PMP®: Project Management
Professional Exam Deluxe Study
Guide
Bonus Exam Questions
Chapter 1
1.
You are the project manager for your company’s upcoming
move. Several departments in your company are moving to a
new building. You’ve completed the Initiating process for this
project and know that the next set of processes for this project
will occur in which order?
A.
Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, Executing,
Closing
B.
Monitoring and Controlling, Planning, Executing,
Closing
C.
Executing, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling,
Closing
D.
Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling,
Closing
Answer: D
Remember the IPECC acronym (which sounds like syrup of
Ipecac) for the project process order: Initiating, Planning,
Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
2.
You are a project manager for a pharmaceutical company.
You are responsible for acquiring and assigning resources to
your projects and for making all of the day-to-day decisions
regarding project issues. You report to a manager who also
manages four other project managers. What type of
organizational structure is this?
A.
Strong matrix
B.
Balanced matrix
C.
Functional
D.
Weak matrix
Answer: A
Strong matrix organizations are characterized by giving
project managers full authority for projects. Project managers
in a strong matrix organization usually report to a manager of
project managers.
3.
Your company is introducing a new product for the holiday
season. This new product will be offered on the company
website and in the mail-order catalog. You will use
incremental steps to help you refine the characteristics of the
product. Which of the following will you perform to
determine the characteristics and features of the new product?
A.
Iteration
B.
Progressive elaboration
C.
Earned value analysis
D.
Requirements analysis
Answer: B
The best answer is B. The process of taking incremental steps
to examine and refine the characteristics of the product of the
project is called progressive elaboration. Processes may be
progressively elaborated as well.
4.
You are a project leader responsible for upgrading and
installing three of your company’s servers. Because of your
expertise, you are also responsible for answering and
resolving escalated calls from the help desk. What type of
organization do you work in?
A.
Weak matrix
B.
Projectized
C.
Functional
D.
Balanced matrix
Answer: A
Weak matrix organizations are a lot like functional
organizations except that in a weak matrix structure, duties
are usually split between projects and functional duties.
Project managers are usually called project leaders or project
coordinators in an organization like this, and they report to
functional managers.
Chapter 2
1.
Which of the following are the processes in the Project
Communications Management knowledge area?
A.
Plan Communications Management, Manage
Communications, Develop Project Management Plan,
and Control Communications
B.
Plan Communications Management, Manage
Communications, Develop Project Management Plan,
Control Communications, and Close Project or Phase
C.
Plan Communications Management, Manage
Communications, Control Communications
D.
Plan Communications Management, Manage
Communications, Direct and Manage Project Work,
and Control Communications
Answer: C
Project Communications Management includes Plan
Communications Management, Manage Communications,
and Control Communications.
2.
According to the PMBOK® Guide, each of the following is a
type of need or demand that brings about a project except
which one?
A.
Marketing demand
B.
Social need
C.
Legal requirement
D.
Stakeholder demand
Answer: D
The needs and demands that bring about a project include
market demand, strategic opportunity/business need,
customer requests, technological advance, legal requirement,
ecological impacts, and social need. Stakeholder demands
will likely drive the project request, but this is not a need or
demand that brings about a project.
3.
Your selection committee is trying to decide between two
projects. Funds exist to undertake only one of the projects.
You know that all of the following are true except which one?
A.
Project selection methods are a tool and technique of
the Initiation process.
B.
IRR is the discount rate when NPV equals zero.
C.
The discounted cash flow technique evaluates the cash
inflows for each period and compares this to the initial
investment.
D.
Payback period is the least precise of all the cash flow
calculations used to select projects.
Answer: C
The discounted cash flow technique evaluates the cash
inflows for the entire project and compares this to the initial
investment.
4.
Your project was selected and approved by the selection
committee. Your next step is to create a project charter. All of
the following are true regarding project charters except which
one?
A.
The charter describes the business need of the project.
B.
The charter includes a description of the product of the
project.
C.
The charter recognizes the existence of the project and
commits organizational resources to the project.
D.
The charter is published by the project manager and
signed by the sponsor and stakeholders.
Answer: D
Project charters describe the business need of the project and
include a description of the product of the project. The project
charter identifies the project manager, recognizes the
existence of the project, and commits organization resources
to the project. The project charter should be published by the
project sponsor or the person who initiated the project.
5.
You’ve been asked to prepare a cash flow analysis for the
project your selection committee is considering assigning to
your project team. The project cost is $148,000. The expected
inflows are $80,000 the first year, $15,000 per quarter the
second year, and $8,000 per quarter thereafter. What is the
payback period?
A.
28 months
B.
27 months
C.
25 months
D.
24 months
Answer: B
First year inflows are $80,000 in 12 months, the second year
inflows are $60,000 in 12 months, and the first quarter of the
third year inflows are $8,000 in 3 months, making the
payback period 27 months.
6.
Your selection committee has determined they have the funds
to apply resources to two projects. Project A will cost
$164,000. Its expected inflows are $25,000 per quarter the
first year and $32,000 per quarter thereafter. The IRR for
Project A is 23 percent. Project B has a payback period of 19
months and its IRR is 26 percent. The selection committee
has decided that company resources should be applied to the
most valuable project first. How should the projects be
prioritized?
A.
Project B should be first because its IRR is higher than
Project A’s.
B.
Project B should be first because its payback period is
shorter than Project A’s.
C.
Project A should be first because its IRR value is
lower than Project B’s.
D.
Project A should be first because its payback period is
shorter than Project B’s.
Answer: A
Payback period is the least precise cash flow technique and
shouldn’t be used as the deciding factor in projects when
other cash flow techniques are available. Projects with the
highest IRRs should be chosen over projects with low IRR
values.
7.
You’ve prepared the following analysis for two different
projects for review by the selection committee. Project A’s
payback period is 8 months and its NPV is –27. Project B’s
payback period is 10 months and its NPV is 150. Which
project should the selection committee pick?
A.
Project A, because its NPV is lower than Project B’s
B.
Project B, because its NPV is highest and there is less
than six months difference between payback periods
C.
Project B, because its NPV is a positive value
D.
Project A, because its payback period is shorter than
Project B’s payback period
Answer: C
Projects with negative NPV values should not be considered.
8.
Project selection methods are used to help choose and
prioritize between projects, or determine if a project is worth
pursuing. Which of the following describe the selection
methods you might use during the Initiating process group?
A.
Constrained optimization methods, which use analysis
and comparative approaches, and benefit measurement
methods, which are mathematical formulas
B.
Mathematical analysis methods, which use
mathematical formulas, and benefit/cost analysis,
which use analysis and comparative approaches
C.
Mathematical analysis methods and benefit/cost
analysis, which both use mathematical formulas
D.
Constrained optimization methods, which are
mathematical formulas, and benefit measurement
methods, which use analysis and comparative
approaches
Answer: D
Constrained optimization methods are mathematical formulas
that use linear, dynamic, integer, nonlinear, and algorithm
formulas to make selections. Benefit measurement methods
use analysis and comparative approaches such as benefit/cost
analysis.
Chapter 3
1.
You are the project manager responsible for customizing and
installing your company’s software at the client site. You’ve
completed the Initiating process and are now working on the
Planning processes. This project has a completion date of
December 1. You’ve penciled in Kathy as the lead
programmer for this project. She is tentatively scheduled to
work on this project starting July 1 and ending November 4.
She and her manager have always agreed to work on your
projects in the past. This is an example of what?
A.
An assumption, because you have not yet checked on
Kathy’s availability.
B.
A constraint, because Kathy must work between the
dates assigned in order to complete the project by
December 1
C.
A constraint you’ve identified during the Resource
Planning process
D.
An assumption you’ve made during the Resource
Planning process
Answer: A
Assumptions are events or actions believed to be true and
should always be documented. In this question, you believe
Kathy will be available to work on your project, which makes
this an assumption.
2.
Project teams are limited by which of the following?
A.
Risks
B.
Technology
C.
Constraints
D.
Requirements
Answer: C
Constraints limit or restrict the actions of the project team.
They can also dictate the actions of the project team.
3.
Your project requires the manufacturing of a component part
that will be installed into the final product. You’ve hired an
external vendor to produce these parts for your company. The
component part has specific measurable dimensions and must
be manufactured to these exact specifications or your final
product will not work as expected. You’ve also requested
they deliver exactly 75 of these parts by May 31. Which of
the following have you defined for the vendor?
A.
Requirements, because you’ve described specific
results, outcomes, and due dates that are measurable
and verifiable
B.
Deliverables, because you’ve described specific
results, outcomes, and due dates that are measurable
and verifiable
C.
Constraints, because the vendor’s product must
precisely meet your specifications or it won’t work
with the final product
D.
Assumptions, because the vendor’s product must
precisely meet your specifications or it won’t work
with the final product
Answer: B
The best answer is B. Although requirements describe the
specifications or necessary prerequisites for the product,
deliverables are outputs that must be produced to bring the
phase or project to completion. They are tangible and can be
measured and easily proved.
4.
The documentation of project goals, deliverables, and
requirements so that they can be used as a baseline for future
project decisions is accomplished by writing and publishing
which of the following documents?
A.
Project charter
B.
Scope statement
C.
Communications management plan
D.
Scope management plan
Answer: B
It’s important that the scope statement contain project goals,
deliverables, and requirements and be signed off by the
stakeholders. That way, everyone has the same understanding
regarding the goals of the project and what will be delivered.
5.
Project acceptance criteria, deliverables, project exclusions,
constraints, and assumptions are all documented in which of
the following?
A.
Project charter
B.
Scope statement
C.
Communications plan
D.
Project management plan
Answer: B
The scope statement also documents the product scope
description.
6.
One of the deliverables for your project is a specific piece of
hardware that must be built to exact specifications. If the
hardware is not sized correctly, project process will stop until
the hardware is corrected. What might this deliverable be
called?
A.
Constraint
B.
Critical success factor
C.
Conditional requirement
D.
Constrained deliverable
Answer: B
Critical success factors are deliverables or objectives that
must be met in order for the project to be considered
complete.
7.
According to the PMBOK® Guide, this document helps assure
business value is realized when the project is complete.
A.
Scope statement
B.
Requirements traceability matrix
C.
WBS
D.
Requirements management plan
Answer: B
The requirements traceability matrix helps assure business
value is realized when the project is complete because each
requirement is linked to a business and project objective.
8.
Your project is not proceeding well. Your team recently had
to redesign one of the components of the final product to
better comply with customer requirements. This rework has
increased project costs and impacted the completion of other
tasks on the WBS. This setback also seems to have caused a
problem with morale among team members. Which of the
following is true?
A.
The deliverables were not defined with measurable or
verifiable outcomes.
B.
The problem occurred because the WBS was not
broken down to the lowest level of detail.
C.
The customer requirements were not communicated to
the project team before the work began.
D.
The problem was caused by poor scope definition.
Answer: D
Poor scope definition can lead to rework, increased project
costs, and poor morale.
9.
Your project has been decomposed and the WBS has been
constructed. Your final WBS contains five levels. All of the
following are true regarding the WBS except which one?
A.
This project’s work package level is level five.
B.
The WBS is a deliverables-oriented grouping of
project deliverables and elements.
C.
A code of accounts will be assigned only to level five
of this WBS.
D.
Level five for this project will facilitate resource
assignments and cost and time estimates.
Answer: C
The code of accounts is assigned to every level of the WBS.
Chapter 4
1.
During the Sequence Activities process, you discover that
industry best practices techniques for your project dictate that
activity A be completed using an automated process while
Activity B should be completed using a manual process. This
type of dependency is known as preferred logic, or soft logic.
What is another name for this dependency?
A.
External dependency
B.
Preferred dependency
C.
Mandatory dependency
D.
Discretionary dependency
Answer: D
Discretionary dependency is also known a preferred logic or
soft logic. Discretionary dependencies are process driven and
can be determined by the project management team or by
industry best practices techniques and standards.
2.
Define Activities involves decomposing the work package
levels into units of work called what?
A.
Schedule activities
B.
Activities
C.
Tasks
D.
Code of accounts
Answer: A
Schedule activities are decomposed from the work package
level during Define Activities.
3.
The four logical relationships known as finish-to-start, startto-finish, start-to-start, and finish-to-finish are used in which
of the following diagramming methods?
A.
GERT
B.
PDM
C.
CPM
D.
ADM
Answer: B
The PDM is further defined by the four types of logical
relationships mentioned in the question. CPM is a method
used to determine early start and early finish dates during
schedule development.
4.
This process is where start and finish dates for your project
activities are determined and activity sequences and durations
are finalized. Some of the inputs to this process include
calendars, lead and lags, and activity attributes. Which
process is this question describing?
A.
Develop Schedule
B.
Sequence Activities
C.
Estimate Activity Duration
D.
Estimate Activity Resources
Answer: A
The Develop Schedule process is where the project tasks are
finalized, start and finish dates are determined, and activity
sequences and activity durations are finalized.
5.
All of the following are true regarding lead and lag time
except which one?
A.
Leads and lags are used when there are delays between
dependent and independent activities in the project
schedule.
B.
Leads require time to be subtracted from the start date
or the finish date of the dependent activity.
C.
Lags delay successor activities and require time to be
added to the start date or the finish date of the
dependent activity.
D.
Lead time is used more often than lag time.
Answer: D
Leads require time to be subtracted from the start or finish
date of the dependent activity, while lags delay successor
activities and require time to be added to the dependent
activity. Lag time is used more often than lead time.
6.
Which of the following mathematical analysis techniques
calculates the earliest start and finish date and the latest start
and finish date?
A.
GERT
B.
Duration compression
C.
PERT
D.
CPM
Answer: D
The critical path method determines the earliest start and
finish date and the latest start and finish date for each activity.
All activities with zero float are said to be on the critical path.
7.
You’ve calculated the critical path for your upcoming project.
Which of the following is true regarding the critical path?
A.
It’s determined using expected value.
B.
It is the longest full path on the project.
C.
It’s made up of tasks with float time greater than zero.
D.
It allows for conditional looping and branching.
Answer: B
The critical path is the longest full path on the project, and it
comprises tasks with zero float time. Critical path is
calculated using the CPM, which determines a single early
start and finish date and a single late start and finish date.
8.
Total slack time is described as ___________________.
A.
the amount of time you can delay the start of a task
without delaying the start of a successor task
B.
the amount of time you can delay the start of a task
without delaying the latest finish date of a successor
task
C.
the amount of time you can delay the start of a task
without delaying the ending of the project
D.
the amount of time you can delay the start of a task
without delaying the latest start date of a successor
task
Answer: C
Total slack time is the amount of time you can delay the start
of a task without delaying the ending of the project. Free
slack is the amount of time you can delay the start of a task
without delaying the start of a successor task.
9.
Your project sponsor has approached you and asked if there is
any way you can speed up the project. Due to some unique
marketing opportunities, the organization stands to increase
profits dramatically if you can finish this project ahead of
schedule. After some analysis, you inform the project sponsor
that you will be able to finish the project ahead of schedule
provided you can hire an outside vendor to complete the
activities associated some of the WBS elements. This will
increase the cost of the project by $115,000. The sponsor
agrees to pay the additional cost. This an example of what?
A.
Crashing, which is a compression technique used
during the Schedule Development process
B.
Fast tracking, which is a compression technique used
during the Estimate Activity Duration process
C.
Crashing, which is a compression technique used
during the Estimate Activity Duration process
D.
Fast tracking, which is a compression technique used
during the Develop Schedule process
Answer: A
Crashing and fast tracking are both duration compression
techniques used during the Develop Schedule process.
Crashing looks at cost and schedule trade-offs, while fast
tracking is starting two tasks at the same time that were
previously scheduled to start sequentially.
10.
This tool and technique produces schedule projections and
probabilities. It estimates critical path duration estimates and
float time by simulating multiple activity durations many
times to come up with the schedule projections and their
probabilities. What technique is this?
A.
Parametric modeling
B.
Monte Carlo analysis
C.
Design of experiments
D.
PERT
Answer: B
Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that calculates
the probability of all the possible project completion dates.
Monte Carlo analysis is one of the what-if scenario analysis
tools and techniques. It can also be used for cost estimating.
11.
You are calculating PERT times for a programming activity
on your project. Your lead programmer said the earliest
possible completion time would be 200 days. The most likely
time is 280 days and the longest it might take is 330 days.
What is the expected value?
A.
235
B.
300
C.
203
D.
275
Answer: D
The formula for expected value is [optimistic + pessimistic +
(4  most likely)] / 6. The formula for this question is [200 +
330 + (4  280)] / 6) = 275.
12.
You’re interested in knowing within a 95.44 percent
confidence level how long the programming activity for your
customer object will take. Which of the following is true if
the expected value is 410 days and the standard deviation is
15, which of the following is a 95 percent confidence level?
A.
There is a 95 percent chance of completing this
activity between 380 days and 440 days.
B.
There is a 95 percent chance of completing this
activity between 395 days and 425.
C.
There is a 95 percent chance of completing this
activity between 365 days and 455 days.
D.
There is a 95 percent chance of completing this
activity between 350 days and 460 days.
Answer: A
Work will finish within plus or minus two standard deviations
95.44 percent of the time.
13.
You’ve discovered that one of your programmers is assigned
too many tasks. You decide to assign some of her less critical
tasks to other team members who are underallocated in order
to keep the project on schedule. This is an example of which
of the following?
A.
Resource requirements analysis
B.
Fast tracking
C.
Resource leveling heuristics
D.
Contingency reserves
Answer: C
Resource leveling heuristics attempts to smooth out resource
assignments without overloading individuals while keeping
the project on schedule.
14.
Project constraints and assumptions are two of the pieces of
information contained in this Develop Schedule output.
Milestones, schedule activities, and activity attributes may
also be included.
A.
Project management updates
B.
Schedule data
C.
Project schedule
D.
Schedule baseline
Answer: B
Schedule data is the supporting data concerning the schedule
and includes milestones, schedule activities, activity
attributes, and constraints and assumptions.
15.
If the expected value for project duration = 110 days and
standard deviation = 7.34 and standard deviation squared =
53.88, what is the project duration for 95 percent confidence
factor?
A.
The project will be completed within 102.66 days and
117.34 days.
B.
The project will be completed within 56.12 days and
163.88 days.
C.
The project will be completed within 95.02 days and
124.98 days.
D.
The project will be completed within 95.32 days and
124.68 days.
Answer: D
A 95 percent confidence factor is calculated by subtracting 2
standard deviations from the project duration to find the least
amount of time to completion and then adding 2 standard
deviations to the project duration to find the most amount of
time to completion.
Chapter 5
1.
Each of the following is an element of the cost management
plan except for which one?
A.
Level of accuracy
B.
Reporting formats
C.
Units of measure
D.
Cost aggregation method
Answer: D
Cost aggregation is a tool and technique of the Determine
Budget process.
2.
Which of the following is used during the Project Cost
Management Knowledge Area to monitor and control project
costs? It is used to calculate earned value performance
measures and consists of factors such as actual cost, schedule,
and scope.
A.
Control account
B.
Code of accounts
C.
Chart of accounts
D.
Control thresholds
Answer: A
Control accounts are assigned to the WBS and allow for the
calculation of earned value performance measures.
3.
All of the following are true regarding the Determine Budget
process except which one?
A.
Assigns cost estimates to the project activities in order
to establish the budget.
B.
The cost baseline plots the sum of estimated costs in a
linear graph.
C.
Estimates in the cost baseline are used to measure
variances and performance later in the project.
D.
The cost baseline, once established, is the expected
cost for the project.
Answer: B
Cost baselines plot the sum of estimated costs expected per
period and are graphically displayed as S curves.
4.
This tool and technique of Estimate Costs generally provides
the most accurate estimate.
A.
Analogous estimating
B.
Bottom-up estimating
C.
Three-point estimating
D.
Parametric estimating
Answer: B
Bottom-up estimating is generally the most accurate
estimating technique, but accuracy can be affected by the size
and complexity of the project.
5.
This cost estimating technique is a form of expert judgment
and is one of the least accurate cost estimating techniques.
A.
Analogous estimating
B.
Bottom-up estimating
C.
Parametric estimating
D.
Three-point estimating
Answer: A
Analogous estimating uses the actual cost of a completed
project that’s similar to the current project as the basis for
estimating the cost of the project. This is also called top-down
estimating and is a form of expert judgment.
6.
Which of the following lists the correct outputs of the
Estimate Cost process?
A.
Activity cost estimates, cost management plan,
organizational process assets updates
B.
Activity cost estimates, reserve analysis, cost
management plan
C.
Activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, project
documents updates
D.
Activity cost estimates, reserve analysis, project
documents updates
Answer: C
The outputs of the Estimate Cost process are activity cost
estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates
7.
The difference between the funding requirements and the cost
performance baseline at the end of the project is known as
which of the following?
A.
Cost threshold
B.
Contingency reserve
C.
Cost aggregation
D.
Management reserve
Answer: D
Management reserve is the difference between the funding
requirements and the cost performance baseline at the end of
the project.
8.
During the Planning processes on your recent project, you
met with a group of 14 important stakeholders to determine
information needs, including the purpose for the
communication, frequency of communication, and format and
method of transmission. Which of the following is true?
A.
This information is documented in the stakeholder
communication plan, which is an output of the Plan
Communications process. There are 98 lines of
communication.
B.
This information is documented in the
communications management plan, which is an output
of the Plan Communications process. There are 112
lines of communication.
C.
This information is documented in the
communications management plan, which is an output
of the Plan Communications process. There are 105
lines of communication.
D.
This information is documented in the stakeholder
communication plan, which is an output of the Plan
Communications process. There are 120 lines of
communication.
Answer: C
The communications management plan describes several
elements regarding project information and is an output of the
Plan Communications process. The formula for lines of
communication is 15 (15 – 1) / 2 = 105.
9.
Your team has 7 members including yourself. How many
lines of communication are there among the members?
A.
7
B.
14
C.
21
D.
28
Answer: C
The formula for lines of communication is n  (n – 1) / 2, so
the answer to this question is calculated this way: 7  (7 – 1) /
2 = 21.
Chapter 6
1.
You are working on the risk management plan for your
project. According to the PMBOK® Guide, risk categories are
a component of the risk management plan and may include
which of the following types of risks?
A.
Project management risks, secondary risks, and
organizational risks
B.
Technical risks, quality or performance risks,
secondary risks, and risk triggers
C.
Technical risks, quality or performance risks, project
management risks, organizational risks, and external
risks
D.
Project management risks and external risks
Answer: C
The best answer is C because it contains all the risk categories
defined in The PMBOK® Guide.
2.
You’ve progressed through the risk processes and are now
ready to determine what impact the risks that you’ve
identified will have on the project and the probability that
they’ll occur. Using tools and techniques such as risk
probability and impact assessment, probability and impact
matrix, and risk urgency assessment will help you create the
risk register and overall risk ranking for the project. What
process are you in?
A.
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B.
Identify Risk
C.
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D.
Plan Risk Responses
Answer: A
The tools and techniques of the Perform Qualitative Risk
Analysis process include risk probability and impact
assessment, probability and impact matrix, risk data quality
assessment, risk categorization, risk urgency assessment, and
expert judgment.
3.
You’ve developed the following information for your PI
matrix:
Probability
Medium Risk Scores
High Risk Scores
.6
.12
.36
.24
.48
You are evaluating risks to determine their overall risk
ranking for the project. You know that the hardware
compatibility risk has a .6 probability of occurring with a .4
impact. Which of the following is true?
A.
You’re using a tool and technique of the Perform
Quantitative Risk Analysis process and the hardware
compatibility risk should receive a medium overall risk
ranking.
B.
You’re using a tool and technique of the Perform
Qualitative Risk Analysis process and the hardware
compatibility risk should receive a high overall risk
rating.
C.
You’re using a tool and technique of the Perform
Quantitative Risk Analysis process and the hardware
compatibility risk should receive a high overall risk
ranking.
D.
You’re using a tool and technique of the Perform
Qualitative Risk Analysis process and the hardware
compatibility risk should receive a medium overall risk
ranking.
Answer: D
Probability impact matrix is a tool and technique of the
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process and is used to
show the combination of the probability of the risk (using a
probability scale) and the severity of the risk (using an impact
scale, which shows the severity of the impact).
4.
You are in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process
and are using a tool and technique that is a quantitative
method of analyzing the potential impact of risk events. This
tool can also be used to determine stakeholder risk tolerance
levels. What tool and technique is this question referring to?
A.
Sensitivity analysis
B.
Decision tree analysis
C.
Simulation
D.
Risk probability and impact
Answer: A
Sensitivity analysis analyzes the potential impact of risk
events. It is a quantitative analysis method.
5.
This component of the risk register update output of the
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process contains the
forecasted results of the project schedule and project costs.
The results also include projected completion dates and costs.
Each of these results has a confidence level associated with it.
Which output is this question describing?
A.
Prioritized list of quantified risks
B.
Probabilistic analysis of the project
C.
Probability of achieving the cost and time objectives
D.
Trends in quantitative risk analysis results
Answer: B
Probabilistic analysis of the project is the forecasted results of
the project schedule and costs as a result of the outcomes of
risk analysis. Confidence levels are assigned to describe the
level of confidence placed on the result.
6.
These strategies are used to deal with negative risks.
A.
Avoid, exploit, share, enhance
B.
Avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept
C.
Share, exploit, enhance, accept
D.
Exploit, transfer, mitigate, share
Answer: B
The strategies used to deal with negative risks are avoid,
transfer, mitigate, and accept.
Chapter 7
1.
Which type of contract carries the highest risk to the buyer
and why?
A.
Time and materials contracts because the full amount
of the material costs id not known at the time of the
contract
B.
Unit price contracts because the amount for the goods
or services rendered is unknown at the time of the
contract
C.
Cost-reimbursable contracts because the total costs are
uncertain
D.
Fixed price plus incentive contracts because the bonus
amount is uncertain
Answer: C
Cost-reimbursable contracts carry the highest risk to the
buyer because the total costs are not known at the beginning
of the project. Cost-reimbursable contracts include cost plus
fixed fee contracts and cost plus incentive fee contracts, also
known as cost plus percentage of cost.
2.
This element of the project plan can affect the Plan
Procurement Management process and vice versa.
A.
Schedule
B.
Budget
C.
WBS
D.
Staffing management plan
Answer: A
The project schedule can affect the Plan Procurement
Management process, and the Plan Procurement Management
process may also have an effect on the project schedule.
3.
All of the following are a type of procurement document
except for which one?
A.
IFB
B.
SOW
C.
Contract
D.
RFP
Answer: B
The statement of work describes the work of the project and
is included with the project documents.
4.
Standards and regulations concerning the work of the project
should be taken into consideration during the Planning
processes. All of the following are true regarding standards
and regulations except which one?
A.
Standards and regulations make up one of the elements
included in the enterprise environmental factors input
to the Plan Quality process.
B.
Regulations are approved by a recognized body and
employ rules and guidelines that should be followed.
C.
Regulations are typically imposed by governments.
D.
Standards are not mandatory.
Answer: B
Standards are approved by a recognized body and employ
rules and guidelines that should be followed. Regulations are
mandatory and are usually driven by government bodies.
5.
Which of the following tools and techniques of Plan Quality
Management is an analytical technique that identifies
variables that will have the greatest effect on overall project
outcomes?
A.
Benchmarking
B.
Design of experiments
C.
Flowcharts
D.
Cost-benefit analysis
Answer: B
Design of experiments is an analytical technique that
identifies elements, or variables, that will have the greatest
effect on overall project outcomes. This process uses
experiments to determine the ideal solution for a problem
using a limited number of sample cases.
6.
This output of the Plan Quality Management process is used
to specifically describe what is being measured and how it
will be measured.
A.
Quality checklists
B.
Quality management plan
C.
Process improvement plan
D.
Quality metrics
Answer: D
Outputs to the Plan Quality Management process include the
quality management plan, quality metrics (also known as
operational definitions), quality checklists, process
improvement plan, quality baseline, and project document
updates. Quality metrics describe what is being measured and
how it will be measured.
7.
You are working on the Plan Human Resources Management
process and have gathered all of the inputs to this process. All
of the following are true regarding this process except which
one?
A.
Staff acquisition describes how team members are
acquired and is a component of the staffing
management plan, which is an input to this process.
B.
Roles and responsibilities, an output of this process,
describes the roles, authority, responsibility, and
competency of team members.
C.
Project organization charts might take the form of
hierarchical charts, matrix-based charts, or textoriented formats.
D.
Templates and checklists are the components of the
organizational process assets that should be considered
as an input to this process.
Answer: A
Staff acquisition is a component of the staffing management
plan, which is an output of the Plan Human Resource
Management process.
8.
The Plan Human Resource Management process in the
PMBOK® Guide lists several key environmental factors
project teams should consider. Each of the following is a
factor noted in this process except for which one?
A.
Organizational structures
B.
Location and logistics
C.
Standardized role descriptions
D.
Collective bargaining agreements
Answer: C
Standardized role descriptions are part of the organizational
process assets input to this process.
9.
You are developing a chart that links the project roles and
responsibilities to the scope definition and WBS elements.
Resource names will be assigned to each of the WBS
elements so that you can see at a glance which activities will
require what types of resources. You have just developed
which of the following?
A.
RACI
B.
OBS
C.
RBS
D.
RAM
Answer: D
The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) links WBS
elements with resource names in a chart form.
10.
This management plan documents how and when human
resources are introduced to the project and later released.
Sometimes, this plan includes a resource histogram. What
type of plan is this?
A.
Communications management plan
B.
Resource management plan
C.
Staffing management plan
D.
Organizational management plan
Answer: C
The staffing management plan documents how and when
human resources are brought on and off the project. Resource
histograms plot resource time and hours needed in chart form.
Chapter 8
1.
You are a project manager for a large metropolitan hospital.
You’ve worked with your current project team for a long time
and have established a good working relationship with them.
The team has worked on several major projects under your
leadership and has always done an outstanding job. What
stage of team development is this team in?
A.
Norming
B.
Forming
C.
Performing
D.
Conforming
Answer: C
The performing stage of team development occurs when a
team works very well together and is productive and
effective. Team members work harmoniously and their level
of trust is high.
2.
You are a project manager for a large metropolitan hospital.
You’ve worked with your current project team for a long time
and have established a good working relationship them. One
of the team members has been promoted to a project manager
and a new team member will be introduced. The new team
member is well respected and your team is eager to get going
on the next project. Which stage will the project team be in
when the new team member comes on board?
A.
Norming
B.
Forming
C.
Performing
D.
Storming
Answer: B
When new team members are introduced, the team starts over
again in the forming stage.
3.
You’ve given your project team a specific set of expectations
and promised them the new hardware and software they’ve
requested as the motivation for completing the project on
time. You believe they will perform at their best. Which
motivational theory does this describe?
A.
Theory Y
B.
Hygiene Theory
C.
Maslow’s hierarchy
D.
Achievement Theory
Answer: A
Theory Y conjectures that people will perform their best if
they know what’s expected of them and they have proper
motivations.
4.
You are a new project manager and have given your project
team a specific set of expectations and promised them new
hardware and software as the motivation for completing the
project on time. Unfortunately, the project team does not
perform to your expectations and the project is completed
behind schedule. You later discover that the hardware and
software you promised as motivation was not important to
them. In the past, they’ve been given time off as a reward for
completing projects on time and were publicly recognized at
the company’s quarterly meeting for achieving their goals. If
you had studied reward and recognition systems in the team
development process, you would know that all of the
following are true regarding reward and recognition except
which one?
A.
Recognition should be carried out in a public setting
like a company or department meeting.
B.
Rewards should be in proportion to the achievement.
C.
Recognition and rewards should be linked to
performance.
D.
Motivators and rewards should be realistic and
desirable to the recipient.
Answer: A
Recognition does not have to be carried out in a public
setting. Some team members would rather receive private
recognition from the project manager in a personal setting as
opposed to being publicly recognized.
5.
Which of the following are conflict resolution techniques?
A.
Forming, smoothing, confrontation, performing
B.
Storming, withdrawal, compromise, smoothing,
forcing
C.
Smoothing, compromise, confrontation, withdrawal
D.
Forcing, smoothing, compromise, confrontation,
withdrawal
Answer: D
The conflict resolution techniques are forcing, smoothing,
compromise, confrontation, and withdrawal. Project
managers should use the confrontation, also called problem
solving, technique most often because it is the best of the
resolution techniques.
6.
At your recent status meeting, a problem surfaced that the
group discussed. Jessica approached you the day after the
meeting to express her concern that the problem was not
really resolved because after thinking about it, she felt her
concerns were still valid and should be addressed. The
conflict resolution technique practiced at the status meeting
was which of the following?
A.
Smoothing
B.
Forcing
C.
Confrontation
D.
Withdrawal
Answer: A
Smoothing is a temporary way to resolve conflict; one or
more parties attempt to make the conflict appear less
important than it is and thereby get agreement to their
solution. After thinking it through, the folks who gave in to
the solution resurface their original issues and the conflict
comes back to life. Although it’s not listed in this question,
compromise is the other conflict resolution technique.
7.
Your project team works in two different buildings across the
city from each other. The team has been struggling to perform
effectively and has a difficult time resolving problems.
You’ve approached your management team with which of the
following solutions to help resolve this issue?
A.
Training
B.
Co-location
C.
Reward and recognition
D.
Mediation
Answer: B
Co-location is physically locating your team members in the
same place or holding all team meetings in a common room
and requiring the team members to attend.
8.
Status review meetings serve all the following purposes
except which one?
A.
To formally exchange project information
B.
To provide updated status on project progress
C.
To alert the project manager to potential risk events
D.
To encompass demonstrations that show the product
progress
Answer: D
Status review meetings are not for show-and-tell purposes.
You should conduct separate meetings for the purpose of
demonstrating product or project progress.
9.
You are performing at the highest level of achievement just
for the satisfaction it brings. Your other basic needs have
been met and you’ve reached a state of independence. Which
of the following is true?
A.
This is the highest level of achievement of the
Achievement Theory.
B.
This is the self-actualization level of Maslow’s
hierarchy.
C.
This is the highest level of achievement of the
Expectancy Theory.
D.
This describes the highest level of satisfaction of
Theory Y.
Answer: B
Self-actualization is a state of independence where you
perform at your highest level of achievement.
10.
You are a project manager and have just passed the PMP
exam. Due to your extensive experience and your newly
awarded certification, you’ve been asked to head up your
company’s new project management office. The team
members assigned to this department do not have as much
project management experience as you do, and none of them
have received their PMP certification. As a result, they follow
your lead on decisions regarding the project management
processes you want to put into place. What type of power is
this?
A.
Referent
B.
Legitimate
C.
Punishment
D.
Expert
Answer: D
Expert power occurs when the person being influenced
believes the person doing the influencing is knowledgeable
on the subject or has special skills that make them an expert.
Chapter 9
1.
You are a project manager that needs to obtain some services
for your project from a local vendor. You have published the
RFP and have received bids and proposals. You are using a
predefined set of performance criteria to screen unsuitable
vendors. Which tool and technique within the proposal
evaluation techniques in the Conduct Procurements process
are you using?
A.
Bidder conferences
B.
Screening systems
C.
Weighting systems
D.
Seller rating systems
Answer: B
Screening systems use predefined performance criteria to
screen out unsuitable vendors.
2.
What are the four contract life cycle processes?
A.
Procurement, solicitation, source selection, award
B.
Requirement, solicitation, requisitions, procurement
C.
Procurement, requisition, solicitation, sward
D.
Requirement, requisition, solicitation, award
Answer: D
Requirement is where the project and contract needs are
established. Requisition is the process of preparing requests
for proposals. Solicitation is obtaining bids and proposals
from vendors, and award is where vendors are chosen and
contracts are awarded.
3.
In the midst of contract negotiations, your vendor reminds
you that the issue you’ve just brought up for discussion was
already decided at the last meeting and there is no need to
discuss it again as a decision was already reached. This is an
example of ___________________ .
A.
smoothing
B.
compromise
C.
withdrawal
D.
fait accompli
Answer: D
Fait accompli occurs when one party convinces the other that
the issue under discussion is no longer relevant or cannot be
changed.
4.
All of the following are true regarding the Conduct
Procurements process except which one?
A.
This process monitors vendor performance for
adherence to requirements of the contract.
B.
Payment systems are used to process seller invoices.
C.
Contested changes must be resolved using arbitration.
D.
Terminating contracts for nonperformance requires a
contract change request be submitted through the
contract change control system.
Answer: C
Contested changes may result in disputes, claims, or appeals,
which can be resolved between the parties themselves,
through the court system, or using arbitration.
5.
The Perform Quality Assurance process is concerned with all
of the following except which one?
A.
Assures the project satisfies the quality standards set
out in the quality management plan.
B.
Monitors results to assure they comply with quality
standards.
C.
Is concerned with the correctness of the work.
D.
The project manager has the greatest impact on quality
during this process.
Answer: B
Perform Quality Control is the process that monitors results to
assure they comply with quality standards.
6.
Quality improvements come about as a result of which of the
following?
A.
Change requests
B.
Verification of work results
C.
Corrective actions
D.
Quality audits
Answer: D
Quality audits identify corrective actions that need to be
implemented, and they assure the quality plan is adhered to,
that applicable laws and standards are followed, and that the
product of the project is fit for use. Their primary purpose is
to identify quality improvements.
7.
You are managing communications on your project. You
know that all of the following are true regarding information
exchange except which one?
A.
The sender is responsible for making sure the
information is understood correctly.
B.
Putting the information in a format the listener will
understand is known as encoding.
C.
The sender must present the information in a clear and
concise format.
D.
Listeners filter the information they receive through
their own knowledge of the subject and cultural
influences.
Answer: A
Receivers are responsible for making sure they understand the
information that’s been presented and for making sure they
have all the information they need. If the receiver is unclear,
they should ask clarifying questions or ask the sender to
rephrase the information.
8.
All of the following are methods the information management
system might use to distribute information except
___________________.
A.
email
B.
electronic databases
C.
voicemail
D.
websites
Answer: B
Methods of distributing information might include email,
hard copy, voicemail, videoconferencing, websites, and
collaboration software. Electronic databases are a means to
store information.
9.
The tools and techniques of Manage Stakeholder Engagement
include all of the following except which one?
A.
Communication methods
B.
Interpersonal skills
C.
Issue log
D.
Management skills
Answer: C
The tools and techniques for Manage Stakeholder
Engagement are communication methods, interpersonal skills,
and management skills.
Chapter 10
1.
All of the following are true regarding the Monitor and
Control Project Work process except for which one?
A.
This process reports on and compares actual project
results.
B.
This process monitors and controls project work from
Initiating through the Monitor and Control process
group.
C.
This process monitors and approves change requests.
D.
This process analyzes performance data and
recommends preventive or corrective actions.
Answer: B
This process monitors and controls project work from
Initiating through Closing
2.
Which of the following processes must be integrated and
coordinated during the Control Procurements process?
A.
Control Communications, Control Procurements,
Control Quality, Perform Integrated Change Control,
and Control Risks
B.
Direct and Manage Project Work, Control
Communications, and Perform Integrated Change
Control
C.
Plan Procurements, Control Communications, Control
Quality, and Perform Integrated Change Control
D.
Direct and Manage Project Work, Control Quality,
Perform Integrated Change Control, and Control Risks
Answer: D
The processes that must be integrated and coordinated during
the Control Procurements process are Direct and Manage
Project Work, Control Quality, Perform Integrated Change
Control, and Control Risks.
3.
Control Communications involves collecting, distributing,
storing, archiving, and organizing project information. Work
performance information is one of the primary outputs of this
process. All of the following are true regarding work
performance information except for which one?
A.
This information is used to analyze information such
as the status of deliverables.
B.
Forecasts of ETC might be reported in this output.
C.
This might take the form of status reports, memos, or
updates.
D.
The status of change requests might be reported in this
output.
Answer: C
Status reports, memos, and updates are types of work
performance reports. Work performance information is
included in these reports.
4.
Corrective action is from of a change request. Change
requests (including approved change requests) are outputs of
which process group and inputs to which process group.
respectively?
A.
Outputs of Planning, Executing, and Monitoring and
Controlling, and inputs to Executing and to Monitoring
and Controlling
B.
Outputs of Executing and Monitoring and Controlling,
and inputs to Monitoring and Controlling
C.
Outputs of Executing and Monitoring and Controlling,
and inputs to Executing and Monitoring and
Controlling
D.
Outputs of Planning and Executing, and inputs to
Executing and Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: A
Change requests are an output of the Plan Procurement
Management process (a Planning process) and are outputs of
several Executing and Monitoring and Controlling process.
Approved change requests are an input to the Direct and
Manage Project Work process (an Executing process) and
change requests are an input to the Perform Integrated
Change Control process (a Monitoring and Controlling
process). Change requests are also outputs of several
Monitoring and Controlling processes.
5.
Which of the following groups is responsible for approving or
denying change requests after reviewing?
A.
CRB
B.
CCB
C.
CRC
D.
CCC
Answer: B
The change control board is responsible for reviewing and
approving or denying change requests.
6.
Change control systems serve all of the following purposes
except which one?
A.
Tracks the status of change requests
B.
Defines the level of authority needed to approve
changes
C.
Describes the impact of the change to the product
description
D.
Documents the procedures that describe how to submit
and manage change requests
Answer: C
Change control systems describe the management impacts of
the changes as they pertain to project performance.
7.
The configuration management system accomplishes all of
the following except which one?
A.
Identifies the physical characteristics of the product of
the project
B.
Controls changes to the physical characteristics of the
product of the project
C.
Documents changes to verify that requirements are met
D.
Tracks the status of change requests and reports on
them
Answer: D
Change control systems track the status of change requests
and report on them.
8.
Which of the following option isn’t a forecasting method?
A.
Judgmental methods and communication methods
B.
Methods such as simulation techniques, probabilistic
forecasting, and ensemble forecasting
C.
Causal/econometric methods, including regression
analysis, autoregressive moving average, and
econometrics
D.
Time series methods
Answer: A
Forecasting methods include time series methods,
causal/econometric methods, judgmental methods, and other
methods (such as simulation, probabilistic forecasting, and
ensemble forecasting).
9.
Approved changes are an output of the Perform Integrated
Change Control process. All of the following are true
regarding this process except which one?
A.
Baseline changes should be documented in the change
control system or the configuration management
system.
B.
Baseline changes are implemented during the Perform
Integrated Change Control process.
C.
You should document all the actions taken during this
process in the project document updates output.
D.
Changes should be reflected from the current point in
time forward.
Answer: B
All approved changes are implemented in the Direct and
Manage Project Work process, not the Perform Integrated
Change Control process.
10.
The Control Stakeholder Engagement process concerns which
of the following?
A.
Documenting important information about stakeholder
interests in the stakeholder management plan
B.
Monitoring the communication needs of the project
stakeholders so they receive what they need when they
need it
C.
Documenting contact information and basic
information in the stakeholder register
D.
Monitoring your stakeholder relationships and making
certain the stakeholders continue to stay engaged on
the project
Answer: D
Control Stakeholder Engagement involves monitoring your
stakeholder relationships and making certain stakeholders
stay engaged on the process.
Chapter 11
1.
Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique of the
Control Risks process. Variance analysis is used to gather and
evaluate project performance information. Which of the
following best describes variance analysis?
A.
It determines if project performance is improving or
worsening over time by analyzing project results for
variances.
B.
It is the most often used performance measurement
tool.
C.
It compares the expected project plan results with the
actual results to determine if variances exist.
D.
It examines schedule, cost, and scope project
measurements together to determine if variances exist.
Answer: C
Variance analysis compares the expected project plan results
with the actual results to determine if variances exist.
2.
Risk responses and contingency plans are examples of which
of the following?
A.
Corrective action
B.
Work authorization action
C.
Organizational action
D.
Preventive action
Answer: D
Risk responses and contingency plans, which are examples of
preventive actions, reduce the potential impacts of the risk
event if it occurs.
3.
The tools and techniques of Control Risk are used throughout
the life of the project to monitor risks. Which of the following
lists the tools and techniques of this process?
A.
Risk reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend
analysis, technical performance measurements, reserve
analysis, and status meetings
B.
Risk audits, risk reviews, reserve analysis, and earned
value analysis
C.
Risk reassessment, risk audits, additional risk
identification and analysis, technical performance
measurements, risk audits, risk reviews, and status
meetings
D.
Trend analysis, earned value analysis, risk audits,
reserve analysis, additional risk identification and
analysis
Answer: A
The tools and techniques of Control Risk include risk
reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend analysis,
technical performance measurement, reserve analysis, and
status meetings.
4.
You are in the Control Costs process. You’ve recently
received an approved change as a result of one of the cost
performance measurements. This is considered a budget
update. This revised cost estimate, or budget update, will
require that all appropriate parties agree to a change to which
of the following?
A.
Project costs
B.
Project schedule
C.
Cost baseline
D.
Cost estimates
Answer: C
Budget updates, which are a type of revised cost estimate,
require changes to the cost baseline to reflect the new cost
estimates.
5.
This performance measurement is the direct and indirect costs
of work to date.
A.
AC
B.
PV
C.
EV
D.
CV
Answer: A
Actual cost (AC) is the actual cost of the work to date,
including direct and indirect costs.
6.
You have gathered the following cost measurements for your
project: EV = 120, AC = 115, PV = 135. Which of the
following statements is true?
A.
The project is ahead of schedule and costs are lower
than planned.
B.
The project is behind schedule and costs are lower than
planned.
C.
The project is behind schedule and costs are higher
than planned.
D.
The project is ahead of schedule and costs are higher
than planned.
Answer: B
SV for this project is (120 – 135) = –15, so this project is
behind schedule. The CV for this project is (120 – 115) = 5,
which means the costs are lower than what was planned for
the project at this point in time.
7.
You have gathered the following cost measurements for your
project: EV = 120, AC = 115, PV = 135, ETC = 100. What is
the CPI and SPI?
A.
CPI = .89 and SPI = 1.04
B.
CPI = .96 and SPI = 1.13
C.
CPI = 1.13 and SPI = .96
D.
CPI = 1.04 and SPI = .89
Answer: D
CPI for this project is (120 / 115) = 1.04, and SPI for this
project is (120 / 135) = .89.
8.
You have gathered the following cost measurements for your
project: EV = 200, AC = 190, PV = 135, BAC = 210. You
expect the project to continue as it has in the past and that
ETC uses the budgeted rate. Which of the following is the
correct EAC given the circumstances (rounded up)?
A.
179
B.
130
C.
200
D.
218
Answer: C
The formula for EAC given these circumstances is as follows:
EAC = AC + BAC – EV. Therefore, our calculation looks like
this: 190 + 210 – 200 = 200.
9.
You have gathered the following cost measurements for your
project: EV = 132, AC = 115, PV = 135, BAC = 140. You
expect future performance and variances to behave like past
performance and variances. Which of the following is the
correct EAC given the circumstances (rounded up)?
A.
122
B.
147
C.
113
D.
8
Answer: A
The formula for EAC when future performance is expected to
be the same as past performance is EAC = BAC/ CPI. CPI is
132/115 = 1.15. EAC is 140/1.15 = 122.
10.
You have gathered the following cost measurements for your
project: AC = 200, PV = 215, EV = 200, BAC = 225. What is
the ETC if cost variances are not excepted to be typical to
what you’ve seen to date?
A.
20
B.
25
C.
15
D.
10
Answer: B
ETC is calculated this way: ETC = BAC – EV so our formula
for this project looks like this: 225 – 200 = 25.
11.
The Control Schedule process manages changes to the
schedule. All of the following are true regarding Control
Schedule except which one?
A.
Scope changes will impact the project schedule and
will require schedule changes and revisions.
B.
Control Schedule defines how changes to the schedule
will be managed.
C.
The work performance data output of this process
includes schedule updates.
D.
Changes to approved baseline schedule start and end
dates are called revisions.
Answer: C
Work performance data is an input of this process and work
performance information is the output.
12.
During the Control Quality process, this tool and technique
included in the Seven Basic Quality Tools is used to monitor
repetitive activities and plot sample variance measurements to
determine if the product is in control (which is defined by
being within plus or minus three standard deviations of the
mean). Which tool and technique does this describe?
A.
Scatter diagrams
B.
Statistical sampling
C.
Pareto chart
D.
Control charts
Answer: D
Control charts measure the results of processes over time and
display the results in graph form. The mean is shown in the
middle of the chart, with the upper control limit and lower
control limits shown as three plus or minus standard
deviations from the mean. Processes are said to be out of
control when they exceed the upper or lower control limits.
13.
This tool and technique included in the Seven Basic Quality
Tools of the Control Quality process displays work results in
histogram form that rank-orders the most important factors by
their frequency over time. Which tool and technique is it?
A.
Run chart
B.
Flow chart
C.
Pareto diagram
D.
Scatter diagram
Answer: C
Pareto diagrams are histograms that rank-order the most
important factors (such as delays, costs, and defects) by their
frequency over time. Pareto’s theory says you’ll get the most
benefit from spending the majority of your time fixing the
most important problems.
14.
Which of the following is true regarding common causes of
variances?
A.
They result from random variances, known or
predictable variances, or variances that are always
present in the process and are depicted in scatter
diagrams.
B.
They result from random variances or variances that
are always present in the process and are depicted in
Pareto diagrams.
C.
They result from random variances, known or
predictable variances, or variances that are always
present in the process and are depicted in control
charts.
D.
They result from random variances or variances that
are always present in the process and are depicted in
flow charts.
Answer: C
Common causes of variances are a result of random
variances, known or predictable variances, or variances that
are always present in the process. Control charts depict
common causes of variances.
15.
Which of the following are the tools and techniques of the
Validate Scope process?
A.
Inspection and group decision-making techniques
B.
Variance and trend analysis and inspection
C.
Performance reviews and group decision-making
techniques
D.
Variance and trend analysis
Answer: A
Inspection and group decision-making techniques are the
tools and techniques of the Validate Scope process.
16.
All of the following are true regarding scope changes except
which one?
A.
Scope changes will likely require adjustments to some
of the Planning processes.
B.
Scope changes will likely bring about quality
improvements.
C.
Changes to project scope should also be accounted for
in the product scope.
D.
Changes to the agreed-upon WBS constitute a scope
change.
Answer: B
Quality improvements are realized as a result of quality
audits, not scope changes.
Chapter 12
1.
Product verification determines if all of the work of the
project was completed correctly and satisfactorily according
to stakeholder expectations during which process?
A.
Validate Scope
B.
Close Procurements
C.
Close Project or Phase
D.
Perform Quality Assurance
Answer: B
Close Procurements determines if the work described in the
contract was completed accurately and satisfactorily. This
process is called product verification. Product documentation
is verified and accepted during the Validate Scope process.
2.
Your project was recently accepted by the stakeholders. The
goals were achieved and the project was closed out. What
type of project ending is this?
A.
Starvation
B.
Addition
C.
Integration
D.
Extinction
Answer: D
Extinction means the project has been completed and
accepted by the stakeholders. It no longer exists, the goals
have been achieved, and the project’s been closed out.
3.
Which one of the following is the key activity performed
during the Closing process group?
A.
Creating project archives for future reference
B.
Performing post-implementation audits
C.
Disseminating information to formalize project closure
D.
Identifying and documenting lessons learned
Answer: C
Disseminating information to formalize project closure is the
key activity in the Closing process group.
4.
Close Project or Phase is part of which Project Management
Knowledge Area?
A.
Procurement Management
B.
Quality Management
C.
Integration Management
D.
Communications Management
Answer: C
Close Project or Phase belongs to the Project Integration
Management knowledge area.
5.
All of the following are true regarding procurement audits
except which one?
A.
They’re performed during Plan Procurement
Management through Close Project or Phase.
B.
They’re reviews of the process to determine if the
process is meeting the right need.
C.
They identify lessons learned during the procurement
process.
D.
They identify flawed processes or procedures and
allow you to make corrections.
Answer: A
Procurement audits are performed during Plan Procurement
Management and proceed through Close Procurements.
6.
Your project has been completed, accepted, and closed out.
You want to evaluate project goals and compare them to the
product of the project, review successes and failures, and
document possible improvements for future projects. You can
accomplish this by performing which of the following?
A.
Procurement audit
B.
Project and product verification
C.
Post-implementation audit
D.
Identifying and documenting lessons learned
Answer: C
Post-implementation audits are not an official output of the
Closing processes but are sometimes required by
organizations to evaluate project goals, review successes and
failures, and document possible improvements for future
projects.
7.
Attaining customer satisfaction is an important factor that
project managers should be concerned about. The one key
thing you can do as the project manager to ensure customer
satisfaction?
A.
Monitor quality and take corrective action as necessary
to keep the process in control
B.
Define the requirements and obtain sign-off from the
stakeholders, ensuring that they agree to the
requirements
C.
Provide accurate performance measurements
throughout the project via the information distribution
system
D.
Make certain all important project information is
delivered during status meetings
Answer: B
The key thing that you can do to assure customer satisfaction
is to document requirements and obtain sign-off on the
requirements of the project. This ensures that stakeholders are
aware of and agree to the requirements and they know what
the project is expected to deliver.
8.
As a certified project manager, you are responsible for
ensuring integrity on your project. All of the following are
helpful in ensuring integrity in the project management
profession except which one?
A.
Following the PMI® Code of Ethics and Professional
Conduct
B.
Following company guidelines regarding conflicts of
interest and ensuring that your personal interests are
not compromised
C.
Practicing honesty in reporting when required by your
manager
D.
Practicing and applying established project
management processes to your project
Answer: C
You should always practice honesty in reporting, whether
your manager requires you to or not.
9.
You have been appointed to head up a project management
office for your organization. While working in this capacity,
you develop project management templates and training
materials that will be used to train others in your organization
on project management techniques. The materials you’ve
developed are very impressive, and you’re thinking about
publishing and selling them for your own profit. Which of the
following is the appropriate response?
A.
You decide to pursue publishing opportunities since
you developed the materials and they belong to you.
B.
You decide to pursue publishing opportunities after
you delete all the references to your company data.
You know that most company data is confidential and
you shouldn’t publish it.
C.
The materials you’ve developed were produced with
the help of other team members and some vendor
information you received at a recent conference. You
decide not to pursue publication because you didn’t
really write everything personally.
D.
Materials developed while on the job belong to your
organization and as such are intellectual property. You
decide to drop the idea altogether.
Answer: D
Intellectual property includes intangible items like software,
patents, and business processes that are developed by an
organization and have commercial value. Since you
developed these materials for your company, the materials
belong to the organization and you should not try to
personally profit from them.
10.
In the midst of your project, you discover that the byproduct
of one of your newly developed manufacturing processes
causes environmental damage. However, the damage is
minimal and almost unnoticeable. Most inspectors will not
likely examine this area for damage. What is the most
appropriate response?
A.
Inform the project sponsors that there is no problem
except for one small, isolated area that no one will ever
ask about. Tell them you’ve corrected the problem so
that it won’t occur again.
B.
Inform the project sponsors that you are investigating
the production process to determine the extent of the
problem and will take whatever corrective action is
necessary.
C.
Do nothing since the damage is minimal and no one
will really notice it anyway.
D.
Inform the project sponsors you’ve already taken
corrective action even though nothing has been done to
correct the problem. Since it’s unnoticeable, they
won’t know if the problem has been fixed or not.
Answer: B
The most appropriate response is to inform the project
sponsors that you are investigating the process to determine
the extent of the problem and will take corrective action. This
action ensures your integrity and adheres to honest reporting
standards as required in the PMI® Code of Ethics and
Professional Conduct.
11.
You are working on a very prestigious, important project.
Your project sponsor has promised a generous bonus if you
can complete the project ahead of schedule. You know if you
complete this project early, you’ll receive media attention and
write-ups in some of the important journals for your industry.
You’ve examined the schedule and found that the project is
actually behind schedule at this point in time. You’re not
worried and decide to do which of the following?
A.
Inform the project sponsor you are right on schedule
and hope to complete the project early while taking no
action to get the project realigned with the schedule.
B.
Delete activities from the project schedule to decrease
the amount of time it takes to complete all project
activities.
C.
Inform the project sponsor that you’re behind schedule
and are not sure the project will be completed early.
You tell the project sponsor that you’ll examine ways
to get the project back on schedule but can’t promise
an early delivery.
D.
Inform the project sponsor that some of the
requirements on the project are really a separate
project and shouldn’t be counted as part of the
deliverables on this project
Answer: C
Honesty in reporting project status ensures your integrity as a
project manager and is one of the standards outlined in the
PMI® Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.
12.
You are a project manager for a company that has just merged
with another company from a foreign country. Your new
team is made up of members from your original organization
and the merged company. Each company had its own unique
culture that is very different from the other. Each country also
has a different set of cultural standards. Everyone on the team
is struggling with these cultural differences. You decide to do
which of the following?
A.
Note those team members who are causing the most
turmoil over the cultural issues so that it can be
reflected in their upcoming performance appraisals.
B.
Inform management that they must come out with a
new code of conduct for the newly formed
organization soon.
C.
Require all team members to attend diversity training
to help them become more aware of cultural
differences. This will help them function more
efficiently as a team.
D.
Inform the team of your role as project manager and
require them to treat each other fairly and with respect.
This establishes your authority right away and will
show the team that you’re in control.
Answer: C
Recognizing and dealing with cultural differences is best
accomplished with diversity training.