Section 1 : Data Sufficiency
(Marks: 10 , Time: 10 min.)
For Q. 1 to 10 : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two sentences numbered
(1) and (2) given below it. Choose the best option according to following instructions.
Option A : If statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Option B : If statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Option C : If both statement (1) and (2) together are necessary to answer the question.
Option D : If both statement (1) and (2) together are not sufficient to answer the question.
1. In a general body election, 3 candidates, p, q and r were contesting for a membership of
the board. How many votes did each receive?
(I) p received 17 votes more than q and 103 votes more than r.
(II) Total votes cast were 1703.
2. ∆ABC and ∆PQR are congruent (I) Area of ∆ABC and ∆PQR are same
(II) ∆ABC and ∆PQR are right angle Triangles
3. How many ice cubes can be accommodated in a container?
(I) The length and breadth of the container is 20 cm and 15 cm respectively.
(II) The edge of the ice cube is 2 cm.
4. Ram got Rs.1500 as dividend from a company. What is the rate of interest given by the
company?
(I) The dividend paid last year was 10%.
(II) Ram has 350 shares of Rs.10 denomination.
5. Total marks obtained by P, Q, R and S in Mathematics is 360. How many marks did P
secure in Mathematics?
(I) P secured one-third marks of the total of Q, R and S.
(II) Average marks obtained by Q and R are 20 more than that secured by S.
6. If C1 and C2 are the circumferences of the outer and inner circles respectively. What is
C1 : C2?
(I) The two circles are concentric.
(II) The area of the ring is 2/3 the area of greater circle.
7. Salary of A and B is in ratio 3:4 and expenditure is in ratio 4:5. What is the ratio of their
saving ?
(I) B’s saving is 25% of his salary.
(II) B’s salary is Rs.2500.
8.
Is ' b ' positive?
(I) a + b is positive.
(II) a – b is positive.
9. What is the average height of the class?
(I) Average height of the class decreases by 1 cm if we exclude the tallest person of the
class whose height is 56 cm.
(II) Average height of the class increases by 1 cm if we exclude the shortest person of the
class whose height is 42 cm.
10. What is the middle number of 7 consecutive whole numbers?
(I) Product of numbers is 702800.
(II) Sum of the numbers is 105.
Section 2: Reading Comprehension
(Marks-15 Time-20min)
Passage 1
Nothing shows up the schizophrenia of the Indian mind in the face of this challenge than
that the two principal leaders of the national struggle for independence Mahatma Gandhi and Mr.
Nehru should have come to contrary conclusions. The Mahatma was for an outright rejection of
the western civilization, which is often described as Satanic. Mr. Nehru was for all-out
industrialization. Both spoke from utter conviction and were extremely articulate in stating their
positions. But neither of them thought it worth his while to grapple with the troublesome details
when it came to making the reality conform to the vision.
The Mahatma was, of course, most meticulous about detail and when he undertook a job,
whether it was the spread of the spinning wheel, revival of village industries or helping the
Harijans, he did not regard the smallest matter pertaining to the concerned organization or an
individual grievance beneath his personal attention. It was a different story, however, with
translating his larger vision of a non-violent society into a blueprint.
He enunciated the general principal very forcefully. But such details as the state structure
the new society would build and the social legislation it would undertake, the precise industrial
policy it would pursue or the defense policy it would opt for, he left alone or dealt with in bits
and pieces. Did he fear that his vision would suffer by raising all these issues at one go? Or did
he realize long before the day of India's tryst with destiny that he would not count on anyone
even among his closest colleagues in the Congress to back him?
Mr. Nehru was in a much better position to carry out his ideas. But the very Constitutionmaking process became a formal exercise. There was no attempt to think in terms of institutions,
which while preserving the substance of democracy, would contain populist pressures, make
government more business-like and more productive of results and make for easy and cheap
access to justice. All this is not to believe his role in guiding the young republic in its formative
years and setting norms which none of the regimes that came after him were also to live up to.
But that does not detract from the processes of decline. The proliferation of slums had begun,
and small groups were already hogging up the larger part of the gains of development. No
concerted attempt was made to close the loopholes in land laws and little was done to make
school education relevant to the needs of a developing society. The language policy was left to
flounder.
That the people still look back to the Nehru era with a sense of nostalgia shows that even
things which looked manageable in his days are now out of control. Perhaps this is the result of
deterioration in the quality of leadership, a distressing decline in the integrity of political life and
an alarming build-up of populist pressure. But it also is the result of the way each government
has been busy storing up trouble for future. Can one be sure after all this that the foundations on
which the republic rests are durable enough?
What light does this throw on the Indian mind? The Indian mind delights in ambiguity in
ambivalence, in trying to have the best of both worlds, in harboring a medley of conflicting ideas
without much discomfort. Whatever the public rhetoric, the practice is always based on halfmeasures, of leaving things half done, of a refusal to anticipate trouble and a tendency to wake
up when the crisis has already matured, this may be an exaggeration. But the slovenliness of
approach to every problem is a fact of life which hits in the eye even the most sympathetic
foreign observer.
It is not surprising that the Indian genius which excelled in production myths, which
created works of sculpture 'which endow the spirit with a body' and a music which enthralls the
mind as well as the spirit, was often at a loss in facing up to the problems of state building. The
Indian mind still falters as it tires to come to grips with these problems.
1. What is the main purpose of the writer behind writing this passage?
A) To bring out the contrast in Nehru's and Gandhi's dreams and vision of India.
B) To bring out the flaws in Indian democracy.
C) To trace the reasons behind the disordered state of India as one based on hollow
foundation laid by leaders in the past.
D) To show the impact of Western Civilization on today's India.
E) To bring out the past as a disordered and mismanaged government as a result of
improper implementation of the job undertaken by leaders.
2. What is the main idea expressed in the passage?
A) The passage expresses the vision and dreams of Indian leaders for a better future.
B) The passage expresses the shaping up of a disorganized state due to the constricted
vision of our leaders.
C) The passage is an account of a successful democratic set up of the Indian government
as a result of the policies made by our leaders.
D) The passage explains how the Constitution was made and what clauses it included.
E) The passage gives an account of the mismanaged government due to the formulation
of faulty laws.
3. Provide a suitable title to the passage.
A) Leaders of the Freedom Struggle
B) Nehru's and Gandhi's Vision of India
C) History of Indian Democracy
D) Reflections of the Past in the Present India
E) Lack of Effective Leaders in India Today
4. What are the writer's feelings towards the subject of the passage?
A) The writer is not satisfied with the present situation of mismanagement.
B) The writer is comfortable with the medley of conflicting ideas present in today's
world.
C) The writer is nostalgic about the times when Nehru led India.
D) The writer is depressed because of lack of efforts on part of Indian leaders to
implement their ideas into practice.
E) The writer is unaffected with the past or present.
5. What is the purpose of the writer behind mentioning Mahatma Gandhi and Nehru?
A) To give an example of effective leadership to today's incompetent leaders.
B) To explain that they were incapable of putting their vision into practice which has
resulted in the present situation.
C) To bring out a contrast in the thinking of the two leaders towards the industrialization.
D) To explain their policies and vision they held for all around development of India.
E) To explain that they had high dreams and vision for the country which could take
India to a bright future.
6. What is the writer's interpretation of the way Indians have accepted the situations?
A) Indians are delighted with the excellent conditions present.
B) Indians are proud of the leaders of freedom struggle.
C) Indians are sentimental about the glorious past of Nehru's times.
D) Indians are disappointed by non-implementation of the dreams of leaders into reality.
E) Indians have comfortably accepted the existing state of India along with its
shortcomings and disorder.
7. Which of the following lies beyond the scope of the passage?
A) Mahatma Gandhi favored the use of spinning wheel in place of western culture.
B) Mahatma Gandhi dealt with the formation of the structure of the state in bits and
pieces.
C) The government did not make an effort to remove the deficiency in the laws of land.
D) Mahatma could not give personal attention to the revival of village industries since he
felt that his vision would not materialize as a whole.
E) It is a custom in India to leave things incomplete till it becomes dangerous.
Passage 2
Billie Holiday died a few weeks ago. I have been unable until now to write about her, but
since she will survive many who receive longer obituaries, a short delay in one small
appreciation will not harm her or us. When she died we - the musicians, critics, all who were
ever transfixed by the most heart-rending voice of the past generation - grieved bitterly.Few
people pursued self-destruction more whole-heartedly than she, and when the pursuit was at an
end, at the age of forty-four, she had turned herself into a physical and artistic wreck. Some of us
tried gallantly to pretend otherwise, taking comfort in the occasional moments when she still
sounded like a ravaged echo of her greatness. Others had not even the heart to see and listen any
more. We preferred to stay home and, if old and lucky enough to own the incomparable records
of her heyday from 1937 to 1946, many of which are not even available on British LP, to
recreate those coarse-textured, sinuous, sensual and unbearable sad noises which gave her a sure
corner of immortality. Her physical death called, if anything, for relief rather than sorrow. What
sort of middle age would she have faced without the voice to earn money for her drinks and
fixes, without the looks 'and in her day she was hauntingly beautiful' to attract the men she
needed, without business sense, without anything but the disinterested worship of ageing men
who had heard and seen her in her glory?
And yet, irrational though it is, our grief expressed Billie Holiday's art, that of a woman
for whom one must be sorry. The great blues singers, to whom she may be justly compared,
played their game from strength. Lionesses, though often wounded or at bay (did not Bessie
Smith call herself 'a tiger, ready to jump'?) their tragic equivalents were Cleopatra and Phaedra;
Holiday's was an embittered Ophelia. She was the Puccini heroine among blues singers, or rather
among jazz singers, for though she sang a cabaret version of the blues incomparably, her natural
idiom was the pop song. Her unique achievement was to have twisted this into a genuine
expression of the major passions by means of a total disregard of its sugary tunes, or indeed of
any tune other than her own few delicately crying elongated notes, phrased like Bessie Smith or
Louis Armstrong in sung in a thin, gritty, haunting voice whose natural mood was an unresigned
and voluptuous welcome for the pains of love. Nobody has sung, or will sing, Bess's songs from
Porgy as she did. It was this combination of bitterness and physical submission, as of someone
lying still while watching his legs amputated which gives such a blood-curding quality to her
song, Strange Fruit, the anti-lynching poem which she turned into an unforgettable art song.
Suffering was her profession; but she did not accept it.
Little need be said about her horrifying life, which she described with emotional, though
hardly with factual, truth in her autobiography Lady Sings the Blues. After an adolescence in
which self-respect was measured by a girl's insistence on picking up the coins thrown to her by
clients with her hands, she was plainly beyond help. She did not lack it, for she had the flair and
scrupulous honesty of John Hammond to launch her, the best musicians of the 1930s to
accompany her, notably Teddy Wilson, Frankie Newton and Lester Young, the boundless
devotion of all serious connoisseurs, and much public success. It was too late to arrest a career of
systematic embittered self-immolation. To be born with both beauty and self-respect in the
Negro ghetto of Baltimore in 1951 was too much of a handicap, even without rape at the age of
ten and drug-addiction in her teens. But, while she destroyed herself, she sang, unmelodious,
profound and heartbreaking. It is impossible not to weep for her, or not to hate the world which
made her what she was
8. What is the main focus of the passage?
A) To find the reasons behind Billie Holiday's death.
B) The passage tells how Billie Holiday's death is not grieved by anyone.
C) The passage is an appreciation of Billie Holliday's life and achievements as a singer.
D) To give an account of her struggle as a singer.
E) To describe Billie Holiday's wrecked life, by giving an account of her rise as well as
her destruction.
9. What according to the writer was the cause of her death?
A) She died by committing suicide since she was not happy with her downfall as a
singer.
B) She was forced to death by other singers.
C) She indulged in ruining her life by giving herself up to drugs and drinks when her
career as a singer was on a decline.
D) She had an overdose of drugs, which became toxic.
E) She was suffering from some illness.
10. What cannot be understood from the last paragraph of the passage?
A) Her career was launched by reliable and accomplished producers.
B) She was praised for her art equally by expert judges as well as people.
C) In her autobiography, she described her life with sentimental and passionate truth.
D) She was gifted with good looks.
E) Her style of music was different from others in terms of the treatment of tunes.
11. Provide a suitable title for the passage.
A) Billie Holiday: Wreckage of a Great Singer
B) Billie Holiday: A Great Singer
C) Billie Holiday: A Lost Talent
D) Billie Holiday: End of an Era
E) Billie Holiday: A Singer of the Blues
12. Which of the following statements is beyond the scope of the passage?
A) Billie Holiday would be remembered more than other persons who have long
obituaries written about them.
B) Pain, bitterness and surrender were reflected in Billie's voice.
C) Billie did not have the money to buy her drinks, which led her to depression and
isolation.
D) Billie had not accepted pain, sorrow and suffering present in her profession.
E) Billie had lost her money as well as looks.
13. According to the writer, why is her death a comfort more than a grievance?
A) Because she was an intolerable singer.
B) Because otherwise she would have had a miserable and ruined life.
C) Because she was a failure in life.
D) Because she was a competition for other singers.
E) Because she had no one to mourn her death.
14. How can the passage best be described?
A) It is a tribute.
B) It is an obituary.
C) It is an ode.
D) It is a critical analysis.
E) None of the above.
15. What is the antonym of the word 'scrupulous' mentioned in the passage?
A) Meticulous
B) Dishonest
C) Fortunate
D) Careless
E) Pity
Section 3 : Logical Reasoning
(Marks : 15 , Time : 15 min.)
For Q.1 to 5 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions below it.
In a game, "words" (meaningful or meaningless) consist of any combination of at least five
letters of the English alphabets. A "sentence" consists of exactly six words and satisfies the
following conditions:
The six words are written from left to right on a single line in alphabetical order. The sentence
can start with any word, and successive word is formed by applying exactly one of three
operations to the preceding word: delete one letter; add a letter; replace a one letter with another.
At the most three of the six words can begin with the same letter. Except for the first word, each
word is formed by a different operation used for the preceding word.
1. Which one of the following could be a sentence in the word game?
(A) Bzaeak blaeak laeak paeak paea paean
(B) Crobek croeek roeek soeek sxoeek xoeek
(C) Doteam goleam golean olean omean omman
(D) Feted freted reted seted seteg aseteg
2. The last letter of the English alphabet that the first word of a sentence in the word game
can begin with is –
(A) t
(B) w
(C) x
(D) y
3. If the first word in a sentence is “illicit” and the fourth word is “licit”, then the third word
can be –
(A) Implicit
(B) Explicit
(C) Enlist
(D) Elicit
4. If “clean” is the first word in a sentence and “learn” is another word in the sentence, then
which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the positions “learn” could
occupy?
(A) Third
(B) Second, third, fourth
(C) Third, fourth, fifth, sixth
(D) Third, fourth, fifth
5. If the first word in a sentence consists of five letters, then the maximum number of letters
that the fifth word in the sentence could contain is(A) Seven
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
For Q.6 to 9 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions below it.
Six square states having equal area in a country are located in North-South direction in two
columns next to each other. States are located in the given order, State 1, State 3, and State 5 are
on the western side and State 2, State 4, and State 6 are on the eastern side. Within the six states,
there are exactly four medical institutes, two management institutes, and two technical institutes.
These eight institutions are located as follows:
No institution is in more than one of the states. None of the states contain more than one
management institute, and none contains more than one technical institute. None of the states
contain both a management institute and a technical institute. Each management institute is
located in a state that contains at least one medical institute. The technical institutes are located
in two states that do not share a common boundary. State 3 contains a technical institute and
State 6 contains a management institute.
6. Which one of the following could be true?
(A) State 6 contains exactly one technical institute
(B) State 1 contains exactly one medical institute
(C) State 2 contains exactly one management institute
(D) State 5 contains exactly one technical institute
7. A complete and accurate list of the states, any one of which could contain the
management institute that is not in State 6, would be _____
(A) 1, 4
(B) 2, 4
(C) 4, 5
(D) 1, 4, 5
8. If each of the six states contains at least one of the eight institutions, then which one of
the following must be true?
(A) There is a management institute in State 1
(B) There is a medical institute in State 2
(C) There is a medical institute in State 4
(D) There is a medical institute in State 3
9. If one of the states contains exactly two medical institutes and exactly one technical
institute, then which combination of three states might contain no medical institute?
(A) 1, 3, 5
(B) 1, 4, 5
(C) 2, 3, 5
(D) 2, 4, 6
For Q.10 to 13 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions below it.
Professor Mukhopadhay works only on Mondays, Tuesdays, Wednesdays, Fridays, and
Saturdays. She performs four different activities – Lecturing, Conducting quizzes, evaluating
quizzes and working on consultancy projects. Each working day she performs exactly one
activity in the morning and exactly one activity in the afternoon. During each week her work
schedule MUST satisfy the following restrictions:
She conducts quizzes on exactly three mornings. If she conducts quizzes on Monday, she does
not conduct a quiz on Tuesday. She lectures in the afternoon on exactly two consecutive calendar
days. She evaluates quizzes on exactly one morning and three afternoons. She works on
consultancy project on exactly one morning. On Saturday, she neither lectures nor conducts
quizzes.
10. On Wednesdays, the professor could be scheduled to?
(A) Work on a consultancy project in the morning and conduct a quiz in the afternoon
(B) Lecture in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoon.
(C) Conduct a quiz in the morning and lecture in the afternoon
(D) Conduct a quiz in the morning and work on consultancy project in the afternoon.
11. Which of the following statements must be true?
(A) She works on the consultancy project on one of the days on which lectures.
(B) She works on consultancy project on one of the days on which she evaluates quizzes.
(C) She lectures on one of the days on which evaluates quizzes.
(D) She lectures on one of the days on which she conducts quiz.
12. If the Professor conducts a quiz on Tuesday, then her schedule for evaluating quizzes
could be?
(A) Monday morning, Monday afternoon, Friday morning, Friday afternoon
(B) Wednesday afternoon, Friday afternoon, Saturday morning, Saturday afternoon
(C) Monday afternoon, Wednesday morning, Wednesday afternoon, Saturday afternoon
(D) Wednesday morning, Wednesday afternoon, Friday afternoon, Saturday afternoon
13. Which one of the following must be a day on which professor lectures?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Friday
Q. 14 The question below starts with a few statements, followed by four conclusions numbered
1, 2, 3 and 4.You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it does not conform to
the accepted facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the conclusion(s)
logically follow(s) from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
a. Some boys are scholars
b. Some teachers are boys
c. All scholars are observers
Conclusions:
1. Some scholars are boys
2. Some scholars are not boys
3. Some observers are boys
4. Some teachers are scholars
(A) 1, and 3 follow
(C) Either 1 or 2 and 3 follow
(B) 1, 3, and 4 follow
(D) None of the above
Q. 15 Each question consists of a set of numbered statements. Assume that each one of these
statements is individually true. Each of the four choices consists of a subset of these statements.
Choose the subset as your answer where the statements therein are logically consistent among
themselves:
A. Only if the water level in the coastal areas rises, then the people change their lifestyle.
B. People change their lifestyle only if they are rewarded.
C. If people are rewarded, then they will not change their lifestyle.
D. If the temperature rises, then the water level in the coastal areas rises.
E. Whenever the water level in the coastal area rises, then the temperature rises.
F. Unless the people change their lifestyle, temperature rises.
G. People are rewarded.
H. Water level in the coastal areas does not rise.
(A) C, D, F, G and H
(C) E, F, G, H and B
(B) G, F, D, B and H
(D) None of the above
Section 4: Data Interpretation
(Marks-10 Time-10min)
Directions for questions 1 to 5:
A school has four sections A, B, C, D of Class IX students. The result s of half yearly and annual
examinations are shown in the table given below
Result
Students failed in
both Exams
Students failed in
half-yearly but
passed in Annual
Exams
Students passed
in half yearly but
failed in Annual
Exams
Students passed
in both Exams
Section A
28
No. of Students
Section B
Section C
23
17
Section D
27
14
12
8
13
6
17
9
15
64
55
46
76
1. If the number of students passing an examination be considered a criteria for comparison of
difficulty level of two examinations, which of the following statements is true in this
context?
(A) Half yearly examinations were more difficult.
(B) Annual examinations were more difficult.
(C) Both the examinations had almost the same difficulty level.
(D) The two examinations cannot be compared for difficulty level.
2. How many students are there in Class IX in the school?
(A) 336
(B) 189
(C) 335
(D) 430
3. Which section has the maximum pass percentage in at least one of the two examinations?
(A) A Section
(B) B Section
(C) C Section
(D) D Section
4. Which section has the maximum success rate in annual examination?
(A) A Section
(B) B Section
(C) C Section
(D) D Section
5. Which section has the minimum failure rate in half yearly examination?
(A) A Section
(B) B Section
(C) C Section
(D) D Section
Directions for questions 6 to 10:
The bar graph given below shows the data of the production of paper (in lakh tonnes) by three
different companies X, Y and Z over the years.
Z
X
Y
6. For which of the following years, the percentage rise/fall in production from the previous
year is the maximum for Company Y?
(A) 1997
(B) 1998
(C) 1999
(D) 2000
7. What is the ratio of the average production of Company X in the period 1998-2000 to the
average production of Company Y in the same period?
(A) 1:1
(B) 15:17
(C) 23:25
(D) 27:29
8. The average production for five years was maximum for which company?
(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Z
(D) X and Z both
9. In which year was the percentage of production of Company Z to the production of Company
Y the maximum?
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1998
(D) 1999
10. What is the percentage increase in the production of Company Y from 1996 to 1999?
(A) 30%
(B) 45%
(C) 50%
(D) 60%
Section 5: Verbal Section
(Marks-25 Time-15 min)
For the following 5 questions (1 to 5) choose the synonym of the given word.
1. SWINDLER
(A) Charlatan
(C) Divinity
(B) Expert
(D) Debonair
2. GRANDILOQUENCE
(A) Respect
(C) Denial
(B) Bluster
(D) Solemnity
3. VORACIOUS
(A) Ravenous
(C) Voluble
(B) Violent
(D) Rambunctious
4. MUNDANE
(A) Dirty
(C) Confused
(B) Commonplace
(D) Extraordinary
5. VOCIFEROUS
(A) Numerous
(C) Strident
(B) Bountiful
(D) Garrulous
For the following 5 questions (6 to 10) choose the Antonym of the given word\
6. FATUOUS
(A) Crafty
(C) Sensible
(B) Frugal
(D) Inane
7. IMPECUNIOUS
(A) Wealthy
(C) Hungry
(B) Cautious
(D) Tardy
8. ECSTASY
(A) Hate
(C) Languor
(B) Agony
(D) Fatigue
9. IMPROMPTU
(A) Rehearsed
(C) Foolish
(B) Bizarre
(D) Disarming
10. INIQUITOUS
(A) Virtuous
(C) Equal
(B) Complacent
(D) Virulent
Each question consists of two words which have a certain relationship to each other
followed by given a word, Select the word which has the same relationship.
11. PHOENIX: BIRD :: PEGASUS : ______
(A) Fish
(B) Horse
(C) Goat
(D Snake
12. PROFUSE : LUSH :: PROSAIC : ______
(A) Ordinary
(B) Tropical
(C) Abundant
(D) Sparse
13. PLOT : DESIGN :: PATOIS: ______
(A) Tiding
(B) Mystery
(C) Patio
(D) Jargon
14. PERILOUS : SAFE :: YEOMANLY : ______
(A) Awkward
(B) Disloyal
(C) True
(D) Seaworthy
15. CRUST : BREAD :: WATTLE : ______
(A) Waffle
(B) Griddle
(C) Gait
(D) Neck
Choose the correct order of parts of statements to form a meaningful sentence.
16. (A) My austere (B) used to avoid (C) father
luxuries
(A)abcd
(B) bdac
(C)acbd
(D) cabd
17. (A) The artist
(A) bdca
(C) acbd
(D) all inessential comforts and
(B) his masterpiece (C) painstakingly
(B) acdb
(D) bcad
18. (A) The cricketers (B) piercing calls (C) at nightfall
(A) abca
(B) abcd
(C) abda
(D) bdca
(D) worked at
(D) began their
In questions given below out of four alternatives,choose the one which can be
substituted for the given word/sentence
19. Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool
(A) Imbecility
(B) Dotage
(C) Senility
(D) Superannuation
20. A style in which writer makes display of his knowledge
(A) Pedantic
(B) Verbose
(C) Pompous
(D) Omate
Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the
correct meaning of proverb/idiom.
21. To be above board
(A) To have a good height
(B) To be honest
(C) To have no debts
(D) To try to be beautiful
22. To leave someone in the lurch
(A) To compromise with someone
(B) Constant source of annoyance to someone
(C) To put someone at ease
(D) To desert someone in his difficulties
23. To have an axe to grind
(A) A private end to serve
(B) To fail to arouse interest
(C) To have no result
(D) To work for both sides
24. A man of straw
(A) A man of no substance
(B) A very active person
(C) A worthy fellow
(D) An unreasonable person
25. To put one's hand to plough
(A) To take a difficult task
(B) To get entangled into unnecessary things
(C) To take interest in technical work
(D) None of these
Quantitative Aptitude
(Marks: 30 Time: 20 min)
3
3
3
3
1) If x= (16 +17 +18 +19 ), then x divided by 70 leaves a remainder of
(A) 35
(B) 1
(C) 0
2) What is the minimum value of expression?
(
)(
)(
(A) 243
(B) 1
)(
)(
(C) 3
3) How many whole numbers between 100 and 800 contain the digit 2?
(A) 200
(B) 214
(C) 240
(D) 2
)
(D) 10
(D) 300
4) 3 mangoes and 4 apples cost Rs.85. 5 apples and 6 peaches costs 122. 6 mangoes and 2
peaches cost Rs.144. What is the combined price of 1 apple, 1 peach and 1 mango?
(A) 37
(B) 39
(C) 35
(D) 36
5) At the end of 1994, R was half as old as his grandmother. The sum of the years in which they
were born is 3844. How old R was at the end of 1999?
(A) 48
(B) 55
(C) 49
(D) 53
6) Mean of 3 numbers is 10 more than the least of the numbers and 15 less than greatest of the 3.
If the median of 3 numbers is 5, find the sum of the 3 numbers?
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 40
7) In a particular year, the month of January had exactly 4 Thursdays, and 4 Sundays. On which
day of the week did January 1st occur in the year?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
8) Raj drives slowly along the perimeter of a rectangular park at 24 kmph and completes one full
round in 4 min. If the ratio of length to breadth of the park is 3: 2, what are the dimensions?
(A) 450 m x 300 m
(B) 150 m x 100 m
(C) 480 m x 320 m
(D) 100 m x 100 m
9) All faces of a cube with an eight - meter edge are painted red. If the cube is cut into smaller
cubes with a two - meter edge, how many of the two meter cubes have paint on exactly one face?
(A) 24
(B) 36
(C) 60
(D) 48
(C) 336, 512
(D) 343, 504
10) Find the next two number in the series
0, 6, 24, 60,120,210,
(A) 336,504
(B) 343,512
11) In a two digit number, the digits are reserved and this new number is then added to the
original number. The addition is always divisible by which of the following?
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11
12) If the manufacturer gains 10 %, the wholesale dealer 15 % and the retailer 25 % then the cost
of Production of a table, if the retail price is Rs.1265
(A) 632.50
(B) 800
(C) 814
(D) 834.24
13) A bag has 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 and 13 cm sticks. Find the probability that they will form a triangle
if 3 sticks are drawn?
(A) 9/35
(B) 13/57
(C) 13/35
(D) 1/4
14) There was two trains from Calcutta to kanyakumari one train is fast service travels with a
speed 75km per hour another travels with a speed of 44km per hour the time taken to reach from
Calcutta to kanyakumari is 4hours less than the first train. Find the distance b/w Calcutta to
kanyakumari?
(A) 425.8 km
(B) 450.4km
(C) 400.6km
(D) None of these
15) P and Q be centers of two circle having radius 200cms. These circles intersect each other at
some point A and B. Length of PQ is 250cms. What will the angle AQP be?
(A) between 0 to 45
(B) between 0 to 30
(C) between 0 to 60
(D) between 0 to 75
16) A father purchased dress for his 3 daughters. The dresses are of same color but diff size and
they are kept in dark room. What is probability that all the 3 will not choose their own dress?
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/5
17) A person starts writing all 4 digit numbers .How many times had he written the digit 3?
(A) 3291
(B) 2090
(C) 2030
(D) 3700
18) An organization has 4 committees. Only 3 persons are members of all four committees, but
every pair of committees has 4 members in common. What is the LEAST possible number of the
members on any one committee?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 7
19) The perimeter of a sector of circle of radius 5.7m is 27.2m.Find the area of sector.
(A) 90.06
(B) 65.43
(C) 45.03
(D) 135.09
20) A sum of money invested at simple interest triples itself in 8 years at simple interest. Find in
how many years will it become 8 times itself at the same rate?
(A) 24
(B) 28
(C) 21
(D) None of these
21) What is the value of the following expression?
(A) 9/19
(B) 20/19
(C) 10/21
(D) 11/21
22) The integers 34041 and 32506 when divided by a three digit number ‘n’ leave the same
remainder. What is the value of n?
(A) 289
(B) 367
(C) 453
(D) 307
23) If 09/12/2001 happens to be Sunday, then 09/12/1971 would have been a
(A) Wednesday
(B) Monday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Thursday
24) The area of the triangle with the vertices (a, a), (a+1, a), (a, a+2) is
(A) a3
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) none of these
25) The remainder when 2256 divided by 17 is
(A) 11
(B) 13
(C) 1
(D) 16
26) The unit digit in the product of (8267)153(341)72 is
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 1
(D) 4
27) After receiving two successive raises, Harsh’s salary becomes equal to 15/8 times of his
initial salary. By how much percent was the salary raised the first time if the second rate was
twice as high (in percent) as the first?
(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 25%
(D) 30%
28) Consider obtuse-angled triangles with sides 8 cm, 15 cm and x cm. If x is an integer, then
how many such triangles exist?
(A) 5
(B) 21
(C) 10
(D) 15
29) In how many ways can the letters of the word ABACUS be rearranged such that the always
appear together?
(A) 6!/2!
(B) 3!*3!
(C) (3!*3!)/2!
(D) (4!*3!)/2!
30) A dishonest milkman purchased milk at Rs.10 per litre and mixed 5 litres of water in it. By
selling the mixture at the rate of Rs.10 per litre he earns a profit of 25%.The quantity of the
amount of the mixture that he had was?
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
Section 7: General Knowledge
(Marks-15 Time-10min)
1) The country that shares longest border with India is–
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
2) In which of the following States, is the child-sex ratio the lowest as per the 2011 Census?
(A) Haryana
(B) Punjab
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Bihar
3) Which Indian hockey player has a road named after him in Germany?
(A) Dhyan Chand
(B) Zafar Iqbal
(C) Roop Singh
(D) Dhanraj Pillai
4) The first woman from India to be conferred the Sainthood by Pope Benedict XVI is–
(A) Sister Desouza
(B) Sister Madorana
(C) Sister Alphonsa
(D) Sister Nirmala
5) Who was chosen unanimously as the President of India?
(A) K. R. Narayanan
(B) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
6) India has the maximum volume of foreign trade with–
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) China
(D) UK
7) Who is the writer of the International Bestseller ‘The White Tiger’?
(A) Aravind Adiga
(B) Paul Coelho
(C) Chetan Bhagat
(D) Salman Rushdie
8) ‘Peepli Live’ is a film directed by–
(A) Anusha Rizvi
(C) Kiran Rao
(B) Aamir Khan
(D) David Dhawan
9) India witnessed single party domination till–
(A) 1962
(B) 1967
(C) 1971
(D) 1977
10) Which of the following countries is selected as a host of Commonwealth Games-2018?
(A) India
(B) Australia
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Africa
11) France has agreed to supply ‘Rafale’ to India. The deal is about the supply of–
(A) Warships
(B) RADAR system
(C) Fighter Aircrafts (D) Nuclear Reactors
12) Which country gives Magsaysay awards?
(A) India
(B) Britain
(C) China
(D) The Philippines
13) Who developed Hydrogen Bomb?
(A) Samuel Cohen
(C) Edward Teller
(B) Wernher von Braun
(D) J. Robert Open Heimer
14) Gross Domestic Product is the monetary value of–
(A) stock of goods and services
(B) all final goods and services produced in a year
(C) goods produced for the market only
(D) goods produced for the market and for self consumption
15) Who partnered Leander Paes to win Chennai Open Tennis Championship in January 2012?
(A) Janko Tipsarevic
(B) Mahesh Bhupathi
(C) Andy Ram
(D) Rohan Bopanna
Section 8: Puzzles
(Marks-20 Time-20min)
1.
A person drives with constant speed and after some time he sees a milestone with
2 digits. Then travels for 1 hour and sees the same 2 digits in reverse order. 1 hour later
he sees that the milestone has the same 2 digits with a 0 between them. What is the speed
of the car (in kmph)?
(Marks 4)
2.
One night three naughty boys stole a basketful of mangoes from a garden, hid the
loot and went to sleep. Before retiring they did some quick counting and found that the
fruits were less than a hundred in number.
During the night one boy awoke,counted the Mangoes and found that he could
divide the mangoes into three equal parts if he took one for himself.He then took one
Mango,ate it up,and took of the rest,hid them seperately and went back to sleep.
Shortly thereafter another boy awoke,counted the mangoes and he again found
that if he took one for himself the loot could be divided into three equal parts.He ate up
one mango,bagged of the remainder,hid them seperately and went back to sleep. The
third boy aslo awoke after some time ,did the same and went back to sleep.
In the morning when they all woke up, and counted their mangoes ,they found
that the remaining mangoes again totalled 1 more than could be divided into three equal
parts.
How many mangoes did the boys steal?
(Marks-5)
3.
Ahmed, Babu, Chitra, David and Eesha each choose a large different number.
Ahmed says, my number is not the largest and not the smallest. Babu says, my number is
not the largest and not the smallest Chitra says, my number is the largest. David says, my
number is the smallest. Eesha says, my number is not the smallest.
Exactly one of the five children is lying. The others are telling the truth. Who has
the largest number?
(Marks-4)
4.
There Are Two Persons Paul and Jay .Paul Lies On Monday, Tuesday,
Wednesday and the Remaining Days He Speaks Truth. Jay Lies on Thursday, Friday,
Saturday and the Remaining Days He Speaks Truth. Once They Meet Each Other, In
Their Conversation Paul Says That Yesterday Is the Day One among Those I lie. Jay
Also Says That Yesterday I Also Lie. What Is That Day?
(Marks-4)
5. Which number replaces the question mark?
(Marks-3)