the principle of collective responsibility. This principle states that the executive shall be responsible
to the Parliament for their actions and policies. Thus, the principle of ministerial responsibility ensures that
for every act or wrong act in his Ministry/Department, the Minister has to answer in the Parliament and protect the civil servants working under him from criticism of the Parliament.
It must be mentioned here that the norm of anonymity operates only in the case of legal and proper acts of
the civil servants, not in the case of illegal and improper acts. In other words, the minister has to protect the
civil servant who has implemented his definite order or who has acted in accordance with the policy adopted
by him. But he need not assume responsibility for the actions of the civil servant who is guilty of abuse of
authority for personal ends or criminal acts or any other improper and illegal act. In all such cases, the civil
servant is personally responsible and can be held guilty under the law.
As the civil service is governed by the norm of anonymity, it is not accountable to the Parliament. However, it is accountable to the political executive (i.e. Minister). That the Minister is answerable to Parliament
causes him to insist that the civil servants shall be answerable to him. The scheme of accountability is so
distributed that while the Minister is solely accountable to the Parliament, the civil servant is accountable to
the Minister.
(i) Which among the following is not implied by anonymity in the passage above?
(a) That the civil servant should work from behind the curtain hidden from public eye.
(3)
8.4
Civil Services Aptitude Test: Paper II
(b) That the civil servant would work from behind the curtain without praise or blame.
(c) That the civil servant would work from behind the curtain and not have a direct responsibility
vis-à-vis the Parliament.
(d) That the Minister has to answer the Parliament for actions of the civil servants acting under his
orders.
(ii) What does collective responsibility mean as per the passage above?
(a) The Minister is not answerable for illegal deeds of the civil servants.
(3)
(b) The civil servant is responsible and accountable for his legal and illegal deeds to the Parliament.
(c) The civil servant along with the Minister is responsible directly to the Parliament for all executive acts.
(d) The executive is responsible to the Parliament for all its actions and policies.
(iii) What, as per the passage, can be said to be the relationship between ‘anonymity’ and ‘ministerial
responsibility’?
(3)
(a) Anonymity is just opposite of ministerial responsibility.
(b) Anonymity and responsibility are applicable vis-à-vis the public.
(c) Anonymity applies to the civil servant while ministerial responsibility is that of political executive to the Parliament.
(d) Both (b) & (c)
(2)
Passage
The economic profile of India was in complete distress at the time of independence. Being a typical case of
colonial economy India was serving a purpose of development not for herself but a foreign land—the United
Kingdom. Both agriculture and industry were having structural distortions while the state was playing not
even a marginal role. During the half century before India became independent the world was having accelerated development and expansion in its agriculture and industry on the shoulders of the active role being
played by the states, with the same happening in the UK itself.
There was not only the unilateral transfer of investible capital to Britain by the colonial state (the ‘drain
of wealth’) but the unequal exchange was day by day crippling India’s commerce, trade and the thriving handloom industries, too. The colonial state practised policies which were great impediments in the process of
development in the country. Throughout the colonial rule, the economic vision the state had was to increase
India’s capacity to export primary products, and increase the purchase/import of the British manufactured
goods and raise revenues to meet the drain of capital as well as meet the revenue requirements of the imperial
defence.
The social sector was a neglected area for the British rulers which had a negative impact on the production
and productivity of the economy. India remained a continent of illiterate peasants under British rule. At the
time of independence, its literacy was only 17 per cent with 32.5 years of life expectancy at birth.
Model Question Papers
8.5
Industrialisation of India was also neglected by the colonisers—the infrastructure was not built to industrialise India but to exploit its raw materials. Indian capitalists who did emerge were highly dependent
on British commercial capital and many sectors of industry were dominated by British firms, e.g. shipping,
banking, insurance, coal, plantation crops and jute.
The pre-independence period was altogether a period of near stagnation showing almost no change in the
structure of production or in the levels of productivity—the aggregate real output during the first half of the
th
20 century estimated at less than 2 per cent a year or less.
(i) As per the passage what were the main reasons for the complete distress of the Indian economy before
and at the time of independence?
(3)
1. Structural distortions in agriculture and Industry
2. Absence of Indian capitalists
3. Unilateral transfer of investible capital to Britain
4. Low literacy and life expectancy of Indians
5. Neglect of the social sector by the British rulers
6. Policy of exploitation of the raw materials and resources of India while turning it into a market
for British goods
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 4, 6
(c) 1, 3, 6
(d) 1, 3, 4, 6
(i) What does the author mean by ‘drain of wealth’?
(a) Crippling of Indian agriculture and Industry by the British
(3)
(b) Establishment of administrative and legal control over the country
(c) Unilateral transfer of investible capital to Britain
(d) Thwarting of Indian Capitalist’s aspirations
(iii) Due to which of the following reasons could the Indian capitalists not make much of difference in the
economic scenario in the pre-independence period?
(3)
(a) They were highly dependent on British commercial capital.
(b) Many sectors of Industry were dominated by the British.
(c) The laws did not permit India capitalists to invest.
(d) Both (a) & (b)
(3)
Passage
The negotiations launched at the Doha Ministerial Conference in 2001 received fresh momentum with a
positive outcome at the Sixth WTO Ministerial Conference at Hong Kong, held from 13–18 December 2005.
The Hong Kong Ministerial Declaration called for the conclusion of negotiations launched at Doha in 2006
and established time-frames and targets in specific areas. Among other issues, WTO Members agreed that the
modalities in Agriculture and Non-Agricultural Market Access (NAMA) be established by April 30, 2006 and
8.6
Civil Services Aptitude Test: Paper II
comprehensive draft schedules based on these modalities submitted no later than July 31, 2006. In Services,
a second round of revised offers was agreed to be tabled by July 31, 2006 and the final draft schedules to be
submitted by October 31, 2006.
India has engaged in these negotiations to ensure that its core concerns and interests continue to be
adequately addressed as negotiations proceed from one stage to the next. The Minister of Commerce and
Industry participated in a number of Mini-Ministerial Meetings as well as meetings of G-20, G-33, FIPS
(Five Interested Parties), organised in 2005 to move the negotiations forward. India’s approach to the negotiations has always been dictated by our national interests, especially our concerns for millions of farmers who
are dependent for their livelihood on agriculture, as also our objective of stimulating economic growth and
development through trade.
At Hong Kong, India was proactive in articulating its position on issues of concern to it and other developing countries and played a key role in further strengthening the developing country coalitions by bringing
together G-20, G-33 and G-90 groups of countries in a broad alliance to reinforce each others’ positions on
issues of mutual interest. The Hong Kong Ministerial Declaration, as finally agreed upon, has addressed
India’s core concerns and interests, with sufficient negotiating space for future work leading to modalities for
negotiations in the coming months.
(i) Which one of the following has not been an area of concern for India?
(a) Interest of farmers
(4)
(b) Trade and development
(c) Stimulus to economic growth
(d) None of the above
(ii) India up till now has sided with developing economies and strengthened various coalition groups. As
India has become the 4th largest economy of the world, which among the following approach should
be adopted by it in WTO?
(4)
(a) Continue to support developing economies and have the same approach as it has adopted in the
past
(b) Extend issue based support to developing economies while protecting its own interest
(c) Formulate a totally new WTO policy, delink it from the past, and consider its own interest and let
developing economies fend for themselves
(d) Side with the developed economies as it is shortly to become a developed economy
(4)
Passage
Since World War II, the nation-state has been regarded with approval by every political system and every
ideology. In the name of modernisation in the West, of socialism in the Eastern bloc, and of development
in the Third World, it was expected to guarantee the happiness of individuals as citizens and of peoples as
societies. However, the state today appears to have broken down in many parts of the world. It has failed to
guarantee either security or social justice, and has been unable to prevent either international wars or civil
wars. Disturbed by the claims of communities within it, the nation-state tries to repress their demands and
Model Question Papers
8.7
to proclaim itself as the only guarantor of security of all. In the name of national unity, territorial integrity,
equality of all its citizens and non-partisan secularism, the state can use its powerful resources to reject the
demands of the communities; it may even go so far as genocide to ensure that order prevails.
As one observes the awakening of communities in different parts of the world, one cannot ignore the
context in which identity issues arise. It is no longer a context of sealed frontiers and isolated regions, but is
one of integrated global systems. In a reaction to this trend towards globalisation, individuals and communities everywhere are voicing their desire to exist, to use their power of creation and to play an active part in
national and international life.
There are two ways in which the current upsurge in demands for the recognition of identities can be looked
at. On the positive side, the efforts by certain population groups to assert their identity can be regarded as
“liberation movements”, challenging oppression and injustice. What these groups are doing—proclaiming
that they are different, rediscovering the roots of their culture or strengthening group solidarity—may accordingly be seen as legitimate attempts to escape from their state of subjugation and enjoy a certain measure of
dignity. On the downside, however, militant action for recognition tends to make such groups more deeply
entrenched in their attitude and to make their cultural compartments even more watertight. The assertion of
identity then starts turning into self-absorption and isolation, and is liable to slide into intolerance of others
and towards ideas of “ethnic cleansing”, xenophobia and violence.
(i) According to the author, happiness of individuals was expected to be guaranteed in the name of
(a) Development in the Third World
(3)
(b) Socialism in the Third World
(c) Development in the West
(d) Modernisation in the Eastern Bloc.
(ii) Demands for recognition of identities can be viewed
(a) positively and negatively
(3)
(b) as liberation movements and militant action
(c) as efforts to rediscover cultural roots which can slide towards intolerance of others
(d) All of the above
(iii) According to the author, the nation-state
(a) has fulfilled its potential
(3)
(b) is willing to do anything to preserve order
(c) generates security for all its citizens
(d) has been a major force in preventing civil and international wars.
(5)
Passage
Right through history, imperial powers have clung to their possessions to death. Why, then, did Britain in
1947, give up the jewel in its crown, India? For many reasons. The independence struggle exposed the hollowness of the white man’s burden. Provincial self-rule since 1935 paved the way for full self rule. Churchill
8.8
Civil Services Aptitude Test: Paper II
resisted independence, but the Labour government of Atlee was anti-imperialist by ideology. Finally, the
Royal Indian Navy mutiny in 1946 raised fears of a second Sepoy mutiny, and convinced British waverers
that it was safer to withdraw gracefully. But politico-military explanations are not enough. The basis of empire was always money.
The end of empire had much to do with the fact that British imperialism had ceased to be profitable. World
War II left Britain victorious but deeply indebted, needing Marshall Aid and loans from the World Bank. This
constituted a strong financial case for ending the no-longer profitable empire.
Historically, conquered nations paid taxes to finance fresh wars of the conqueror. India itself was asked
to pay a large sum at the end of World War I to help repair Britain’s finances. But, as shown by historian
Indivar Kamtekar, the independence movement led by Gandhiji changed the political landscape, and made
mass taxation of India increasingly difficult. By World War II, this had become politically impossible. Far
from taxing India to pay for World War II, Britain actual1y began paying India for its contribution of men
and goods. Troops from white dominions like Australia, Canada and New Zealand were paid for entirely
by these countries, but Indian costs were shared by the British government. Britain paid in the form of nonconvertible sterling balances, which mounted swiftly. The conqueror was paying the conquered, undercutting
the profitability on which all empire is funded. Churchill opposed this, and wanted to tax India rather than owe
it money. But he was overruled by India hands who said India would resist payment, and paralyse the war effort.
Leo Amery, Secretary of State for India, said that when you are driving in a taxi to the station to catch a life-ordeath train, you do not loudly announce that you have doubts whether to pay the fare. Thus, World War II converted India from a debtor to a creditor with over one billion pounds in sterling balances. Britain, meanwhile,
became the biggest debtor in the world. It’s not worth ruling over people you are afraid to tax.
(i) Which one of the following best expresses the main theme which the author is trying to express? (3)
(a) To present the various reasons that can lead to the collapse of an empire and the granting of independence to the subjects of an empire
(b) To point out the critical role played by the ‘white man’s burden’ in making a colonising power
give up its claims to native possessions
(c) To highlight the contradictory impulse underpinning empire building which is a costly business
but very attractive at the same time
(d) To illustrate how erosion of the financial basis of an empire supports the granting of independence to an empire’s constituents
(ii) Why didn’t Britain tax India to finance its World War II efforts?
(a) Australia, Canada and New Zealand had offered to pay for Indian troops.
(3)
(b) India had already paid a sufficiently large sum during World War I.
(c) It was afraid that if India refused to pay, Britain’s war efforts would be jeopardised.
(d) The British Empire was built on the premise that the conqueror pays the conquered.
(iii) Which of the following best captures the meaning of the ‘white man’s burden’, as it is used by the
author?
(3)
(a) British claim to a civilising mission directed at ensuring the good of the natives
(b) Inspiration for the French and American revolutions
(c) Resource drain that had to be borne by the home country’s white population
(d) Justification given for open looting of resources
Model Question Papers
8.9
(6)
Passage
After years of pondering over the workings of the brain, Dr. Cotterill believes he has found the quintessence
of consciousness for good measure, he has also applied for a patent covering circuit design for conscious
computers, and is discussing with several companies.
His is a classical outlook that can be traced to the philosophers and scientists of the first
century, who saw muscular movement as the key to understanding consciousness.
half of this
They believed that a person’s main source of information about the world comes from movement. Even
vision depends on the tiny scanning movements that the eye makes to keep the photosensitive cells of the
retina refreshed with new information. So, the theory goes, consciousness must be intimately related to
muscles.
Like many of his fellow physicists, Dr. Cotterill is intrigued by how artificial neural networks—the vast
arrays of interconnected electronic processes—might mimic the real networks of nerve cells of the brain.
But whereas many neural-network enthusiasts hope that consciousness will emerge automatically if their
machines become sufficiently complex, Dr. Cotterill thinks that something fundamental is missing in such
machines. That something is linked to the particular way in which brains communicate with muscles.
Consider what happens when you reach for a glass. Signals to the brain from the eyes and fingers (called
‘afference’ in the biological jargon) keep it informed about how the task is progressing. Signals from the brain
to the fingers and eyes (called ‘efference’) make the necessary adjustments to avoid an accident. But at the
same time, another type of signal, called an ‘efference copy’, is sent out to other parts of the brain. In simple
terms, the efference copy warns the brain’s sensory-receptor areas about what the muscles are about to do.
Hence, since it is anticipated, self-tickling is not very stimulating.
Certain nerve cells in the brain are activated only if they receive efference copy and related afference
within about two-tenths of a second of each other.
This seems to be a way of discriminating between events that the brain has caused in the environment and
those over which it has no control, and thus distinguishing self and non-self, a central aspect of consciousness.
It is the efference copy that Dr. Cotterill believes is the crucial ingredient of consciousness. Without it, all
there is, is a computer-controlled robot. With it, a computer robot becomes aware that it is in control of itself.
Efference copy can be produced by a brain even when no muscles move. According to Dr. Cotterill, thought
itself may be efference copy looping round and round in a way that allows the brain to simulate vision, speech
and other faculties without actually moving a muscle. Such simulations can lead to new associations of
muscular movements—associations which are more commonly known as ideas.
(i) Dr. Cotterill’s conceptualisation of consciousness is based on
(a) Observation and understanding of muscular movements
(b) A similar belief shared by theologians and philosophers
(c) Theory of neural networks
(d) Individual sensory skills.
(3)
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Civil Services Aptitude Test: Paper II
(ii) The term ‘efference copy’ refers to
(a) Keeping the brain informed about what is happening to the muscular system
(3)
(b) An early warning system, which informs the brain about proposed muscle movements
(c) The signal from senses to brain which helps to avoid accidents
(d) One of the signals exchanged between the brain and senses.
(iii) According to the passage, Dr. Cotterill differs from the neural network scientists because
(a) Other scientists are mathematicians while Dr. Cotterill is a physicist
(3)
(b) Dr. Cotterill believes that the human mind can be mimicked using neural networks
(c) Dr. Cotterill believes that complex machines automatically replicate the brain while many other
scientists refuse to do so
(d) Dr. Cotterill considers the linkages between brain and the muscles while developing neural networks
(iv) Robots with consciousness differ from those without it because
(a) Such robots are aware of self-control
(3)
(b) Such robots have better control over movements
(c) Such robots can interact with each other
(d) Such robots are patented by Dr. Cotterill.
Logical Reasoning
Read the question statements and answer the questions which follow.
(7)
Statement: The Indian states which have shown higher rate of economic growth have also been seen
to have made greater progress in the field of attaining higher literacy.
Which of the two conclusions can be drawn from the above statement?
(3)
Conclusion: 1. All states which have high percentage of literacy are sure to have high economic
growth.
Conclusion: 2. Literacy plays an important role even in the economic growth of a state.
(a) Only conclusion 1 can be drawn.
(b) Only conclusion 2 can be drawn.
(c) Both the conclusions can be drawn.
(d) None of the conclusions can be drawn.
(8)
Statement: Legislation of strict laws has not led to the reduction of crime.
Which of the two conclusions is correct?
Conclusion: 1. Strictness of law has no bearing at all on the incidence of crime.
(3)
Model Question Papers
8.11
Conclusion: 2 Effective implementation of the law is the only factor which can have an impact on
crime reduction efforts.
(a) Only conclusion 1 is correct.
(b) Only conclusion 2 is correct.
(c) Both the conclusions are correct.
(d) None are correct
(9)
All of the Indian scientists at CERN, except for Ramesh, are physicists.
Which of the statement mentioned below leads to the aforesaid inference?
(a) Ramesh is not a physicist.
(3)
(b) Except for Ramesh, at CERN all scientists are not physicists.
(c) Besides the scientist Ramesh, if someone is an Indian at CERN, then he is a physicist.
(d) Ramesh is the only non-Indian scientist who is a physicist.
(10)
A recent survey has revealed that the percentage of youth unemployed are more in the category of
graduates and post graduates rather than in the category of under graduates. As such government
should not invest money in higher education in the entire country, as it is not materialising in employment of the youth.
(3)
Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the conclusion drawn above the most?
(a) The survey of the entire population was not conducted.
(b) The survey was conducted in rural pockets where undergraduates were employed as agragarian
labour and the region did not have jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
(c) The survey took nearly six months to be completed and a large population sample was considered
(d) The survey was conducted by a media group.
(11)
Equity in personal taxation demands that the rate of personal income tax payable by an individual
should reduce as the income reduces and should be nil below a specific limit.
Which of the following choices would best explain the aforesaid taxation philosophy?
(3)
(a) The principal of equality incorporated in the Indian constitution calls for such a taxation
structure.
(b) The disposable income of the poor is less than that of the rich. As such the rate of taxation should
progressively increase with the income.
(c) It is easier to collect taxes where the rates are progressive than to collect taxes where the rates are
flat and same for all.
(d) Taxation of only rich should be done as it is easier to collect taxes from them.
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Civil Services Aptitude Test: Paper II
(12)
Sentences given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. The first
and last sentences are labelled 1 and 6 and the four in between are labelled ABCD. Choose the
most logical order of these four sentences from among the four choices to construct a coherent
paragraph from sentences 1 to 6.
(3)
1. In the sciences, even questionable examples of research fraud are harshly punished.
A. But no such mechanism exists in humanities— much of what humanities researchers call
‘research’ does not lead to results that are replicable by other scholars.
B. Given the importance of interpretation in historical and literary scholarship, humanities researchers are in a position where they can explain very deliberately and even in systematic distortion.
C. Mere suspicion is enough for funding to be cut off; publicity guarantees that careers can be
effectively ended.
D. Forgeries which take the form of pastiches in which the forger intersperses fake and real parts can
be defended as mere mistakes or aberrant misunderstanding.
6. Scientists fudging data have no such defences.
(a) BDCA
(b) ABDC
(c) CABD
(d) CDBA
Each of the following two questions consist of five statements followed by options consisting of three
statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument,
that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
ABC is a valid option, where statement C can be concluded from statements A and B.
(13)
(3)
A. Modern industry is technology driven.
B. BTI is a modern industry.
C. BTI is technology driven.
D. BTI may be technology driven.
E. Technology driven industry is modern.
(a) ECB
(b) EBC
(c) BCE
(d) DEB
(14)
(3)
A. MBAs are in great demand.
B. Ram and Sita are in great demand.
C. Ram is in great demand.
D. Sita is in great demand.
E. Ram and Sita are MBAs.
(a) ABE
(b) ECD
(c) AEB
(d) EBA
Model Question Papers
8.13
Analytical Reasoning
(15) Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:
In a family of six persons—Abhay, Banta, Cathy, Deepak, Emily, and Fatima—there are three males
and three females. There are two married couples and two persons are unmarried. Each one of them
has a different liking for cold drinks.
Emily who likes Coke, is the mother-in-law of Abhay, who is the wife of Cathy. Deepak is the father
of Fatima and he does not like Thumps Up or Pepsi. Banta likes Limca and is the sister of Fatima who
likes Sprite. Cathy does not like Pepsi. Fanta is another cold drink.
(i) Who among the following likes Thumps Up?
(3)
(a) Cathy
(b) Deepak
(c) Abhay
(d) Data inadequate
(ii) How is Fatima related to Emily?
(3)
(a) Brother
(b) Son
(c) Father
(d) Daughter
(iii) Which of the following cold drinks is liked by Abhay?
(a) Thumps Up
(b) Fanta
(c) Pepsi
(d) Data inadequate
(iv) How many sons does Emily have?
(2)
(2)
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) One
(16) The annual gathering of a college is organised one day. Six different programmes — drama, singing,
mimicry, speech, story-telling and dance are to be performed by six students A, B, C, D, E, and F not
necessarily in the same order. The programme begins with song not sung by B and ends with dance.
C performs mimicry immediately after the speech. E performs drama just before the dance. D or F is
not available for the last performance. The speech is not given by A. An interval of 30 minutes is given
immediately after mimicry with three more items remaining to be performed. D performs immediately
after the interval.
(i) Which item is performed by F?
(3)
(a) Song
(b) Dance
(c) Speech
(d) Data inadequate
(ii) Who performed the dance?
(3)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) Either A or B
(d) F
(iii) Who was the first performer?
(3)
(a) D
(b) E
(c) A
(d) Data inadequate
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Civil Services Aptitude Test: Paper II
Data Interpretation
(17) The following graphs give the production and consumption of coal in certain countries of the world,
as well as their reserves. Shortfall/excess between production and consumption is met by imports/
exports.
Coal Production and Consumption of Select Countries
45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
India
Pakistan
Senegal
Production
Sri Lanka Malaysia
US
Norway
Consumption (in million tonnes)
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
N
or
w
ay
U
S
n
Se
ne
ga
l
Sr
iL
an
ka
M
al
ay
sia
sta
ki
Pa
In
di
a
0
Coal reserves (in million tonnes)
(i) In the beginning of the year, Malaysia had coal stock of 3 million tonnes which rose to 5 million
tonnes at the end of the year. Approximately, what percentage of its production is exported? (3)
(a) 50%
(b) 44.44%
(c) 33.33%
(d) 30%
Model Question Papers
8.15
(ii) If India imports its entire coal shortfall from Norway, what percentage of Norway’s exports is not
exported to India? (Assume no change in coal stocks.)
(3)
(a) 30
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 20
(iii) If US produces 5 per cent of the world coal production, what is the percentage share of Pakistan?
(3)
(a) 1.25
(b) 2
(c) 2.5
(d) 3
(iv) If all the countries which have shortfall of coal want to import from only one country, among the
given countries which one can export coal to all countries which have a shortfall of it?
(3)
(a) Norway
(b) US
(c) Malaysia
(d) Senegal
(v)
If coal requirement of the given set of countries is met by production within the set, approximately how long would the reserves last? (Assume that they do not trade with countries other
than specified, their requirements are constant and no new reserves are discovered during this
time).
(3)
(a) 80 years
(b) 70 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 50 years
Basic Numeracy
(18) What are the values of ‘a’ and ‘b’, if 4266 ab is divisible by 45?
(a) 4 and 5
(b) 1 and 7
(c) 9 and 0
(3)
(d) either (a) or (c)
(19) Three men start together to walk along a road at the same rate. The length of their strides are 68 cm,
51 cm and 85 cm respectively. How far will they go before they will be ‘in step’ again?
(3)
(a) 102 m
(b) 1020 m
(c) 10.2 m
(d) 150 m
(20) The price of an article is cut by 10%, to restore to its original value, the new price must be increased
by
(2)
(a) 10%
(b) 9%
1
(c) 11%
(d) 11 %
9
(21) If a, b, c, d and e are five consecutive odd numbers, their average is
(2)
(a) 5(a + 4)
(b) (abcde)/5
(c) 5(a + b + c + d + e)
(d)
a+4
(22) If a/b=2/3 and b/c= 4/5 , then (a+b)/(b+c) is equal to
(a) 8 : 15
(b) 20 : 27
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 27 : 20
(3)
8.16
Civil Services Aptitude Test: Paper II
(23) If M men can complete a job in H hours, then in how many hours will 5 men complete the job?
(a) H/5
(b) M/5H
(c) MH/5
(d) MH
(2)
(24) Two trains move from station A and station B towards each other at the speed of 50 km/hr and 60 km/
hr. At the meeting point, the driver of the second train felt that the train has covered 120 km more.
What is the distance between A and B?
(3)
(a) 1,320 km
(b) 1,200 km
(c) 1,100 km
(d) 960 km
(25) A train of unknown length crosses two platforms of L1 metres and L2 metres in t1 seconds and t2
seconds respectively. Then the speed of the train (Vt) is
(3)
(a) L1 L2/Vt = t1 + t2
(b) 1/L1 + 1/L2 = [1/t1 + 1/t2 ] Vt
(c) L1t1 + L2t2 = Vt
(d) Vt = (L1 – L2 ) / (t1 – t2 )
(26) J is 1 times as fast as k. If J gives k a start of 150 metres, how far must be the winning post so that
the race ends in a dead heat (both finish together)?
(3)
(a) 100 metres
(b) 440 metres
(c) 200 metres
(d) 550 metres
(27) If it costs Rs y to whitewash the 4 walls of a room, how much it would cost if all the dimensions were
to be 5 times more?
(2)
(a) Rs 5y
(b) Rs 25y
(c) Rs 25y2
(d) Rs 20y
Decision Making and Problem Solving
(28) A works manager of a production unit company has to manage the inventory level of three important components A, B, C. On a particular day he receives the news that the delivery van, which was
scheduled to deliver the three components to the workshop from the main unit— which is in a different city— has broken down. It may take a few days to send a fresh consignment of components from
the main unit. Meanwhile, he has to purchase these three components from the local market and run
the production. He has Rs. 25000/- in cash to make these purchases. The current level of inventory,
daily consumption of components, and cost of each component is given in the table below. The works
manager has to inform the main unit, for how many days production can go on if he uses all of the
Rs. 25000/- to purchase components from the local market.
Component
A
B
C
Current inventory level
150
180
160
Consumption per day
100
90
80
Cost of each component
Rs.50/Rs.40/Rs.30/-
Model Question Papers
8.17
(i) How many days can the works manager run production by purchasing component A, B, C from
local market by using the entire Rs. 25000/-?
(8)
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 4 days
(d) Data insufficient
(ii) If he were to have Rs. 35000/- instead of Rs. 25000/- as cash, then how many additional days (as
compared to when he had Rs. 25000/-) will he be able to run the production?
(a) No additional day
(b) 1 additional day
(c) 2 additional days
(d) Data insufficient
Mental Ability
(29) Which of the following options should come in place of the question mark?
Menu : Food :: Catalogue :?
(a) Books
(b) Library
(c) Newspaper
(2)
(d) Rack
(30) Which figure should come in place of the question mark?
Question Figures
(3)
Answer Figures
(a)
(b)
(c)
(31) Select the missing number from the given responses.
?
9
18
12
(a) 11
(b) 25
(c) 10
(d) 27
(d)
(3)
8.18
Civil Services Aptitude Test: Paper II
(32) If BROTHER is coded as 2456784 and sister is coded as 919684, what is the code for ROBBERS?
(3)
(a) 18, 15, 22, 5, 18, 19
(b) 4562684
(c) 9245784
(d) 4522849
(33) Three positions of a cube are given. Based on them, find out which number is found opposite the number 2 in the given cube?
(3)
6
1
5
4
3
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 6
4
6
(34) Find the missing number in the series.
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
(c) LOOTS
2
(3)
4, 28, 8, 21, 12, 14, (...), 7
(a) 12
(35) Find the odd one out.
(a) ABTEL
1
(3)
(b) RAHCI
(d) LPATN
English Comprehension and Communication skills
Read the passages and answer the questions which follow.
(36)
Passage
I decided at last to write out the confession, to submit it to my father and ask his forgiveness. I wrote it on a
slip of paper and handed it to him myself. In this note not only did I confess my guilt, but I asked adequate
punishment for it, and closed with a request to him not to punish himself for my offence. I also pledged
myself never to steal in future.
I was trembling as I handed the confession to my father. He was then suffering from a fistula and was
confined to bed. His bed was a plain wooden plank. I handed him the note and sat opposite the plank.
He read it through, and pearl-drops trickled down his cheeks, wetting the paper. For a moment he closed
his eyes in thought and then tore up the note. He had sat up to read it. He again lay down. I also cried. I could
see my father’s agony.
Model Question Papers
(i) Why did the narrator’s father cry after reading the note?
(a) He was shocked and deeply agonised by the guilt of the narrator.
8.19
(5)
(b) He was in physical pain due to the disease he was suffering from.
(c) Though he was agonised by the narrator’s guilt, he was moved by his repentance, seeking of
forgiveness and punishment.
(d) All of the above
(37)
Passage
Many surprises lie in store for an academic who strays in the real world. The first such surprise to come my
way during a stint as a university administrator, related to the photocopying machines within my jurisdiction.
I discovered that paper for the machines plus contractual maintenance, cost substantially more than photocopies in the private market. This took no account of the other costs of the photocopier’s ink, spare part, the
space occupied by the machine, the interest and depreciation on it, the wages of the machine operator, the loss
of time when the machine broke down or the operator absented himself.
(i) What is the surprise which has been referred to in the passage?
(a) The author was surprised to have become a university administrator.
(3)
(b) He was surprised to find out that the photocopying cost in private sector worked out cheaper than
that in the university.
(c) He was surprised that the university continued to use such photocopying machines whose
running and maintenance cost was substantially more than the cost of photocopying in private
sector.
(d) All of the above
(ii) What does the expression ‘strays into the real word,’ mean here?
(a) Real word can be confusing and one can lose way.
(3)
(b) It is difficult to find ones way in the real world.
(c) Real world can be harsh as compared to the academic environment.
(d) It implies, unsuspectingly stepping in the harsh real world from the theoretical academic environment.
The word in italics below is used in sentence in a context. From the given alternatives, pick the word or
phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.
(38) Restive: The crowd became restive when the minister failed to appear even by 10 pm.
(a) Violent
(b) Angry
(c) Restless
(d) Distressed
(2)
8.20
Civil Services Aptitude Test: Paper II
The questions given below comprise a sentence, a portion of which is underlined, and four options.
Select the option which if substituted in place of the underlined portion, improves the sentence/ makes
it grammatically correct.
(39) A hair fell in the curd.
(a) A strand of hair
(2)
(b) A piece of hair
(c) A thread of hair
(d) No improvement can be made.
(40) The client wanted an information from the banker.
(a) a information
(b) a but information
(c) a piece of information
(2)
(d) No improvement can be made.
(41) Please give me a paper to write my application.
(a) a blade of paper
(b) a bale of paper
(c) a sheet of paper
(2)
(d) No improvement can be made.
In the questions below a sentence is given in which a word has been underlined. In the answer options
four word choices are provided. Select the word which is closest in meaning to the underlined word.
(42) The instructions were given in operation manual to facilitate the installation of the equipment.
(a) assist
(b) impede
(c) explain
(2)
(d) illustrate
(43) The audience was clamouring for a repeat performance.
(a) requesting
(b) whispering
(c) shouting
(2)
(d) expressing
(44) He was wary of the vindictive attitude of his boss.
(a) Arrogant
(b) Spiteful
(c) Angry
(2)
(d) Unkind
Answers to Model Question Paper 1
1. (i) (a)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (c)
3. (i) (d)
(ii) 4 marks if ans. is (a)
2. (i) (c)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (d)
5. (i) (d)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (d)
(ii) (b)
(iii) (c)
4 marks if ans. is (b)
2 marks if ans. is (c)
1 marks if ans. is (d)
4. (i) (a)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (b)
6. (i) (a)
(ii) (b)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (a)
7. (b)
8. (d)
9. (c)
10. (b)
11. (b)
12. (c)
13. (a)
14. (c)
15. (i) (a)
(iv) (c)
Model Question Papers
16. (i) (d)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (d)
17. (i) (c)
18. (d)
19. (c)
20. (d)
21. (d)
22. (b)
23. (c)
24. (a)
25. (d)
26. (d)
27. (b)
28. (i) (c)
(ii) (a)
29. (a)
30. (b)
31. (d)
32. (d)
33. (d)
34. (c)
35. (d)
36. (c)
37. (i) (c)
38. (c)
39. (a)
40. (c)
41. (c)
42. (a)
43. (c)
44. (b)
(ii) (d)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (b)
8.21
(v) (c)