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CIVILS360
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STEEPLECHASE TO PRELIMS : MARCH
DATE
SUBJECT
01-Mar
Geography
02-Mar
SnT
03-Mar
SnT
04-Mar
SnT
TOPICS
Geographical phenomena
Basic science and new
Tech
Basic science and new
Tech
Basic science and new
Tech
No test on Sunday. Please do
05-Mar
developments in Scidevelopments in Scidevelopments in Scirevise :)
06-Mar
Economics
Monetary Policy and Fiscal Policy
07-Mar
Economics
Taxation and Public Finance
08-Mar
Economics
09-Mar
Medieval India
External Sector and International
Organisations
Early Medieval ( Rajput , Chola etc)
10-Mar
Medieval India
Sultanate period and religious movements
11-Mar
Medieval India
Mughals and Maratha
12-Mar
No test on Sunday. Please do revise :)
13-Mar
Polity
Parliament II
14-Mar
Polity
State Executive
15-Mar
Polity
State Legislature
16-Mar
Polity
Judiciary
17-Mar
Environment
Ecological concepts and climate change
18-Mar
Environment
international conventions and initiatives
19-Mar
No test on Sunday. Please do revise :)
20-Mar
Environment
Biodiversity, Wildlife, Flora and Fauna
21-Mar
Modern India
Decline of Mughals
22-Mar
Modern India
Entry of Europeans
23-Mar
Modern India
Period 1757-1857
24-Mar
Geography
Human Geography
25-Mar
Geography
Economic Geography
26-Mar
No test on Sunday. Please do revise :)
27-Mar
Geography
India Location and Geographical Features
28-Mar
Geography
India: Infrastructure ; Rail , Road etc
29-Mar
Art and Culture
Architecture
30-Mar
Art and Culture
Religions and Culture
31-Mar
Art and Culture
Sculpture and Paintings
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March 1 :Geography Geographical phenomena
1. Consider the statements regarding National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission:
1. It is a statutory Quasi Judicial Body.
2. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of a High Court.
Which among the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A
About NCDRC
● It is a quasi-judicial commission set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of
1986.
● The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
● Section 21 of Consumer Protection Act, 1986 posits that the National Consumer shall
have jurisdiction:
○ To entertain a complaint valued more than one crore.
○ It also has Appellate and Revisional jurisdiction from the orders of State
Commissions or the District fora as the case may be.
● Section 23 of the Act provides that person aggrieved by an order of NCDRC, may Appeal
to Supreme Court of India within a period of 30 days.
2. Global Gender Gap Report is published by,
(a) World Bank
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) United Nations Economic and Social Council
(d) Institute for Economics and Peace
Ans b
Refer http://civils360.com/2017/02/18/various-reports-and-indexes-published-byorganisations-for-upsc-prelims-exam/
3. Consider the statements regarding Light Detection and Ranging (LIDAR),
1. LIDAR is a remote sensing method.
2. LIDAR can generate three dimensional information about the geographical regions.
3. LASER is used for illuminating a target and analyses the reflected light.
Which among the above statements is/are true?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Ans D
●
●
●
●
●
Lidar stands for Light Detection and Ranging, is a remote sensing method that uses
light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth.
These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system—
generate precise, three dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its
surface characteristics.
In other words, LiDAR is a remote sensing technology that measures distance by
illuminating a target with a laser and analysing the reflected light.
A LIDAR instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS
receiver.
LiDAR is highly accurate scientific surface/topographic data with active sensing system
and it uses its own energy source, not reflecting naturally or naturally emitted
radiation. This mode allows direct acquisition of terrain information
4. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Peer-to-Peer Lending?
1. It is a method of debt financing that enables individuals to borrow and lend money without the use of an official financial institution as an intermediary.
2. Peer to peer Lending is regulated by RBI in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer a
● What is Peer-To-Peer Lending (P2P)?
● It is a method of debt financing that enables individuals to borrow and lend money without the use of an official financial institution as an intermediary.
● It gives access to credit to borrowers who are unable to get it through traditional
financial institution.
● P2P lending boosts returns for individuals who supply capital and reduces interest
rates for those who use it.
● However it demands more time and effort from them, and entails more risk.
● The basic business model of an online P2P player is to provide a platform to connect
lenders with borrowers. The lender will put their savings/investment into an account
for it to be loaned out to borrowers and get a good rate of return.
● Two prominent online lending portals in the country are Faircent and ilend.
Q5. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Tropical cyclones are more destructive and less frequent than the temperate cyclones.
2. A tropical cyclone is frontal in origin whereas a temperate cyclone is thermal in origin.
3. A cyclone is a more mature fully developed depression.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.
1,2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1 and 3 only
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Answer: d
temperate cyclone is frontal in origin whereas a tropical cyclone is thermal in origin.
Q6. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The magnitude of an earthquake takes into account the visible damage caused by it
whereas the intensity measures the energy released.
2. Homosiesmal Lines are lines joining places receiving earthquake waves at same time;
Isosiesmal Lines are lines joining places with same earthquake intensity.
3. The Homosiesmal lines and the isoseismal lines mostly never coincide due to varied
composition of rocks.
4. A seismogram is a record of seismic waves detected by a seismograph.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1,
1,
2,
1,
3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4
Answer: c
The INTENSITY of an earthquake takes into account the visible damage caused by it whereas
the MAGNITUDE represents the energy released
Q7. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Tropical cyclones have a low pressure centre in northern Hemisphere
2. Anticyclones have a high pressure centre in northern hemisphere
3. Air moves in a counter clockwise direction in a tropical cyclone in northern hemisphere
4. Air moves in a counter clockwise direction in an anticyclone in southern hemisphere
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1,2 and 4 only
b. 2 , 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Q8. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to S waves of earthquake?
1. S waves can travel through solid but not through liquids
2. S waves moves the material in a perpendicular to the direction of travel
3. S waves are the fastest of all the earthquake waves
4. Shadow zone of S waves lies in a specific angular direction with respect to all of the
focus and epicentre of earthquake and centre of the earth
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2, 3 and 4
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
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Answer: b
Secondary waves (S-waves) are shear waves that are transverse in nature. These waves arrive
at seismograph stations after the faster moving P waves during an earthquake and displace the
ground perpendicular to the direction of propagation. Depending on the propagational
direction, the wave can take on different surface characteristics; for example, in the case of
horizontally polarized S waves, the ground moves alternately to one side and then the other. S
waves can travel only through solids, as fluids (liquids and gases) do not support shear
stresses. S waves are slower than P waves, and speeds are typically around 60% of that of P
waves in any given material.
Q9. Which of the following statements are correct with regards to P waves of earthquake?
1. P waves can travel through any type of material
2. P waves travel analogous to sound waves
3. Speed of P waves is always near around sound waves.
4. Shadow Zone of P waves lies in a specific angular direction only with respect to the
focus
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2, 3 and 4
2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
Answer: d
Primary waves (P-waves) are compressional waves that are longitudinal in nature. P waves are
pressure waves that travel faster than other waves through the earth to arrive at seismograph
stations first hence the name “Primary”. These waves can travel through any type of material,
including fluids, and can travel at nearly twice the speed of S waves. In air, they take the form
of sound waves, hence they travel at the speed of sound. Typical speeds are 330 m/s in air,
1450 m/s in water and about 5000 m/s in granite. Primary waves also travel about 1 to 5
miles per second (1.6 to 8 kps), depending on the material they’re moving through.
Q10. Which of the following statements about tornado is/are correct?
1. It is a spiraling wind descends down with a great force.
2. It has very high pressure at the centre.
3. They are connected with cumulonimbus clouds.
Select correct answer using the codes given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 only
1 and 3 Only
2 and 3 Only
1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Thunderstroms and tornadoes are local storms and are the manifestation of the atmosphere’s
adjustments to varying energy distribution. They are of short duration, occurring over a small
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area but are violent. A tornado is a violently rotating column of air that is in contact with both
the surface of the earth and a cumulonimbus cloud.
From severe thunderstorms sometimes spiraling winds reaches to earth like an elephant trunk
with a very low pressure at the centre, causing massive destruction on its way. Tornadoes
generally occur in middle latitudes. The tornado over the sea is called water sprouts.
Q11. Consider the following:
1. Larger sea surface area
2. High temperature (> 27o C)
3. Coriolis force
4. Vertical wind speed
5. Existing weak-low pressure area
Which of these are favourable conditions for formation of tropical cyclone?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1,
1,
1,
1,
2, 3 and 4 only
4 and 5 Only
2 and 3 Only
2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: d
In low-latitude parts of the world, intense depressions with a very low central pressure play an
important role in the weather. They are violent stroms that originate over oceans in tropical
areas and move over to the coastal areas brining about large destruction caused by violent
winds, very heavy rainfall and storm surges. The precise trigger mechanism which sets off such
a system is uncertain: some cyclones may grow from pre-existing disturbances; but they seem
to form only under certain conditions. They originate over sea areas where the surface
temperature is greater than 27º C. They rarely develop within 5º of the equator where the
Coriolis force is too small for a circulation to develop.
Q12. Which of the following statements regarding extra-tropical cyclones is/are correct?
1. It moves from west to east.
2. It starts with stationary front and dissipates with Occluded front.
3. It can originate over the sea and the land.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
Answer: a
Extra tropical cyclones form along the polar front. Initially, the front is stationary. The cyclonic
circulation leads to a well developed extra-tropical cyclone, with a warm front and a cold front.
The cold front moves faster than the warm front. The warm air glides over the cold air and is
completely lifted up and the front is occluded and the cyclone dissipates.
Q13. There are more cyclones in the Bay of Bengal than in the Arabian Sea because:
1. The Bay of Bengal is normally warmer than the Arabian Sea.
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2. Some of the Cyclones over the Bay of Bengal originated as low pressure systems over the far
western Pacific Ocean.
3. Tropical Cyclones approaching from the east tend to weaken while crossing land area, hence
frequency of migration into Arabian sea is low.
Which of the above reasons are correct?
a.
b. .
c.
d.
Answer:
1 and 2
1,2 and
2 and 3
1 and 3
b
only
3
only
only
Q14. The name of cyclone ‘vardah’ that hit the south India was suggested by?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pakistan
Bangladesh
Oman
Thailand
Answer: a
The name of severe cyclonic storm “Vardah”, which has made landfall, hitting the coast 60 km
from Chennai, has been given by Pakistan. “Vardah” means “red rose”.
The name of cyclones in the Indian Ocean Region are decided by member countries — India,
Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Thailand, Myanmar, Maldives and Oman. The last cyclone that hit
Chennai earlier this month was called “Nada” – meaning “nothing” in Spanish and Portuguese
and “Hope” in Russian — a name suggested by Oman.
Q15. As the tsunamis leave the deep water of the open sea and travel towards shallow water
1. The speed is reduced considerably
2. They attain enormous height
Which of the above statements relating to tsunami is/are correct?
a.
1 only
b.
2 only
c.
Both 1 and 2
d.
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
March 2: SnT : Basic science and new developments in Sci-Tech
1. Consider the following statements regarding National Highways Grid:
1. It is proposed by NHAI for developing horizontal and vertical Highway Grids.
2. Numbering of all highways running from east to west with odd numbers, and north to
south roads with even numbers may also be done.
Which among the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A
● National Highway Authority of India is proposing a ‘National Highway Grid’ which will
include 27 horizontal and vertical highway corridors spread across the country.
● Numbering of all highways running from east to west with even numbers, and north to
south roads with odd numbers may also be done.
● The grid will connect 12 major ports, 26 state capitals and more than 45 cities and thus
help in quick evacuation and transport of cargo from one end to the other
2.Consider the following statements regarding Minimum Support Price (MSP):
1. MSP is the rate at which government agencies like Food Corporation of India (FCI) and
other state government-owned agencies procure the grain from farmers
2. Pulses does not have a MSP scheme but have a similar scheme under Fair and
Remunerative Price (FRP).
Which among the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans A
Pulses have MSP and FRP is for Sugarcane
3. Which of the following statements is/.are true regarding Krishi Kalyan Cess?
1. It is a cess at the rate of 0.5% applicable over all taxes,
2. It is to be solely used towards financing activities for the improvement of agriculture
and farmer welfare
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans B
Krishi kalyan cess is applicable only over Service tax
4. World Investment Report is published by,
(a) World Trade Organization
(b) World Bank
(c) UN Conference for Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
(d) World Economic Forum
Ans: C
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Refer http://civils360.com/2017/02/18/various-reports-and-indexes-published-byorganisations-for-upsc-prelims-exam/
5. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding offshore derivatives instruments
(ODIs)?
1. (ODIs) are investment vehicles used by overseas investors for an exposure in other
country’s equity market.
2. In India investors using ODIs must be registered with SEBI under Indian KYC.
3. P-Notes are a type of offshore/overseas derivative instruments (ODIs)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans c
● What are offshore derivatives instruments (ODIs)?
○ (ODIs) are investment vehicles used by overseas investors for an exposure in
Indian equities or equityderivatives.
○ These investors are not registered with SEBI, either because they do not want to,
or due to regulatory restrictions.
○ These investors approach a foreign institutional investor (FII), who is already
registered with SEBI. The FII makes purchases on behalf of those investors and
the FII's affiliate issues them ODIs.
○ P-Notes are a type of offshore/overseas derivative instruments (ODIs)
6. In a breeder nuclear reactor
(a) The amount of energy released is much lower than that released from other types of
reactors.
(b) As one fuel is depleted,another fuel is formed.
(c) The quantity of fuel remains the same
(d) No harmful radiations are formed
Ans B
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Breeder_reactor
7. Match the following
List I
List II
1. Helium
a. Treatment of cancer
2. Neon
b. Electrical signs
3. Radon
c. Generation of low temperatures
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
(b) 1-c, 2-1, 3-b
(c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
(d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
7(b)
Read NCERTs of class 8,9,10 for properties and applications of elements
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8.Which of the following statements is not true about diamonds?
(a) It is the purest form of carbon
(b) It is the hardest naturally occurring substance.
(c) It is a good conductor electricity.
(d) Artificial diamonds can be prepared by subjecting a solution of pure carbon in iron to
very high pressures and temperature.
Ans C
Diamond is not a good conductor electricity
9. Consider the statements regarding Satellite TV Transmission in India:
1. Most of the satellite TV transmission uses Geostationary orbits
2. For a clear signal reception, antenna of satellite TV shall be turned south-west or
south-east.
Which among the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both i and 2
TV transmission satellite is in a geostationary orbit. Geostationary orbits can only be
accomplished with equatorial orbits, and since India is in the northern hemisphere this means
the satellite will always be in south direction. Very few communication satellites use polar
orbits, or any orbit inclined out of the equatorial plane for that matter, to prevent the need for
constant reaming of the receiver dish.
10. Which of the following elements aid Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) in Human Beings?
(a) Carbon
(b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Iron
Ans c
the hydrogen atom, which is abundant since the body is mostly made up of water and fat.
These atoms are randomly spinning, or precessing, on their axis, like a child’s top. All of the
atoms are going in various directions, but when placed in a magnetic field, the atoms line up in
the direction of the field. These hydrogen atoms have a strong magnetic moment, which means
that in a magnetic field, they line up in the direction of the field.this aids MRI
11. Carbon nano tubes are the new buzzword of nano industry. Which of the following are the
advantages of carbon nano tubes?
1. High electrical and thermal conductivity
2. Very high tensile strength
3. High flexibility and elasticity
4. Higher life time
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Select the answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) All the above.
Ans c
https://www.quora.com/What-are-the-disadvantages-of-carbon-nanotubes go through this for
disadvantages of CNTs
12.Which of the following diseases have been totally eradicated from India?
1. Polio
2. Leprosy
3. Small pox
4. Yaws
5. Malaria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1,3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 5
(d) 1,3,4 and 5
D
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eradication_of_infectious_diseases
Yaws has been eradicated last year but not the leprosy.
13. Consider the statements regarding Stem Cells which has been in news recently.
1. Only Multicellular organisms will have stem cells.
2. Placenta is one of the rich source of Stem cells.
Which among the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C
Stem cells are cells which can be developed in various organs by logic it will be available only to
a multicellular organisms.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stem_cell
14. Tungsten is used as filament in incandescent lamp because,
1. Light emitting capacity of tungsten is very high.
2. Tungsten has a very high melting point.
3. Tungsten is cheaper and easily available in nature.
Which of the above statements is/are reason for the same?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All the above
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Ans b
There is no relationship between tugsten and light emitting capacity and it is not easily
available.
15. With respect to the two famous wireless communication standards,m WiFi and Bluetooth
consider the following statements.
1. Bluetooth is more secure than Wi-Fi.
2. Bluetooth have more physical range than WiFi.
3. Bluetooth consumes more power than WiFi
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Ans d
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bluetooth
March 3
1. Consider the statements regarding Vidyanjali Scheme:
1. It is launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development.
2. It aims at universal adult literacy by 2022.
Which among the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans A
The Ministry of HRD recently launched the Vidyanjali scheme aimed at boosting the education
system by delivering volunteer teachers to government schools.
Volunteers who fulfill the criteria can apply through the government portal www.mygov.in
It will not replace the regular and professionally qualified teachers in the government schools
The volunteer’s responsibility is towards overall development of the child, not academics.
The volunteer service will be used in developing skills like public speaking, creative writing,
counseling, music and dance
2. Consider the statements regarding International Seabed Authority:
1. It is an autonomous body under UNCLOS.
2. The ISA has its headquarters in London.
3. It can issue permit for mineral exploration beyond Exclusive Economic Zone.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans C
● International Seabed Authority (ISA)
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●
●
●
The International Seabed Authority is an autonomous international organization
established under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea and
the 1994 Agreement relating to the Implementation of Part XI of the United Nations
Convention on the Law of the Sea.
The Authority, which has its headquarters in Kingston, Jamaica, came into existence
on 16 November 1994, upon the entry into force of the 1982 Convention.
It was established to organize, regulate and control all mineral-related activities in the
international seabed area beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, an area underlying
most of the world’s oceans
3. Consider the statements regarding CASPOL:
1. It is an Airborne early warning and control device for defence data intelligence
2. It is indigenously developed by DRDO.
Which among the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans D
● Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), have developed the ceramic-polymer hybrid
(CASPOL) that could protect public transport systems and poor men residing in
thatched homes from fire accidents.
● The water-based ready-to-coat product was originally developed to protect the rockets
from high temperature and fire to which they are exposed during the initial moments of
launch.
4. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Internet of Things (IoT)?
1. The internet of things (IoT) is the network of physical devices to collect and exchange
data.
2. It helps in integration of the physical world into computer-based systems
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C
● About The internet of things (IoT)
● The internet of things (IoT) is the network of physical devices, vehicles, buildings and
other items-embedded with electronics, software, sensors, and network connectivity
that enable these objects to collect and exchange data.
● Thus IoT creates opportunities for more direct integration of the physical world into
computer-based systems, and resulting in improved efficiency, accuracy and economic
benefits
●
IoT is one of the platforms of today's Smart City, and Smart Energy Management
Systems. It can also be used to improve crop yield to help feed the world’s growing
population.
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5. Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding Dark Sky Reserve?
1. It is launched by Ministry of Family, Health and Welfare in Metropolitan cities
2. It aims at reducing light pollution due to digital hoardings and displays
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C
● China has launched its first "dark sky reserve" for astronomical observation in the
Tibetan prefecture of Ngari, bordering Nepal and India.
● The reserve covers an area of 2,500 square kilometres and aims to limit light pollution
by stepping up protection of dark-sky resources for education and tourism
development.
6. Digestion is a complex process involving: Which of the following is the correct sequence of
processes?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Absorption > ingestion > digestion > assimilation > egestion
Ingestion > digestion > assimilation > absorption > egestion
Ingestion > digestion > absorption > assimilation >egestion
Digestion > ingestion > absorption . assimilation > egestion
Ans C
7. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding eye and vision?
1. Iris is the part of that eye which gives it its distinctive colour
2. The most comfortable distance at which one can read with a normal eye is about 50 cm
3. If still images of a moving object are flashed on the eye at a rate faster than 16 per
second, then, the eye perceives this object as moving
4. Eye lens becoming cloudy is called cataract
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1,2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All the above
Ans: B
● The most comfortable distance at which one can read with a normal eye is about 25 cm
8. With regards to the functions of vitamins in Human body, Match the following pairs.
Vitamins
1. Vitamin K
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Function in the body
a.Helps in the absorption of iron.
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2. Vitamin E
3. Vitamin C
b.Helps in the clotting of blood.
c. Helps protect the cells against free radicals.
Select the correct answer using the following codes.
(a) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
(b) 1-a 2-b 3-c
(c) 1-c 2-a 3-b
(d) 1-b 2-a, 3-c
Answer A
● Vitamin K Helps in the clotting of blood and is a part of metabolic processes.
●
Vitamin E is Source of antioxidant, helps protect the cells against free radicals, is
excellent for skin and hair.
●
Vitamin C Acts as an antioxidant, immune booster, helps in the formation of collagen,
helps in the absorption of iron, helps fight infection.
9. During the day the sky is blue but during the sunset sky becomes red.Which of the
following reason is correct regarding this?
(a) The red color reflects off of the retinas in our eyes during sunset.
(b) The red color has shorter wavelength so it penetrates the atmosphere.
(c) More of the short wavelength blues and greens are scattered.
(d) Longer wavelength red color is scattered so it reaches to our eyes.
Ans C
http://www.optics4kids.org/home/content/what-is-optics/scattering/why-is-the-sky-bluewhy-are-sunsets-red/
10. Plants make their food using sunlight and chlorophyll. Chlorophyll gives leaves their green
color. Why we see orange and yellow colors of leaves in autumn?
(a) Plants take more water from the ground.
(b) Carbon dioxide is trapped in the leaves.
(c) Plants stop making food.
(d) Sunlight turn chlorophyll into a red color
Ans C
● When days are short and dry,many plants stop making food.This makes the chlorophyll
goes away. Then we can see orange and yellow colors. Leaves are nature's food factories.
Plants take water from the ground through their roots. They take a gas called carbon
dioxide from the air. Plants use sunlight to turn water and carbon dioxide into oxygen
and glucose. Oxygen is a gas in the air that we need to breathe. Glucose is a kind of
sugar. Plants use glucose as food for energy and as a building block for growing. The
way plants turn water and carbon dioxide into oxygen and sugar is called
photosynthesis. That means "putting together with light." A chemical called chlorophyll
helps make photosynthesis happen. Chlorophyll is what gives plants their green color.
As summer ends and autumn comes, the days get shorter and shorter. This is how the
trees "know" to begin getting ready for winter.
● During winter, there is not enough light or water for photosynthesis. The trees
will rest, and live off the food they stored during the summer. They begin to shut
down their foodmaking factories. The green chlorophyll disappears from the leaves.
As the bright green fades away, we begin to see yellow and orange colors. Small
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amounts of these colors have been in the leaves all along. We just can't see them in the
summer, because they are covered up by the green chlorophyll. autumn leaves scene
The bright reds and purples we see in leaves are made mostly in the fall. In some trees,
like maples, glucose is trapped in the leaves after photosynthesis stops. Sunlight and
the cool nights of autumn cause the leaves turn this glucose into a red color. The brown
color of trees like oaks is made from wastes left in the leaves.
11. With regard to the direct and indirect effects of light on plants life, which of the following
can vary with change in in amount of light?
1. Chlorophyll formation
2. Transpiration rates
3. Water absorption
4. Distribution of plant life across latitudes.
Select the answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All the above
Ans: all the above
12. While charging a mobile phone one may feel that the handset warms up as it is charged.
Which of the following statements aptly explains the same?
(a) Heat is generated within the battery due to inefficient transformation of electrical
energy into chemical potential energy.
(b) Increased electric current in the wiring excites and heats the surrounding molecules.
(c) Heat is generated by the battery as high-energy chemical bonds are formed during the
process of charging.
(d) Electric currents produce electromagnetic radiation, which can be felt in the form of
heat.
Ans A
Inefficient charging is the main reason for heat generation in mobile handset. Remember the
Samsung Note 7 issue.
13. Consider the following statements regarding blood cells in human body
1. White blood cells are lesser in number than the red blood cells.
2. Red blood cells protect the body from infections.
3. All Blood cells are manufactured in the Bone marrow.
Which one of the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans A
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●
White blood cells protect the body from infections Blood cells are manufactured in the
bone marrow from cells called stem cells.
14. While it is stressful to watch a movie on TV in a dark room, it is not while watching a movie
in a theatre. With regard to this consider the following reasons:
1. In theatre we receive analogue pictures while on TV we receive images in pixels.
2. In theatre the view is almost completely occupied by the screen unlike that in case of
TV.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C
● While it is stressful to watch TV in darkness owing to the constant relaxation and
contraction of the iris and hence recommended not to watch TV in darkness, the same
does not apply to watching a movie in a dark theatre.
● The simple reason is that movie, unlike the TV or computer image is not in the form of
pixels. Movie is in the form of analogue. in the case of movies, the stress caused to the
eyes is less as the eyes' field of view is completely occupied by the screen. This is not
the case with TV or computer. The screen is smaller and does not fill the complete field
of vision of the eyes.
●
Moreover, the object on the TV is constantly flickering and we see areas that are of
different light intensities.
15. You would have felt cloudy nights as more warmer than clear nights. Which of the following
statements explains this phenomenon?
(a) The clouds prevent radiation of heat from the ground and the air.
(b) Clouds absorb sunlight in the day and radiate the same in night.
(c) Clouds make the atmosphere damp and generate heat.
(d) The clouds obstruct the movement of air which creates heat
Ans A
Clouds prevent the heat from returning to space causing more warmness
https://prezi.com/mrci5mjh6zyf/why-is-air-temperature-cooler-on-clear-nights-and-warmeron/
04-March
SnT
Basic science and new developments in Sci-Tech
Q1. A capillary tube is a very thin tube made of a rigid material. Water rises in a capillary tube
stop at a certain point.Which of the following statements is true if a thin capillary tube is
replaced with another tube of insufficient length, that is length less then water level :a) Water will overflow in capillary tube.
b) Water will not rise in capillary tube.
c) Water will rises in capillary tube stop at a certain point.
d) Water will depress in capillary tube.
Answer b
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Insufficient length means the length of the capillary tube is less than the height of rise of
liquid. In this case the liquid doesn't flow out. Rather, its curvature establishes an equilibrium
with the length of the tube due to surface tension.
Q2. Consider the following statements
1. Asteroids are a group of celestial bodies which orbit the sun in a belt between Mars
and Jupiter
2. Meteors are heavenly bodies which occasionally enter and hit the earth surface
3. Comets are members of our solar system which orbit the sun in highly elliptical orbits
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
The meteors are heavenly bodies which occasionally enter the atmosphere and if they reach the
earth surface, they are called meteorites.
Q3. Which of the following statements is/are true about salt bridge in an electrochemical cell :1. It allows electron flow.
2. It maintains neutrality in the charges.
3. It provides for oxidation at the cathode
4. It allows ion migration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : c
Specifically used to connect the oxidation and reduction half-cells of a galvanic cell & As
electrons leave one half of a galvanic cell and flow to the other, a difference in charge is
established. If no salt bridge was used, this charge difference would prevent further flow of
electrons.
A salt bridge allows the flow of ions to maintain a balance in charge between the oxidation and
reduction vessels while keeping the contents of each separate. With the charge difference
balanced, electrons can flow once again, and the reduction and oxidation reactions can
proceed. In general, keeping the two cells separate is preferable from the point of view of
eliminating variables from an experiment. When no direct contact between electrolytes is
allowed, there is no need to make allowance for possible interactions between ionic species.
The technique more specifically allows freedom in the choice of ions in solution. For instance, a
mixture of two different cations in solution might result in the preferential reduction of the
wrong one, for the purposes of the experiment. With a salt bridge, the desired cation is isolated
in one vessel while the cation in the other vessel may be chosen to make the experiment easier,
e.g. using a more soluble, or more stable salt of the anionic species.
Q4. Which of the following is produced in coal based thermal power plants?
1. Fly ash
2. Mercury
3. Sulphur dioxide
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
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(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Byproducts of power generation
Byproducts of power plant operation need to be considered in both the design and operation.
Waste heat due to the finite efficiency of the power cycle must be released to the atmosphere,
often using a cooling tower, or river or lake water as a cooling medium. The fuel gas from
combustion of the fossil fuels is discharged to the air; this contains carbon dioxide and water
vapour, as well as other substances such as nitrogen, nitrous oxides, sulfur oxides, and (in the
case of coal-fired plants) fly ash and mercury. Solid waste ash from coal-fired boilers is
removed. Ash generated can be re-used for building materials.
Q5. Consider the following features of newer models of motor cars :
1. Radial tyres
2. Streamlined body
3. Multipoint fuel injection
4. Catalytic converter with exhaust
Which of these features make the newer models of motor cars more fuel efficient ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer :B
Q6. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer : B
Q7. Consider the following statements1. LPG releases less CO2 per unit of energy than does coal or oil.
2. LPG consists of mainly methane, ethane and hexane.
3. LPG is heavier than air.
4. LPG has very strong smell unlike other natural gases.
Select the correct statements using the code given below
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 , 2 , 3 and 4
Answer: B
1. LPG releases less CO2 per unit of energy than does coal or oil.
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2. LPG consists of mainly methane, butane and propane.
3. LPG is heavier than air.
4. LPG has very faint smell . The chemical ‘Ethyl Mercaptan’ which is added to the gas makes
strong smell of LPG. The smell helps us detect when there is a leak
Q8. Sodium bicarbonate is also known as baking soda, bread soda, cooking soda, and
bicarbonate of soda.Which of the following is/are its possible uses :1. As a biopesticide.
2. Cleaning aluminium objects.
3. As an ingredient in mouthwashes.
4. Neutralization of acids and bases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : d
Q9. Many readymade food items contained the label “contains permitted class II preservative”.
Which of the following statements is/are true about food preservatives?
1. Class I preservatives are natural while Class II preservatives are man-made.
2. Wood Smoke is also considered to be a Class I preservative.
3. Sorbates, Sulfites and benzoates are examples of Class II preservatives.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
A preservative is a naturally occurring or synthetically produced substance that is added to
products such as foods, pharmaceuticals, paints, biological samples, wood, etc. to prevent
decomposition by microbial growth or by undesirable chemical changes. Preservatives can be
divided into two types, depending on their origin.
Class I preservatives refers to those preservatives which are naturally occurring, everyday
substances. Examples include salt, honey and wood smoke.
Class II preservatives refer to preservatives which are synthetically manufactured.
examples : benzoates, sorbates, nitrites and nitrates of sodium or potassium, sulfites,
glutamates, glycerides
Q10. Metals are good conductors of electricity but they are good conductors of heats
also.Which of the following statement explains the reason behind good conduction of heat:(a) It is because they contain free electrons and the electrons are free to move in a network of
metal atom.
(b) It is because the molecules inside metal are closely packed together.
(c) It is because they have very high melting point.
(d) It is because metallic bonds are made from a lattice of ions.
Answer: B
Q11. Which of the following statements is/are true about Surface tension of liquids :1. It is because of adhesive forces of the liquid.
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2. Hot water is a better cleaning agent because the higher surface tension.
3. Soaps and detergents lower the surface tension of the water
Se lect the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : c
The cohesive forces between liquid molecules are responsible for the phenomenon known as
surface tension. The molecules at the surface do not have other like molecules on all sides of
them and consequently they cohere more strongly to those directly associated with them on the
surface. This forms a surface "film" which makes it more difficult to move an object through the
surface than to move it when it is completely submersed.
Hot water is a better cleaning agent because the lower surface tension makes it a better
"wetting agent" to get into pores and fissures rather than bridging them with surface tension.
Soaps and detergents further lower the surface tension.
Q12. Rock salt is often sprinkled on frozen roads and walkways to melt ice. This practice is
effective primarily because the salt:
(a) Decreases the freezing point of the water.
(b) Breaks the covalent bonds within the water molecules.
(c) Increases the temperature of the water.
(d) Eliminates the hydrogen bonds between the water molecules.
Answer : a
Sprinkling salt on ice makes it melt, which is why rock salt is used to make walkways and
roadways safer after a snowstorm. The reason it works is because it raises the melting point of
ice. At a molecular level, the rate of freezing is lowered below the (constant) rate of melting,
because the spacing between the water molecules is increased.
13 .Which of the following statements is right explanation about 'Oxygen toxicity' :(a) It is a medical condition caused by exposure to oxygen at high pressure.
(b) It is a medical condition caused by deficiency of oxygen at high altitude.
(c) It is a medical condition caused by deficiency of oxygen and exposure of carbon
monoxide.
(d) It is a medical condition caused by deficiency of oxygen and exposure of carbon
dioxide.
Answer : A
14. DNA is composed of which of the following?
1. Glucose
2. Amino Acids
3. Fatty Acids
4. Nucleotides
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only
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Answer: d
Most DNA molecules consist of two biopolymer strands coiled around each other to form a
double helix. The two DNA strands are known as polynucleotides since they are composed of
simpler units called nucleotides. Each nucleotide is composed of a nitrogen-containing
nucleobase—either guanine (G), adenine (A), thymine (T), or cytosine (C)—as well as a
monosaccharide sugar called deoxyribose and a phosphate group.
Q15. Which of the following statements is/are true about Ozone :1. Ozone is a blue gas.
2. It can be converted back into oxygen after oxidising process.
3. Ozone generators produce ozone by passing oxygen through an electrical field.
4. Ozone is used in disinfection.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : d
Ozone is a pale blue gas, slightly soluble in water and much more soluble in inert non-polar
solvents such as carbon tetrachloride or fluorocarbons, where it forms a blue solution.
Ozone is a powerful oxidizing agent, far stronger than O2.
It is also unstable at high concentrations, decaying to ordinary diatomic oxygen
06-03-2017
Economics: Monetary Policy and Fiscal Policy
Q1. Increasing Bank Rate by the RBI leads to:
1. More liquidity in the market
2. Less liquidity in the market
3. Increases investment in the economy
4. Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: C
Liquidity will decrease
Increases bank deposits since rate is high.
Q2. The situation of “liquidity trap” arises in an economy when
1. When injected money increases bond prices.
2. Interest rates are already very high.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : C
If the market rate of interest is already low enough so that everybody expects it to rise in
future, causing capital losses, nobody will wish to hold bonds. Everyone in the economy will
hold their wealth in money balance and if additional money is injected within the economy it
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will be used up to satiate people’s craving for money balances without increasing the demand
for bonds and without further lowering the rate of interest. Such a situation is called a liquidity
trap.
Q3. Which among the following is a suitable term for the state of economy in which economic
activity is slowing down but wages and prices continue to rise:
(a) Inflation (b) Deflation
(c) Skewflation (d) Stagflation
Answer: D
Q4. Which of the following is/are correct about crowding out effect in economy?
1. In this , private sector spending replaces public sector spending.
2. It occurs when interest rates are very high.
3. It occurs in contractionary fiscal policy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
1,2 and 3
d)
1 and 2 only
answer: b
In this, public sector spending replaces, or drives down, private sector spending.
It occurs in expansionary fiscal policy causing interest rates to rise, thereby reducing
investment spending.
Q5. Which of the following is/are correct about liquidity in the market?
1. It increases when repo rate increases.
2. It decreases when reverse repo rate increases
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer : b) 2 only
It decreases when repo rate increases.
Q6. With reference to ‘Monetary Policy Committee of India’ which of the following statements
is/are correct.
1. It is a six membered committee with the Governor of the RBI as the ex-officio chairman.
2. The members other than ex-officio members are appointed by Central Government for a
period of three years.
3. The Monetary Policy Committee would be entrusted with the task of fixing the
benchmark policy rate required to contain inflation within the specified target level.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: d
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The Members of the Monetary Policy Committee appointed by the Central Government shall
hold office for a period of four years, with immediate effect or until further orders, whichever is
earlier.
Monetary Policy Committee
The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016, to
provide for a statutory and institutionalised framework for a Monetary Policy Committee, for
maintaining price stability, while keeping in mind the objective of growth. The Monetary Policy
Committee would be entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate)
required to contain inflation within the specified target level. A Committee-based approach for
determining the Monetary Policy will add lot of value and transparency to monetary policy
decisions. The meetings of the Monetary Policy Committee shall be held at least 4 times a year
and it shall publish its decisions after each such meeting.
The provisions of the RBI Act relating to Monetary Policy have been brought into force through
a Notification in the Gazette of India Extraordinary on 27.6.2016. The factors constituting
failure to meet inflation target under the Monetary Policy Committee Framework have also been
notified in the Gazette on 27.6.2016. The Government, in consultation with RBI, has notified
the inflation target in the Gazette of India Extraordinary dated 5th August 2016 for the period
beginning from the date of publication of this notification and ending on the March 31, 2021,
as under:Inflation Target:
Upper tolerance level:
Lower tolerance level:
Four per cent.
Six per cent.
Two per cent.
As per the provisions of the RBI Act, out of the six Members of Monetary Policy Committee,
three Members will be from the RBI and the other three Members of MPC will be appointed by
the Central Government. In exercise of the powers conferred by section 45ZB of the Reserve
Bank of India Act, 1934, the Central Government has accordingly constituted, through a
Gazette Notification dated 29th Sept 2016, the Monetary Policy Committee of RBI, with the
following composition, namely:(a)
The Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;
(b)
Deputy Governor of the Bank, in charge of Monetary Policy—Member, ex officio;
(c)
One officer of the Bank to be nominated by the Central Board—Member, ex officio;
(d)
Shri Chetan Ghate, Professor, Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) —Member
(e)
Professor Pami Dua, Director, Delhi School of Economics (DSE) — Member
(f)
Dr. Ravindra H. Dholakia, Professor, Indian Institute of Management (IIM),
Ahmedabad— Member
Q7. Consider the following statements
1.
The rate of inflation at a slower rate is called reflation.
2.
The situation of coexistence of stagnation and inflation in the economy is known as
stagflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer: b) 2 only
Stagflation:
This is a condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment - a time of
stagnation - accompanied by a rise in prices, or inflation.
'Reflation'(deliberate action of government) :
A fiscal or monetary policy, designed to expand a country's output and curb the effects of
deflation.
The rate of inflation at a slower rate is called ‘disinflation’ .
Q8. With reference to ‘Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act’ which of the
following statements is/are correct.
1. It aims at eliminating both revenue deficit and fiscal deficit.
2. The act proposes a floating target in the range of 3- 5% for revenue deficit
Which among the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
● FRBM Act had the objective of ensuring prudence in fiscal management by eliminating
revenue deficit, REDUCING ( and not eliminating ) fiscal deficit, establishing improved
debt management and improving transparency in a medium term framework with
quantitative targets to be adhered by the state with regard to deficit measures and debt
management. The act was also expected to give necessary flexibility to Reserve Bank of
India(RBI) for managing inflation in India
● Target for revenue deficit is fixed at 3%
Q9. Which of these represents the correct order of the business cycle of a economy?
a) Inflation > boom > recession > recovery
b) Recovery > boom > inflation > recession
c) Recession > recovery > boom > inflation
d) Inflation > recovery > boom > recession
Answer: A
Q10. What is meant by 'debt trap'?
a) A situation in which an economy borrows to repay its past borrowings
b) A situation when an economy is borrowing more than its repaying of its past borrowing
c) A situation when an economy is borrowing to repay even the interest on its past
borrowing
d) A situation when the foreign currency reverses growth rate of an economy start lagging
behind the growth rate of its external borrowings
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Answer : c
Q11. Sterilization by RBI is an
a) Open market operation
b) Bank rate policy
c)
Deficit financing opearation
d) Change in SLR
Answer: D
Q12. Which of the following steps will increase the money supply in the economy?
1. The government adopting expansionary fiscal policy.
2. The RBI reducing the Repo rate.
3. The government cutting its expenditure on welfare measures.
4. The RBI buying bonds from the market.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1,2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: b
If the government cuts its expenditure then the money supply will reduce.
11.Consider the statements regarding Swachh Yug Campaign:
1. It aims to bring about behavioural change among people staying in villages along the
river Ganga.
2. Only e Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation and Ministry of Water Resources,
River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation is involved the the campaign
Which among the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
●
●
As part of its efforts to make villages located along Ganga open defecation-free,
Government has launched a campaign 'Swachh Yug'. It is a collaborative effort of three
Union Ministries, to bring about behavioural change among people staying in villages
along the river.
Ministries involved in campaign The Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation –
mission mode strategy to focus on cleanliness of village through proper solid and liquid
waste management. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports under the coordination of the
Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan, will enlist support of youth agencies like Bharat Scouts
and Guides, Nehru Yuva Kendras and National Service Scheme. Ministry of Water
Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation
12. Consider the statements regarding African Nuclear Weapon-Free Zone Treaty (ANWFZT)
1. The ANWFZT, also known as the Treaty of Pelindaba
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2. It aims at preventing nuclear proliferation and preventing strategic minerals of Africa
from being exported freely.
3. Namibia is not a member of ANWFZT, so it can export Uranium to India
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
● African Nuclear Weapon-Free Zone Treaty (ANWFZT) The ANWFZT, also known as the
Treaty of Pelindaba, is named after South Africa’s main Nuclear Research Centre.
Pelindaba was the location where South Africa’s atomic bombs of the 1970s were
developed, constructed and subsequently stored. The Pelindaba Treaty signed in 1996
aims at preventing nuclear proliferation and preventing strategic minerals of Africa from
being exported freely
● Namibia being a member of the African Nuclear Weapon-Free Zone Treaty (ANWFZT), it
is barred from trading in uranium with India, which is not a signatory of Nuclear NonProliferation Treaty (NPT).
13. Which among the following countries participate in Malabar Exercise?
1. India
2. U.S
3. U.K
4. China
5. Japan
6. Srilanka
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1,2, 4and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 6
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 6
Ans C
Exercise Malabar is a trilateral naval exercise involving the US, Japan and India as permanent
partners. Originally a bilateral exercise between India and the US, Japan became a permanent
partner in 2015.
14. Which of the following statements defines Hague Code of Conduct?
(a) It aims at controlling the technology transfer for nuclear delivering cruise missiles.
(b) It aims at reducing proliferation of Ballistic Missiles
(c) It aims at preventing use of any kind of bio weapons
(d) It is a supplementary code under umbrella Nuclear Non proliferation Treaty.
Ans: B
The International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation, also known as the
Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC), was established in 2002 to prevent the proliferation of ballistic
missiles. HCOC is voluntary, legally non-binding, preventing the spread of ballistic missiles
that can deliver weapons of mass destruction. India joined the HCOC on 1 June 2016. The
number of signatories of HCOC is 138. China, Pakistan, Israel and Iran have not joined the
voluntary regime yet
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15. Which of the following countries is/are members of Shanghai Cooperation Agreement?
1. India
2. Pakistan
3. Japan
4. China
5. Russia
6. Uzbekistan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2,3 and 5
(c) 1,2,4,5, and 6
(d) 1,2,4 and 5
Ans C
India and Pakistan became a member last year
07-03-2017
Economics Taxation and Public Finance
Q1. Which of the following are correct with respect to direct taxation?
1. Proportional taxation – in which the tax is charged at the fixed rate
2. Regressive taxation – where with the increasing income, the rate of taxation goes down
3. Progressive taxation – where with the increased income, the rate of taxation goes higher
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: a
Q2. Consider the following statements with regard to the budgeting techniques:
1. Zero base budgeting means that the government prepares its annual budget assuming
that there was no budget in the past i.e. the base is zero.
2. Outcome budgeting implies that total expenditure on a project is correlated not only
with the resultant physical output but also its fiscal outcome which is by and large a
qualitative aspect.
3. Gender budgeting means that there will be a separate budget for the Ministry of women
and child development.
Select the incorrect statement/statements using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only (d) None of the above
Answer: b
Gender Budgeting refers to taking into consideration the gender sensitivities while allocating
funds for various schemes and hence examining how the budget allocations effect the social
and economic opportunities of men and women.
Q3. Devaluation of a currency means
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a) reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded
currencies
b) permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
c) fixing the value of the currency in conjunction with the movement in the value of
a basket of predetermined currencies
d) fixing the value of a currency in multilateral consultation with the IMF, the
World Bank and major trading partners
answer: A
Q4. The sum of which of the following constitutes Broad Money in India ?
1. Currency with the Public
2. Demand deposits with banks
3. Time deposits with banks
4. Other deposits with RBI
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : D
M1(narrow money) = currency with the public + demand deposits+ other deposit held with the
R.B.I.
M2(intermediate money)= M1 + savings deposits with post office savings banks
M3(broad money) = M1 + time deposit
M4= M3 + total deposits with the post office savings organization.
Q5. Consider the following :
1. Market borrowing
2. Treasury bills
3. Special securities issued to RBI
Which of these is/are component(s) of internal debt ?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: a
Internal debt is that part of the total debt that is owed to lenders within the country. It is the
money the government borrows from its own citizens. The government borrows by issuing the
Government Bonds and T-Bills (Treasury Bills). It also includes the Market borrowings by the
government. The government bonds and T-Bills are traded in the market which is also known
as Gilt Market. When government borrows from the domestic sources, the increase in inflation
is less in comparison to simply printing the money.
Q6. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for
providing credit to the government ?
a) Cash Credit Ratio
b) Debt Service Obligation
c) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Answer: d
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SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio) is the ratio used by the RBI as a monetary tool. Banks prefer to
keep a part of the prescribed ratio in the form of treasury bills, thus financing the government’s
short term borrowing.
Q7. Which of the following are components of financial inclusion?
1. Branch expansion through opening new branches in rural areas.
2. Credit expansion by providing loans at low rates to the priority sector.
3. Deposit expansion through providing savings bank account to every adult citizen of
India.
Select the correct answer from the following codes:
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: a
Q8. In the context of RBI mooting the Idea of adopting Islamic Banking for financial inclusion,
consider the following statements about “Islamic Banking”
1. Islamic or Sharia banking is a finance system based on the principles of not charging
interest.
2. It promotes risk sharing .
3. Islamic banking is an example with banks having a zero percent reserve ratio.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 only
answer: c) 3 only
Islamic banking has the same purpose as conventional banking: to make money for the
banking institute by lending out capital. But that is not the sole purpose either. Adherence to
Islamic law and ensuring fair play is also at the core of Islamic banking. Because Islam forbids
simply lending out money at interest, Islamic rules on transactions (known as Fiqh alMuamalat) have been created to prevent this perceived evil. The basic principle of Islamic
banking is based on risk-sharing which is a component of trade rather than risk-transfer
which we see in conventional banking.
In theory, Islamic banking is an example of full-reserve banking, with banks achieving a 100%
reserve ratio. However, in practice, this is not the case, and no examples of 100 per cent
reserve banking are observed.
Q9. Consider the following liquid assets :
1. Demand deposits with the banks
2. Time deposits with the banks
3. Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
a) 1-4-3-2
b) 4-3-2-1
c) 2-3-1-4
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d) 4-1-3-2
Answer: d
Q10. Consider the following statements: In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are
1. levied and collected by the State Government
2. appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States
http://civils360.com/2017/03/06/taxation-in-india-upsc-prelims-mains/
Q11. Which one of the following statements regarding the levying, collecting and distribution of
Income Tax is correct ?
a) The Union levies, collects and distributes the proceeds of income-tax between itself and
the States
b) The Union levies, collects and keeps all the proceeds of income-tax to itself
c) The Union levies and collects the tax but all the proceeds are distributed among the
States
d) Only the surcharge levied on income-tax is shared between the Union and the States
Answer: a
http://civils360.com/2017/03/06/taxation-in-india-upsc-prelims-mains/
Q12. Consider the following taxes :
1. Corporation tax
2. Customs duty
3. Wealth tax
4. Excise duty
Which of these is/are indirect taxes ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: b
http://civils360.com/2017/03/06/taxation-in-india-upsc-prelims-mains/
Q13. . Which one of the following is the correct statement? Service Tax is a/an
a) Direct Tax levied by the Central Government
b) Indirect Tax levied by the Central Government
c) Direct Tax levied by the State Government
d) Indirect Tax levied by the Statement Government
Answer: b
http://civils360.com/2017/03/06/taxation-in-india-upsc-prelims-mains/
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Q14 . Consider the following statements: In India, taxes on transactions in Stock exchanges
and futures markets are
1. levied by the Union
2. Collected by the States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Securities transaction tax is a direct tax and is levied and collected by the Union.
http://civils360.com/2017/03/06/taxation-in-india-upsc-prelims-mains/
Q15. Shishu, Kishor and Tarun are the schemes of:
a) Regional Rural Banks.
b) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd. (MUDRA).
c) Small Industries Development Bank of India.
d) Industrial Development Bank of India.
Answer: b
The primary product of MUDRA will be refinance for lending to micro businesses / units under
the aegis of the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana. The initial products and schemes under this
umbrella have already been created and the interventions have been named ‘Shishu’, ‘Kishor’
and ‘Tarun’ to signify the stage of growth / development and funding needs of the beneficiary
micro unit / entrepreneur as also provide a reference point for the next phase of graduation /
growth for the entrepreneur to aspire for:
·
Shishu: covering loans upto Rs. 50,000/·
Kishor: covering loans above Rs. 50,000/- and upto Rs. 5 lakh
·
Tarun: covering loans above Rs. 5 lakh and upto Rs. 10 lakh
March 08: Economics External Sector and International Organisations
Q1. The main function of the IMF is to
a. arrange international deposits from banks
b. help to solve balance of payments problems of member countries
c. act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
d. finance investment to developing countries
Q2. Which of the following constitute the World Bank ?
1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
2. International Finance Corporation
3. International Development Association
4. International Monetary Fund.
5. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
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Answer : c
The World Bank Group consists of five organizations:
● The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) lends to governments of
middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
● The International Development Association
The International Development Association (IDA) provides interest-free loans — called credits —
and grants to governments of the poorest countries.
● Together, IBRD and IDA make up the World Bank.
● The International Finance Corporation
The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is the largest global development institution
focused exclusively on the private sector. We help developing countries achieve sustainable
growth by financing investment, mobilizing capital in international financial markets, and
providing advisory services to businesses and governments.
● The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) was created in 1988 to promote foreign
direct investment into developing countries to support economic growth, reduce poverty, and
improve people’s lives. MIGA fulfills this mandate by offering political risk insurance
(guarantees) to investors and lenders.
● The International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
The International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) provides international
facilities for conciliation and arbitration of investment disputes.
Q3. Consider the following statements about Regional Economic Comprehensive Partnership
(RCEP), which is in news frequently
1. RCEP is the proposed mega-regional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between 16 AsiaPacific countries.
2. It includes India, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand and the 10member ASEAN bloc.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer :c
Q4. Consider the following statements :
The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
1. World Bank.
2. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned.
3. stability of the government of the concerned country.
4. economic potential of the country in question.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: a
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Q5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I
List II
I. WTO (A) Provides loans to address short-term balance of payment problems
II. IDA
(B) Multi-lateral trade negotiation body
III. IMF (C) Sanction of soft loans
IV. IBRD
(D) Facilitating lendings and borrowings for reconstruction and
development
a) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
b) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
c) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
d) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
Answer: b
Q6. Global Financial Stability Report is prepared by the
a) European Central Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
c) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
d) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
Answer: b
Q7. The World Bank was created immediately after the Second World War. Its activities are
focused on the developing countries. Which among the following are the activities of the Bank?
1. Human development rural
2. Agriculture and development
3. Environmental protection and governance
4. Loans and grants to the member countries
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: b
Q8. The balance of payment of a country is a systematic record of
a) All import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time,
normally a year
b) Goods exported from a country during a year
c) Economic transaction between the government of one country to another
d) Capital movements from one country to another
Answer: a
Q9 . Consider the following statements :
1. Capital Account Convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies that the Indian Rupee
can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading financial
assets
2. Convertibility of the rupee implies freely permitting the conversion of rupee to
other major currencies and vice versa
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
answer: C
Q10. A rise in ‘SENSEX’ means
a) a rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange
b) a rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with National Stock Exchange
c) an overall rise in prices of shares of group of companies registered with Bombay Stock
Exchange
d) a rise in prices of shares of all companies belonging to a group of companies registered with
Bombay Stock Exchange
Answer: c
Q11. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest
Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Chemicals other than fertilisers
Services sector
Food processing
Telecommunication
Answer: b
http://civils360.com/2017/03/08/foreign-direct-investment-fdi-in-india-ias/ – please do read
this
Q12. India has the maximum volume of foreign trade with
a.
USA
b.
Japan
c.
Germany
d.
UAE
Answr: a
Q13. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from
many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why?
a.
India has preference, for certain countries as regards receiving FDI
b.
India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius
c.
Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to
invest in India
d.
Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge
investments in India
Answer: b
India has a double tax avoidance treaty with Mauritius. Investors from Mauritius are exempted
from tax in India and the tax rates are very low in Mauritius. So it is favourable for investors to
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get registered in Mauritius and then invest in India as an entity from Mauritius. This
investment is not from Mauritius but through Mauritius
Q14. With reference to the foreign trade of India arrange the following commodities in the
descending order of their exports.
1. Pearl, precious , semiprecious stones
2. Petroleum products
3. Gold and other precious metal jewelry
4. Automobiles
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4, 3
d. 2, 1, 4, 3
Answer: b
Q15. Which of the following sectors allows 100% Foreign Direct Investment ( FDI) through
automatic route?
1. Mining (Coal and Lignite)
2. Publication of newspaper and periodicals dealing with news and current affairs
3. Greenfield Airport Projects
4. Asset Reconstruction Companies
5. Lottery Business
6. Manufacturing of tobacco substitutes
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 3, 4 and 6 only
Answer: c
http://civils360.com/2017/03/08/foreign-direct-investment-fdi-in-india-ias/
09-03-2017
Medieval India - Early Medieval ( Rajput , Chola etc)
Q1. With reference to Aihole inscription , consider the following statements:
1. It gives details about the chalukyan king Pulikeshi II
2. It was composed by Ravikirti and name of Kalidasa was mentioned in that
inscription
3. It gives the details about the war between Harshavardhana and Pulikeshi II in
which Harshavardhana defeated Pulikeshi II.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: c
The war was held in 619AD between Harsha and Pulikeshi II , Pulikeshi defeated Harsha.
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Q2. Nastaliq was
a) a Persian script used in medieval India
b) a raga composed by Tansen
c) a cess levied by the Mughal rulers
d) a manual of code of conduct for the Ulemas
answer: a
Nastaliq and shikaste are two Persian scripts. The nastaliq style is cursive and easy to read,
the shikaste is denser and more difficult.
Q3. One consistent feature found in the history of southern India was the growth of small
regional kingdoms rather than large empires because of
a) the absence of minerals like iron
b) too many divisions in the social structure
c) the absence of vast areas of fertile land
d) the scarcity of manpower
answer: c
Q4. Which of the statements given below are correct about the age of Harshavardhana?
1. Most of the understanding about the age is from Hiuen tsang's work
2. Forced labour was a common practice
3. Harsha gave grants to both Hindus and Buddhists but later became more inclined
towards Buddhism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: d
According to Hiuen Tsang's work, there was no forced labour.
Q5 . Which of the following are correct about Rajputs?
1. Rajputs were strictly Hindus and didn't patronize other religions
2. Child marriage and polygamy was practiced by Rajputs
3. Regional languages - Marathi, Gujarati and Bengali were well developed during their
time
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B
The Rajputs were staunch followers of Hinduism. They also patronized Buddhism and Jainism.
It was during their period that the Bhakti Cult started
Q6. Which of the following is/are correct about Imperial Cholas?
1. The later Cholas were well-versed in maintaining and auditing of accounts
2. Free hospitals were set up by them at many places
3. Empire of Rajaraja I extended upto Maldives
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D
Q7. Consider the following statements about Prithviraj Chauhan
1. His capital was located at Ajayameru
2. In second Tarain war he was defeated
3. Prithviraj Raso, written by Chand Bardai, gives details about chauhan dynasty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
The Chauhans were historically a powerful group in the region of present Rajasthan.Prithvirāja
III (reign. c. 1178–1192 CE ), popularly known as Prithviraj Chauhan or Rai Pithora in the folk
legends, was an Indian king from the Chahamana (Chauhan) dynasty. He controlled much of
the present-day Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi and some parts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar
Pradesh. His capital was located at Ajayameru (modern Ajmer). In 1192 CE, the Ghurids
decisively defeated Prithviraj at the Second battle of Tarain. His defeat at Tarain is seen as a
landmark event in the Islamic conquest of India.
the Prithviraj Raso was composed by Chand Bardai, Prithviraj's court poet (raj kavi), who
accompanied the king in all his battles.
Q8. Consider the following statements about Muslim Invaders to India
1. Mahmud of Ghazni is the first Muslim Invader to India
2. Mahmud of Ghazni invaded India seventeen times.
3. Mahmud of Ghazni established his territory in northern India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 only
1. Muhammad Bin Qasim is the first Muslim Invader to India
3. Mahmud of Ghazni had no territorial ambitions. He came only for money.
Q9. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. Chachnama
- Abu Bakr
2. Sha Nama
- Al Beruni
3. Kitab Ul Hind
- Firdausi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only
Answer: d
Sha Nama
- Firdausi
Kitab Ul Hind
- Al Beruni
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Q10 .With reference to several categories of land during Chola period, Which of the following
pair/pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. Tirunamattukkani- land of non-Brahmana peasant proprietors
2. Pallichchhandam - land for the maintenance of a school
3. Vellanvagai
- land of non-Brahmana peasant proprietors
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : c
Chola inscriptions mention several categories of land.
Vellanvagai -land of non-Brahmana peasant proprietors
Brahmadeya -land gifted to Brahmanas
Shalabhoga -land for the maintenance of a school
devadana, tirunamattukkani -land gifted to temples
pallichchhandam -land donated to Jaina institutions
Q11.Which train safety system will be launched by the Indian Railways to avoid train
accidents?
a. Tri-Safety
b. Tri-Netra
c. Tri-Network
d. Tri-Veil
Answer: b
The Terrain Imaging for Diesel Drivers- Infrared Enhanced Optical and Radar Assisted (TriNETRA) system will be launched by the Indian Railways to avoid train accidents. The device
uses infrared and radar technology to collect signals up to a distance of 2-3 km and displays
the information on a screen fitted inside the locomotive. This will give ample time for the driver
to apply the brakes. The tri-netra device will alert the drivers of any physical obstruction on
railway tracks ahead and thus prevent train accidents. It will be very useful during fog, heavy
rain and nights, when drivers have to constantly look outside the locomotive to judge the
condition.
Q12. The book “Who Moved My Interest Rate?” has been authored by whom?
a. C. Rangarajan
b. Raghuram Rajan
c. D Subbarao
d. Y. V. Reddy
Answer: c. D Subbarao
The book “Who Moved My Interest Rate?: Leading the Reserve Bank of India Through Five
Turbulent Years” has been authored by Duvvuri Subbarao. The book is an insider’s account of
the problems and complexities Subbarao confronted while leading the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) through the extraordinary economic and political challenges. This is also a compelling
chronicle of Subbarao’s attempts to demystify the RBI and explain to the public its impact on
their everyday lives.
Q13. India’s first-ever Water Metro project has been launched in which of the following cities?
a. New Delhi
b. Kochi
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c. Chandigarh
d. Jaipur
Answer: b
India’s first-ever Water Metro project “Kochi Water Metro project” has been launched by the
Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan at Kochi. The purpose of the project is to provide water
connectivity to people living between islands in the Kochi agglomeration area and the city. The
new boats which will be procured for this project will provide the same transportation
experience as the Metro, and will be called ‘Water Metros’.
Q14. ‘Global wage report 2016-17’ was published by
a. World Bank
b. International Labour Organisation
c. International Monetary Fund
d. UNTCD
Answer: b
Q15. ‘FARC’ rebellion, which was in news recently, is related to
a) Chile
b) Chad
c) Colombia
d) China
answer -c) FARC (Fuerzas Armadas Revolucionarias de Colombia)
10/03/2017
Medieval India Sultanate period and religious movements
Q1. Which of the following steps were taken by Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad Tughluq to
prevent Mongol attacks?
1. Both raised large standing army.
2. Both created new garrison town.
3. Both paid soldiers in cash.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Only Alauddin constructed constructed a new garrison town named Siri for his soldiers.
Only Alauddin’s administrative measures were quite successful and chroniclers praised his
reign for its cheap prices and efficient supplies of goods in the market.He successfully
withstood the threat of Mongol invasions.
Q2. Which of the following is/are incorrect statement(s) about Bhakti movement?
1. Originated out of devotion of a single soul to a personal god
2. There is an influence of folk elements in its origin
3. Offshoots Shaivism, Vaishnaivism, Shaktism had no link with orthodox Brahminism
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4.
Sects of Bhakti developed mutually exclusively with Jainism and Buddhism in the
country
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: c
Sects developed in bhakti movement which were considered as the components of orthodox
brahminism, these sects in the course of time came to have a significant impact on buddhism
and jainism
Q3. Which of the following is/are correct about Sufis?
1. Devotion to God.
2. Rejected rituals.
3. Used Singing and Dancing to preach
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a
Q4. Which of the following is/are correct about Kabir?
1. He rejected Brahmanical Hinduism and Islam.
2. He believed in a formless Supreme God.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Q5. Which of the following is/are correct about Firoz Tughluq's reign?
1. He taxed Muslims.
2. Employment Bureau was established.
3. He abolished Jizya
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer : c
He collected four important taxes such as
Kharaj-1/10 of the produce of the land,
Khams-1/5 of the warbooty,
Jizya-Poll Tax
Zakat-Tax on muslims for specific religious purposes.
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Q6. Which of the following is/are correct about Iltutmish ?
1. He introduced Arabic coinage.
2. He was slave to Qutb-ud-din Aibak.
3. He nominated his daughter ‘Raziah’ as successor
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a
Q7 . Fawazil in the Sultanate period meant
a. extra payment made to the nobles
b. revenue assigned in lieu of salary
c. excess amount paid to the exchequer by the iqtadars
d. illegal exactions extracted from the peasants
Answer: c
Q8 . The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India was
a. Iltutmish
b. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
c. Feroz Shah Tughlaq
d. Sikandar Lodi
Answer: c
Q9 . Which of the following were the features of Bhakti movement?
1. Oneness of God
2. Brotherhood of all human beings
3. Surrender into God
4. Personal devotion to God
5. Showed path to Moksha
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Answer: a
A true devotee does not want heaven or moksha. He only wants to chant the Lord’s name and
be born again and again to sing His praise.
Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. Amir Khusrau was a contemporary of Ala-ud-din Khilji.
2. Amir Khusrau invented the musical instrument Sitar.
3. Amir Khusrau was the originator in India of the early form of the musical style known
as Qawali.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
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b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Q11. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Afghan rulers to the
throne of Delhi?
A. Sikandar Shah – Ibrahim Lodi – Bahlol Khan Lodi
B. Sikandar Shah – Bahlol Khan Lodi – Ibrahim Lodi
C. Bahlol Khan Lodi – Sikandar Shah – Ibrahim Lodi
D. Bahlol Khan Lodi – Ibrahim Lodi – Sikandar Shah
Answer: c
Q12. Which is first State in the country to set up a ‘Happiness Department’?
a. Kerala
b. Maharashtra
c. Telangana
d. Madhya Pradesh
Answer : d
Madhya Pradesh recently became the first State in the country to set up a ‘Happiness
Department’, on the lines of the neighbouring country Bhutan.
A panel of experts will be formed in the newly-constituted department which will give
suggestions to ensure happiness in the lives of the people.
Gross National happiness of Bhutan
The Gross National Happiness (GNH) index was proposed by Bhutan in 1971 to champion a
novel approach to measure prosperity by measuring spiritual, physical, social and
environmental well-being of its citizens and environment.
Q13. Logistics Performance Index (LPI) released by ?
a) World Economic Forum
b) World Bank
c) United Nations Industrial Development Organization
d) World Trade Organsation
Answer: b
The World Bank Group recently launched its bi-annual report ‘Connecting to Compete 2016:
Trade Logistics in the Global Economy’.
LPI is a measure that captures the relative ease and efficiency with which products can be
moved into and within a country
Q14 . Consider the following pairs :
1. Project Loon
- Google
2. White-Fi
- Microsoft
3. Aquila project - Facebook
Which of the pairs given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
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Q15. Which of the following are the components of Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired
Research (INSPIRE) ?
1. Scheme for Early Attraction of Talent
2. Scholarship for Higher Education
3. Assured Opportunity for Research Careers.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer : a
The programme aims to attract talent towards the excitement and study of science at an early
age and to build the critical resource required for expanding the S&T system and the R&D
base. The programme has three components:
Scheme for Early Attraction of Talent
Scholarship for Higher Education
Assured Opportunity for Research Careers.
11-March
Medieval India :Mughals , Maratha etc
Q1. Which of the following is/are correct about Mughal Empire?
1. The eldest son inherited his father’s estate.
2. Afghans were an immediate threat to Mughal authority.
3. Peasant revolts were absent in the Mughal Empire.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: b
The Mughals did not believe in the rule of primogeniture, where the eldest son inherited his
father’s estate. Instead they followed the Mughal and Timurid custom of coparcenary
inheritance, or a division of the inheritance amongst all the sons.
Peasant revolts challenged the stability of the Mughal Empire from the end of the seventeenth
century
Q2. Which of the following is/are correct about Babur?
1. Babur was invited to invade India.
2. Babur introduced the Ryotwari System.
3. The victory at Panipat initiated establishment of Mughal empire in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: a)
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Babur received invitations from Alam Khan, the uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and Daulat Khan Lodi,
the Governor of Punjab, to invade India.
Sher Shah Suri introduced the Ryotwari System.
The victory at Panipat initiated establishment of Mughal empire in India. He had to deal with a
formidable foe, Rana Sanga of Mewar. Rana Sanga was defeated in the battle of Kanwah in A.D
1527. Medini Rai of Malwa was defeated in the battle of Chanderi in A.D 1528.
Q3. Which of the following events happened during reign of Jahangir?
1. Souring of relations between mughals and sikhs
2. First Visit by East India Company to India
3. Building of Jahangiri palace
4. Setting up of chain of justice
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
answer : b
Jahangiri palace was built by Akbar for his rajput wives
Q4. Which of the following statements about Sher Shah Suri is/are correct?
1. He appointed Afghan soldiers in higher post.
2. He introduced "branding of horses".
3. The espionage system was widely prevalent before his time.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
He appointed the Afghan soldiers in higher posts.
Alauddin Khalji introduced the Dagh" system (or) "branding the horses" to avoid false musters.
He also maintained a descriptive roll for the soldiers.
Shershah revived the Dak-chauki, the espionage system
Q5. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Akbar?
1. He was tolerant towards other religions.
2. Akbar’s nobles commanded large armies.
3. Subedar carried out political functions only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Subadar carried out both political and military functions
Q6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
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1.
2.
3.
Select
Mughal queens never controlled significant financial resources.
Mughal Emperors only married girls from royal families.
Rajputs united with Mughals through marriage nexus.
the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 3 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
1. After Nur Jahan, Mughal queens and princesses began to control significant financial
resources.
2. Wives who were not of noble birth were called aghas
Q7. Which of the following is/are correct about Shivaji's rule?
1. Families of soldiers got pension after their death
2. Women also participated in military camps
3. Land revenue was the only mode of taxation
4. Shivaji abolished Zamindari system
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1,2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: a
His land revenue system resembled the system followed by Raja Todar Mal under Akbar. The
state also collected custom duties and professional taxes. The two other important taxes
collected during his time were Chauth and Sardeshmuki.
Women were not allowed in military camps
Q8. Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Hindus were in state service during Aurangzeb's intolerant reign.
2. Aurangzeb's Deccan policy led to the beginning of fall of the Mughal empire
3. Aurangzeb showed favors to both Shia and Sunni muslims
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
He disliked not only the non-muslims but also Shia muslims. He reimposed Jizya, a tax on the
non-muslims and pilgrimage tax. He took away all the Hindus from the state service.
Q9. The capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was
A. Amritsar
B. Patiala
C. Lahore
D. Kapurthala
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Answer: c
Q10. Ashtapradhan was a Council of Ministers
A. in the Gupta Administration
B. in the Chola Administration
C. in the Vijayanagar Administration
D. in the Maratha Administration
Answer : D
The Ashta Pradhan (also termed Asta Pradhad or the Council of 8) was a council of eight
ministers that administered the Maratha empire. The council was formed in 1674 by their king,
Chatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
ministerial roles were as follows:
Pantpradhan or Peshwa - Prime Minister, general administration of the Empire.
Amatya or Mazumdar - Finance Minister, managing accounts of the Empire.
Sacheev - Secretary, preparing royal edicts.
Mantri - Interior Minister, managing internal affairs especially intelligence and espionage.
Senapati - Commander-in-Chief, managing the forces and defense of the Empire
Q11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
A. Jahangir : William Hawkins
B. Akbar : Sir Thomas Roe
C. Shahjahan : Travernier
D. Aurangzeb : Manucci
Answer: b
Sir Thomas Roe : Jahangir
Q12. ‘NETWORK READINESS INDEX’ was released by?
a) World Bank
b) World Economic Forum
c) World Trade Organisation
d) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
Answer: b
India was placed at 91st position in the recently released 2016 Networked Readiness Index
(NRI) by the Geneva based World Economic Forum (WEF)
Q13. Consider the following statements about Gwadar port
1. Gwadar Port is developed by China in Iran
2. It Is Part of CPEC corridor, a component of China’s One Belt One road policy
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: b
It is in Pakisthan
Q14. Consider the following statements about “Rohingya”, which are in news frequently
1. The Rohingyas are an ethnic Muslim minority group living primarily in Myanmar’s
western Rakhine state.
2. They are not accepted as citizens of Myanmar by the government of Myanmar.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Q15. Consider the following statements about Loktak lake.
1. The Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only floating park in the world located in Lokatak
lake.
2. Manipur’s state animal Sangai deer is endemic to this region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
13-03-2017
Polity : Parliament II
Q1. Consider the following statements
1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affaris constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of
both the Houses of Parliament.
2. The main purpose of these Committees are to provide a forum for formal discussions
between the Government and Members of Parliament on polices and programmes of the
Government.
3. Members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts,
Public Undertakings, Estimates.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
a)
1, ,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: c
While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, Members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
Q2. Survey of India is under the Ministry of
a) Defence
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b) Environment and forests
c) Home Affairs
d) Science and Technology
Answer: d
Q3. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as “municipal
relations” ?
a. Centre’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
b. Centre’s control of the State in financial matters
c. Centre’s control of the State in the administrative sector
d. Centre’s control of the State in the planning process
Answer : d
Q4. Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various elections in India ?
1. System of direct elections on the basis of adult suffrage.
2. System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
3. List system of proportional representation.
4. Cumulative system of indirect elections.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: a
Q5. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha ?
a. Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
b. Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
c. Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
d. Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
Answer: d
Q6. Consider the following statements :
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of
that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right
in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice
President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : b) 2 only
Dy. Chairman is the member of Rajya Sabha
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Q7. Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a
Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her?
1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid.
2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid.
3. The candidate lost the polls but secured 1 /6th of the total number of valid votes polled
in that election.
4. The candidate was elected, but he did not poll more than 1/6th of the total valid votes
polled by all the candidates.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Conditions for Return
The deposit made by a candidate shall be returned if the following conditions are satisfied:(i) the candidate is not shown in the list of contesting candidates, that is to say, either his
nomination was rejected or after his nomination was accepted, he withdrew his candidature;or
(ii) he dies before the commencement of the poll; or
(iii) he is elected; or
(iv) he is not elected but gets more than 1/6th of the total no.of valid votes polled by all the
candidates at the election.
N.B (1) If the candidate has polled exactly 1/6th of the total number of valid votes
polled by all the candidates, the deposit will not be refunded.
(2) if the candidate was elected, the deposit will be refunded even if he did not poll more
than 1/6th of the total valid votes polled by all the candidates.
Q8. Which one of the following statements is correct ? The Prime Minister of India
a) is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House
of the Parliament
b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this
regard
c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the
discretionary power vested with the President of India
Answer: c
Q9. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under
Article 108 of the Constitution
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. Joint sitting can be called for constitutional amendments bills also
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
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d) 1 only
Answer ; c
As per Article 108 of Constitution, a Joint session of Parliament can be summoned in the
following situations.
If after a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House—
(a) the Bill is rejected by the other House; or
(b) the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill; or
(c) more than six months elapse from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House
without the Bill being passed by it, the President may, unless the Bill has elapsed by reason of
a dissolution of the House of the People, notify to the Houses by message if they are sitting or
by public notification if they are not sitting, his intention to summon them to meet in a joint
sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill
However, in calculating period of six months, those days are not considered when house is
prorogued or adjourned for more than 4 consecutive days.
If the above conditions are satisfied, the President of India may summon joint sitting of both
the houses of parliament.
Not all bills can be refereed to a joint sitting of Parliament. There are two exception.
1. Money Bill
Under the Constitution of India, money bills require approval of the Lok Sabha only. Rajya
Sabha can make recommendations to Lok Sabha, which it is not required to accept. Even if
Rajya Sabha doesn't pass a money bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by
both the Houses of Parliament after expiry of the above period. Therefore, a requirement to
summon a joint session can never arise in the case of money bill.
2. Constitution Amendment Bill
Article 368 of Indian constitution require that constitution of India can be amended by both
houses of parliament by 2/3 majority. In case of disagreement between both houses, there is
no provision to summon joint session of parliament.
Joint session of Indian parliament has been called for only three bills
Dowry Prohibition Act (1961)
The Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978)
The Prevention of Terrorist Activities Act (2002)
Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on
prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic
dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even
if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House
and until ‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a
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Q11 .Druzhba-2016 was in news recently.It is a military exercise between
a) India –Russia
b) India-Sri Lanka
c) Russia-Pakistan
d) China-Russia
Answer: c
First,Russia-Pakistan, military exercise,Druzhba-2016 (Friendship-2016)
Q12. Which country in India’s neighbourhood was declared malaria-free by WHO recently
a) Sri Lanka
b) Bangladesh
c) Myanmar
d) Maldives
Answer: a
Q13. India recently hosted the Golden jubilee celebrations of
a) United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL)
b) United Nations Development program (UNDP)
c) The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
d) The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
Asnwer: a
Q14. Consider the following statements about e-Pashuhaat portal
1. It will provide information related to certification of the animal, breeding, its picture,
volume of milk given by the cow etc.
2. It will facilitate farmers to purchase advanced breed of bovine animals at a reasonable
price as per as their requirements
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
e-pashuhaat – Web Portal
Aims and Objectives:
•
E-Trading Market portal for livestock germplasm and additional related services.
•
Will connect farmers with breeders - Central, State, Co-operative, Milk Federations, and
private agencies.
•
Real time authentic certified information on availability of germplasm.
Details of the Portal
Exclusive site for farmers as Farmers platform
•
The Farmers platform on the main menu of the website will provide
•
3 options in Germplasm marketplace for Animals, Frozen Semen and Embryos
•
List of suppliers
•
It will establish links between “farmer to farmer” and “farmer to Institutes”.
Targeted Outcomes For Farmers :
•
One stop portal for bovine breeders, sellers and buyers.
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•
Creating and Comparative Farm Network
•
Making Farmers exchange local knowledge and resources
•
Availability of disease free germplasm with known genetic merit.
•
Minimizes the involvement of middlemen.
•
Increase in farmers’ incomes.
Targeted Outcomes
For Government: Central/States/UT
•
Programme oversight in real-time with greater transparency
•
Zero cost for States for Transportal creation
•
Demand and supply position of various items
•
Monitoring and evaluation reports generation
•
Sire Directory /Annual Report generation
•
Repository and aggregator of both public and private sector services
•
Evidence based Policy support information for decisions.
–
Forecasting and Targeting Production Plan for Nation
–
Targeted Genetic Development
–
Assessing need for Infrastructure and Education
•
Global recognition for using data mining and analytics
•
Capacity building at all levels.
Q15. Consider the following statements about Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) for fertilisers
1. The proposed DBT will address the issues relating to diversion and smuggling of urea.
2. The DBT being implemented in fertilizer subsidy payment is slightly different from the
normal DBT being implemented in LPG subsidy.
3. Under the proposed system, 100% subsidy on various fertilizer grades shall be released
to the manufacturers and importers on the basis of actual sales made by the retailer to
the beneficiaries.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a
14-03-2017
Polity: State Executive
Q1. Which of the following constitute State Executive.
1. Governor
2. Chief minister
3. Council of minister
4. Advocate General
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
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b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Q2. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term
of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be
deduced from this ?
1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer: d
Q3. Consider the following statements :
1. The Governor shall take oath or affirmation before entering upon his office.
2. The format of oath or affirmation is given in the Third schedule of Indian Constitution.
3. The Governor shall make and subscribe the oath or affirmation in the presence of Chief
Justice of the High Court or in his absence senior most judge - of that Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: a
Q4. Consider the following statements
1. Governor is appointed by president on the advice of council of minister.
2. President to consult the Chief Minister of the concerned state, before appointment of
the Governor is a constitutional requirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer: 1 only
President to consult the Chief Minister of the concerned state, before appointment of the
Governor is not a constitutional requirement.
Q5. Which of the following is/are the qualifications for appointment as Governor.
1. He or she must be a citizen of India
2. He or she must have completed 30 years of age
3. He or she must not be a member of the either house of the parliament or house of the
state legislature.
4. He or she must not hold any other office of profit.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
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d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c
He or she must have completed 35 years of age
Q6. Which of the following is/are the executive powers of Governor.
1. Appoints the Council of Ministers including the Chief Minister of the state, the Advocate
General and the members of the State Public Service Commission
2. Removes the members of the State Public Service Commission
3. Appoints of the Judges of the state High Court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 3 only
answer: c
● The Governor has the power to appoint the Council of Ministers including the Chief
Minister of the state, the Advocate General and the members of the State Public Service
Commission. However, the Governor cannot remove the members of the State Public
Service Commission as they can only be removed by an order of the President.
● The Governor is consulted by the President in the appointment of the Judges of the
state High Court.
● The Governor appoints Judges of the District Courts.
● In case the Governor feels that the Anglo-Indian community has not been adequately
represented in the Vidhan Sabha, he or she can nominate one member of the
community to the Legislative Assembly of the state.
● In all the states where a bicameral legislature is present, the Governor has a right to
nominate the members, who are “persons having special knowledge or practical
experience in matters such as literature, science, art, co-operative movement and social
service”, to the Legislative Council.
Q7. Which of the following statements regarding schedule five of the constitution is/are
correct?
1. Governor is empowered to notify that an act of parliament is not applicable to a
‘schedule area’.
2. Amendment to fifth schedule is deemed to be an amendment under article 368.
3. Governor declares a specified part of state as ‘schedule area’.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Under section 5 of the schedule 5, “the Governor may by public notification direct that any
particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled
Area”.
Section 7(2) of the schedule provides that law to amend schedule five shall not deemed to be an
amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of article 368.
President may by order declare an area to be ‘Scheduled area’.
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Q8. Which of the following is/are the discretionary powers of the Governor.
1. When no party gets a clear majority, the governor can use his discretion in the selection
of chief ministerial candidate to prove the majority as soon as possible.
2. He can withhold his assent to a money bill and send it to the president for his approval.
3. During an emergency rule per Article 353, governor can override the advice of the
council of ministers if specifically permitted by the president only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: d
•
He can withhold his assent to a bill and send it to the president for his approval , if it is
not a money bill.
Q9. Consider the following statements about The Governor ;
1. The Governor can independently recommend to the President for a proclamation of
emergency under Article 356 in the State.
2. He can dissolve the State legislature and dismiss the State Ministry without even
waiting for the consent of the President.
3. A governor of a state may be appointed as the administrator of an adjoining union
territory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) (d) 1 and 2 only
Answer : a
•
The Governor informs the President in an official report, of a particular emergency
arisen in the state, and imposes ‘President’s Rule’ on the behalf of the President. The Governor,
in such circumstances, overrides the advice or functions of the Council of Ministers, and
directs upon himself, the workings of the state.
Q10. Consider the following statements about The Governor of States :
1. The Governor can summon, Prorogue and dissolve both houses of the State
Legislature.
2. The Governor is the Ex-Officio chairman of the State Legislative Council.
3. The Governor of States are immune from writ of mandamus.
4. The Chief Minister causes to lay the annual budget in the State Assembly with the
prior consent of the Governor of States.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: d
Governor cannot dissolve legislative council.
Governor is not ex-officio chairman of LC and is immune from Mandamus.
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Governor causes to lay the annual budget .
Q11. Consider the following statements about Advocate General :
1. The Advocate General can participate in proceedings of the state legislature with the
right to vote
2. The Governor of the state appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of
the Judge of the High Court to be Advocate General
3. He appears before various courts in cases involving the state that he represents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: b
● The Advocate General can participate in proceedings of the state legislature without the
right to vote
Q12. Which of the following has become first Baltic Country to link with China’s OBOR
initiative?
a) Latvia
b) Estonia
c) Lithuania
d) Finland
Latvia has become the first country in the Baltic Sea area to sign a Memorandum of
Understanding to link up with China's One Belt and One Road (OBOR) Initiative. The MoU was
signed after Chinese Premier Li Keqiang's meeting with his Latvian counterpart Maris
Kucinskis in Riga (capital of Latvia).
Q13. Apatani Tribe are inhabitants of which state?
a) Assam
b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Meghalaya
d) Mizoram
Q14. Which of the following states have been declared as Open Defecation Free (ODF) states
under the Swachh Bharath Mission (Gramin) ?
1. Kerala
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Sikkim
4. Gujarat
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1,2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a
Q15. Pusa Arhar 16, in news recently is a
a. Wheat variety
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b. Pulse variety
c. Rice variety
d. Maize variety
Answer: b
March 15: State Legislature
Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Money bill of a state cannot be reserved for the consideration of the president.
2. In certain cases, governor needs sanction of president for promulgating an ordinance.
3. President can proclaim President’s rule only on the report of the governor.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 Only (b) 1 and 2 Only
(c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1 Only
Answer: a
Governor has three options regarding money bill –
·
give assent to the bill
·
withhold his/her assent to the bill
·
may reserve the bill for the consideration of the president.
Governor cannot make an ordinance without the instructions from the president in three
cases:
if a bill containing same provisions would have required the previous sanction of the president
for its introduction into the state legislature
if he would have deemed it necessary to reserve a bill containing the same provisions for the
consideration of the president
if an act of the state legislature containing the same provisions would have been invalid
without receiving the president’s assent.
Under article 356, president can proclaim president’s rule on receipt of a report from the
Governor of a State or otherwise.
Q2. Project Saksham is related to ?
a)improving secondary education standards
b) Indirect Tax Network of the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC)
c)training and skill enhancement programme for Divyang children
d)rehabilitation programme for rescued bonded labourers
answer: B
‘Project SAKSHAM’, a New Indirect Tax Network (Systems Integration) of the Central Board of
Excise and Customs (CBEC).
It will help in:
•
implementation of Goods and Services Tax (GST),
•
extension of the Indian Customs Single Window Interface for Facilitating Trade (SWIFT)
and
•
other taxpayer-friendly initiatives under Digital India and Ease of Doing Business of
Central Board of Excise and Customs.
Q3. Which of the following Statements is not correct?
(a) The President has the power to instruct the Governor of a State to promulgate an Ordinance
applicable to the concerned state.
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(b) The President can issue directions for the formation of Tribal Councils even in States not
having Scheduled Areas.
(c) The President has the final legislative power to make regulations relating to Puducherry.
(d) Article 365 paves the way for the President to assume to himself any of the Governmental
powers of the State.
Answer: c
Pondicherry has Legislative Asembly.
Q4. Which of the following are correct with respect to division of power between union and
states?
1. On a subject in concurrent list, union law always prevails over state law
2. Union can never make a law on the subject in state list with the two exceptions of emergency
provisions in operation at the time; or a request by the state/s or Rajya Sabha for the same.
3. The subjects not listed in any list are considered to be part of union list, provision also
known as residuary power
4. Rajya Sabha has the sole authority for the initiation of All India Judicial Services under
article 312.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: c
State Law can prevail in case of permission by President. For international agreements,
Parliament can make laws on state list
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding The Chief Minister of State and choose the
correct option:
1. It is the Constitutional duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor the
decisions of the Council of Ministers.
2. The Governor has the right to require a matter decided by an individual minister to be
placed before the whole council of ministers for a decision.
3. The Governor has got the right to ask for information from the Chief Minister on any matter
pertaining to the Government of the State and Chief Minister is not duty bound to reply so.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding The Chief Minister of State and choose the
correct option:
1. The Chief Minister has the privilege to appoint and remove any minister.
2. The advice of the Chief Minister to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly is binding upon
the Governor when
the Chief Minister still has the majority support.
3. The State Council of Minister is collectively responsible before the Governor of the State.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
c
Governor appoints and remove any minister. CoM is responsible before state legislature
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Q7. Consider the following statements regarding The State Legislature and choose the correct
option:
1. The Constitution provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two houses of the State
legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a Bill.
2. A Bill, originated in the Legislative Council and sent to the Legislative Assembly, is
rejected by the latter, the Bill ends and becomes dead.
3. A bill which has originated in the in the Legislative Council and sent to the Legislative
assembly, if it is rejected by the latter then the mechanism of passing the Bill for the
second time(by The Council) to resolve the deadlock, applies.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Legislative Council is not a second chamber, but a secondary chamber. So it does not enjoy the
powers of rejecting or amending any bill passed by legislative assembly.
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding privilege of minister of the State and choose
the incorrect option:
1. A minister cannot be arrested during the session of the State legislature.
2. Ministers have freedom of speech in the legislature and no member is liable to any
proceedings in any Court for anything said in the State Legislature.
3. Minister cannot refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a
Court when the State Legislature is in Session.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
a.
1 and 2 only
b.
2 and 3 only
c.
1 and 3 only
d.
1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Minister cannot be arrested during the session only in civil cases, he can be arrested in
criminal cases. Freedom of speech does not cover discussing the conduct of a judge or
scandalising the judiciary or judgements in legislature and he is liable for proceedings of
contempt of court. Minister can refuse when legislature is in session as legislative duty comes
above jural duty in order of precendence.
Q9. Consider the following statements and mark the incorrect ones1. As regard to Money Bills, the position of Vidhan Sabha is same as that of LokSabha.
2. The Parliament has no role in the abolition and creation of Legislative Councils in the
state.
Select the answer using the codes given belowa.
1 only
b.
2 only
c.
Both 1 and 2 only
d.
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Parliament has right to abolish and creation of Legislative Council.
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Q10. Rani ki Vav a ‘UNESCO archaeological World Heritage Site’ situated in ?
a.
Orissa
b.
Rajasthan
c.
Gujarat
d.
Punjab
Answer: C
Rani ki Vav at Patan, the Unesco archaeological World Heritage Site in Gujarat has been
recognized as the cleanest heritage site in the country recently.
Q11.Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even
though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it ?
a.
Maharashtra
b.
Bihar
c.
Karnataka
d.
Madhya Pradesh
Answer: d
Q12. Consider the statement regarding Ind INX:
1. It is the only international stock exchange of India.
2. Ind INX is a subsidiary of Bombay stock Exchange.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
India’s first international exchange – India INX at the International Financial Service Centre
(IFSC) of GIFT (Gujarat International Financial Tech) City was recently inaugurated Vibrant
Gujarat Global Summit 2017. India INX – a subsidiary of Bombay Stock Exchange is touted to
be the world’s most advanced technology platforms having an order response time of 4 micro
seconds. This international exchange will operate 22 hours allowing international investors
and NRIs to trade conveniently from anywhere across the world. INX will initially trade in
equity derivatives, currency derivatives and commodity derivatives which will include index and
stocks. It will offer depository receipts and bonds later.
Q13.Global Slavery Index is published by,
a.
Amnesty International
b.
Walk free foundation
c.
No slave World foundation
d.
Institute of economics and peace
Answer: b
http://civils360.com/2017/02/18/various-reports-and-indexes-published-by-organisationsfor-upsc-prelims-exam/
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Q14. What do you mean by the term Anthropocene Epoch which has been in news recently?
a.
It is related to epoch of human lead geological and ecosystem changes.
b.
It is related to shifting of Homo erectus to Homo Sapiens.
c.
It is the term which coins evolution of 4th Industrial revolution and Artificial
Intelligence
d.
None of the above
Answer: a
An expert group at the World Geological Congress in Cape Town recommended that the new
Anthropocene epoch, start from the mid-20th century, be officially declared. The approval
process is likely to take at least two years and requires ratification by three other academic
bodies
The Anthropocene, coined in 2000 by the Nobel prize-winning scientist Paul Crutzen, is a
proposed epoch that begins when human activities started to have a significant global impact
on Earth’s geology and ecosystems.
Q15. With reference to Internal Carbon Price, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. MoEFCC has proposed for internal carbon price for every polluting industries in India.
2. It is an internationally recognised business tool that enables companies to create
resources which are invested in low carbon technologies, which help reduce future
emissions and lower operating costs.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
b
Mahindra & Mahindra became first Indian firm to announce an internal Carbon Price of $10
per ton of carbon emitted. (There is no govt proposal for the same)
It is an internationally recognised business tool that enables companies to create resources
which are invested in low carbon technologies, which help reduce future emissions and lower
operating costs.
A carbon price is a cost applied to carbon pollution to encourage polluters to reduce the
amount of greenhouse gas they emit into the atmosphere
March 16 : Judiciary
Q1. Consider the following statements about the High Court Judge:
1. Judges of High Courts are appointed by the President and hold their office during the
pleasure of the President.
2. Salaries, allowances and pensions of a High Court Judge is charged on the
Consolidated fund of state.
3. Chief Justice of High Court appoints officers and servants of High Court with the help
of executive.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
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(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: c
Though the judges of the high courts are appointed by the President in consultation with the
judiciary itself but they do not hold their office during the pleasure of President.
Salaries ,allowances of HC judges are charged on the Consolidated fund of state while the
pension of a high court judge is charged on the Consolidated fund of India.
Chief Justice of High Court can appoint officers and servants of High Court without the
interference of executive.
Q2. Consider the following statements about the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
1. In any case the supreme court is not bound to tender its opinion to the President.
2. The President can refer only such legal questions as has not been decided by the court
earlier .
3. Indian Constitution has borrowed this provision from the US constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
b
In the case of ant dispute arising out of any pre-constitution a treaty, agreement, covenent,
engagement, sanad or other similar instruments the Supreme Court must tender its opinion to
the Supreme Court.
There is no such provision of Advisory Jurisdiction in the US constitution.
Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Article 143, the Supreme court can give opinion on disputes arising out of preconstitution treaties and agreements.
2. Every judge of a High court is appointed by the Governor in consultation with the Chief
Justice of India, Chief Justice of the High court of that state with the prior consent of
the President.
3. The maximum age up to which the judges of the Supreme court and High Court can
hold office is 65.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 ,2 and 3
d) 2 only
Answer: a)
2. Judges of High Court : appointed by the President with consultation with Governor of the
concerned state
3. retirement age of High court judges is 62.
Q4. Consider the following statements
1. When a judge deals with civil cases he is called session judge and when he hears the
criminal cases,he is called as district judge.
2. District judge cannot confer the capital punishment.
3. District judge possess original and appellate jurisdiction only in the case of criminal
matters.
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Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
A district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and
appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well criminal matters. In other words, the district judge is
also the session judge .When he deals with civil cases he is known as the district judge and
when he hears the criminal cases, he is called as the session judge.
The session judge has the power to impose any sentence including capital punishment.
District judge possess original and appellate jurisdiction both in civil and criminal mattres.
Q5. Which one of the statements given below,in regard to a High Court in India is correct?
a) A High Court is primarily a court of appeal, in respect of its subordinate courts.
b) A High Court can issue any writ, but only to enforce the fundamental rights of the
citizens.
c) A High Court has power to supervise overall courts and tribunals, except revenue court
functioning in its jurisdiction.
d) Chief Justice of a High Court appoint the district judges of all the districts under its
jurisdiction.
Answer: a
A high court can issue writs to enforce the fundamental rights of the citizen as well as for the
other purpose also.
A high court has power to supervise over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial
jurisdiction except military courts and tribunals.
A district judge is appointed by the Governor of the State.
Q6. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no fixed period of office prescribed for a judge of the Supreme court.
2. The Constitution provides only two grounds for the removal of the Supreme Court
judges by the President.
3. The tenure of an additional judge appointed to a High court cannot exceed a period of
two years.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. At any time, the Chief Justice of India can request a retired judge of any court to act as
a judge of Supreme Court
2. Retired judge could be appointed as the judge of Supreme Court without the previous
consent of the President
3. He will be deemed to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
b
The appointment of such judge is done only after the previous consent of the president.
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Such judge will also enjoy the all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of judge of Supreme
Court . But, he will not be deemed to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
Q8. Which of the following are grounds for the removal of Supreme Court Judges:
1. Proved misbehaviour
2. Incapacity
3. Insolvency
Select the correct answer from codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
A judge of Supreme Court can be removed from his office on the grounds of proved
misbehaviour and incapacity
Q9. Which of the following constitute the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
1. Inter-state water dispute
2. Recovery damages by a state against the centre
3. Dispute between centre and one or more states
4. Dispute between two or more states
Select the correct answer from codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c
Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
(a) between the Government of India and one or more States; or
(b) between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more
other States on the other; or
(c) between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any question
(whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends
Inter-state water dispute and Recovery damages by a state against the centre are the
exceptions of the exclusive original jurisdiction of SC.
Q10. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject
to
a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state
d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
answer: a
Q11. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include
a. chief presidency magistrate
b. sessions judge
c. tribunal judge
d. chief judge of a small cause court
Answer: c
Q12. What is “ Akashvani Maitree” , which was recently in news
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a. An Air force exercise between India and Bangladesh
b. All India Radio channel aimed at strengthening ties between India and Bangladesh
c. An rescue operation of Indian Air Force in Nepal
d. A special edition of ‘Mann Ki Baat’
Answer: b
Q13.Which of the following Statements is/are true regarding MAA Programme:
1. It is launched by Union Ministry of Women and Child.
2. It aims at reducing the child marriage and improving Child bearing age
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans D
MAA - Mothers Absolute Affection is a nation-wide breastfeeding promotion program, launched
recently by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It promotes breastfeeding and
provision of counselling services for supporting breastfeeding. The chief components of
the Programme are Community awareness, Strengthening communication through ASHA,
Skilled support for breastfeeding at Delivery points in Public health facilities, Monitoring,
Awards, etc
Q14. Consider the following statements regarding GIFT Milk Initiative:
1. It aims at improving child nutrition through consumption of milk and milk products.
2. Milk will only be provided through the dairy cooperatives.
3. It is funded by Ministry of Health and Family welfare through a budgetary grant
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All the above
Ans A
Union Government has approved a proposal for setting up an Institution for promotion of
nutrition through milk/milk products (especially for children) utilizing Corporate Social
Responsibility funds of NDDB. Initiative is known as “Gift Milk” to improve child nutrition
thought consumption of milk & milk products by providing milk free of cost. The supply of
milk / milk product would be facilitated through dairy cooperatives only.
Q15. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Sugamya Pustakalaya?
1. It is launched by Department of empowerment of persons with disabilities, (DEPwD).
2. It is an online library for persons with Print Disabilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Ans C
“Sugamya Pustakalaya” launched by department of empowerment of persons with disabilities,
(DEPwD), is an online library for Persons with print disabilities as part of the Accessible India
(Sugamya Bharat) Campaign. The online library has been created in collaboration with
National Institute of Visually Handicapped (NIVH), member organization of Daisy Forum of
India (DFI), Bookshare and powered by TCS Access. There are 52 lakh people with visual
impairment (2011 census) in India who cannot access printed texts. The library will focus on
collection of all accessible materials from all over the country in single online library system.
The e-library platform will work in collaboration with international agencies such as
'Bookshare' and 'Accessible Books Consortium' to make accessible books from all over the
world available to users in India.
March 17: Ecological concepts and climate change
Q1. Consider the following statements about ‘Eco mark’ given to the Indian products
1. It is given to environment friendly by Ministry of Environment
2. It is started in 1991 with an objective of increasing awareness among the
consumers towards reducing environment impact
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.
1 only
b.
2 only
c.
Both 1 and 2
d.
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Eco mark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian to products conforming to a
set of standards aimed at the least impact on the ecosystem. The marking scheme was started
in 1991. One of the purposes of the mark is increasing awareness among the consumers
towards reducing environment impact. The mark is issued to various product categories and
the development of standards for more products is in progress.
Q2. Which one among the following is a correct attribute of ‘bio-insecticide’?
a. Specific to only target pest and biodegradable
b. Persistent in the environment
c. Non-biodegradable
d. Non-toxic and non-degradable
Answer: a
Q3. The ‘Red Data Book’ containing information on all wild paints and animals in danger of
extinction has been published by which one of the following ?
a. International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
b. World Wildlife Fund ('WWF)
c. World Conservation Union (WCU)
d. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Answer: a
Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005.
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2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone layer.
3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
a.
1, 2 and 3
b.
1 and 3 only
c.
2 and 3 only
d.
1 and 2 only
Answer: b
Kyoto : GHGs
Montreal : Ozone layer
Q5. In the context of CO2 emission and Global Warming, what is the name of a market driven
device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/incentives from the
developed countries to adopt, better technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions ?
a.
Carbon Footprint
b.
Carbon Credit Rating
c.
Clean Development Mechanism
d.
Emission Reduction Norm
Answer: c
The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), a mechanism to reduce greenhouse gas emission
as per Kyoto Protocol implies that :
jndustrial countries receive carbon credits by funding carbon saving projects in another
relatively affluent nation industrial countries reduce their carbon emission by using
environment friendly technology in production developed countries invest in carbon reduction
in developing countries and receive carbon credit in return developed nations purchase carbon
credit from other nations
The concept of carbon credit originated from Kyoto protocol
Q6. Sea levels around the world are rising. Current sea-level rise potentially affects human
populations and the natural environment.Which of the following is/are main reasons
responsible for the change in sea level:1. Thermal expansion,as ocean water warms, it expands.
2. Contribution of land-based ice due to increased melting.
3. Tectonic uplift of continental shelves.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1 only
b.
2 and 3 only
c.
1, 2 and 3 only
d.
1 and 2 only
Answer: d
Two main factors contributed to observed sea level rise. The first is thermal expansion: as
ocean water warms, it expands. The second is from the contribution of land-based ice due to
increased melting. The major store of water on land is found in glaciers and ice sheets.
Q7. Consider the following
1. Deforestation and Land Use Change
2. Soil Respiration
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3. Photosynthesis
4. Plant Respiration
5. Decay of organic matter
6. Volcanic eruption
7. Burning Fossil Fuel
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?
a. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
b. 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
c. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 and 7 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: c
The Earth’s carbon reservoirs naturally act as both sources, adding carbon to the atmosphere,
and sinks, removing carbon from the atmosphere. If all sources are equal to all sinks, the
carbon cycle can be said to be in equilibrium (or in balance) and there is no change in the size
of the pools over time. Carbon return to the atmosphere and water by Respiration, Burning,
Decay, deforestation.
Q8. Consider the following agricultural practices:
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon
sequestration/storage in the soil?
a. 1 and 2 only
b.
3 only
c.
1, 2 and 3
d. . 1 and 3 only
Answer: c
Carbon sequestration is the process of capture and long-term storage of atmospheric carbon
dioxide and may refer specifically to:
“The process of removing carbon from the atmosphere and depositing it in a reservoir.” When
carried out deliberately, this may also be referred to as carbon dioxide removal, which is a form
of geoengineering. The process of carbon capture and storage, where carbon dioxide is removed
from flue gases, such as on power stations, before being stored in underground reservoirs.
Hence All of the above answers are correct.
Q9. Consider the following statement regarding Ecological succession:
1. A forest fire, wind storm can never be the cause of ecological succession.
2. In ecological succession, the previously dominant species may fail.
3. Succession is directly proportional to the stability to the ecosystem.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
a.
1, 2 and 3
b.
2 only
c.
2 and 3 only
d.
1 and 3 only
Answer: 2
Ecological succession, a fundamental concept in ecology, refers to more-or-less predictable and
orderly changes in the composition or structure of an ecological community.
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Succession may be initiated either by formation of new, unoccupied habitat (e.g., a lava flow or
a severe landslide) or by some form of disturbance (e.g. fire, severe windthrow, logging) of an
existing community.
Q10. What could be long term catastrophic effects if global warming continues?
1. Unless checked, warming from emission may trigger the eversible meltdown of the
Greenland ice sheet in the coming decade, which would add upto seven meters rise in
sea-level over some centuries.
2. The slowing, shifting or shutting down of Atlantic Gulf-Stream Current would have
great effect in Europe, disrupting the global ocean circulation system.
3. Catastrophic releases of methane from the oceans are leading to rapid increase in
methane in the atmosphere and consequent warming.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.
1 and 2 only
b.
1,2 and 3
c.
2 and 3 only
d.
1 and 3 only
Answer : b
The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), a mechanism to reduce greenhouse gas emission
as per Kyoto Protocol implies that :
jndustrial countries receive carbon credits by funding carbon saving projects in another
relatively affluent nation industrial countries reduce their carbon emission by using
environment friendly technology in production developed countries invest in carbon reduction
in developing countries and receive carbon credit in return developed nations purchase carbon
credit from other nations
The concept of carbon credit originated from Kyoto protocol
Q11. Consider the following statements about Coral bleaching1. Coral bleaching is a phenomenon when the symbiotic relationship between algae
(zooxanthellae) and their host corals break down.
2. When a coral bleaches, it becomes dead.
3. Bleaching event causes corals to expose their white underlying calcium carbonate coral
skeleton and become pale in colour.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a.
1 and 2 only
b.
1 and 3 only
c.
2 and 3 only
d.
1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Warmer water temperatures can result in coral bleaching. When water is too warm, corals will
expel the algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues causing the coral to turn completely white.
This is called coral bleaching. When a coral bleaches, it is not dead. Corals can survive a
bleaching event, but they are under more stress and are subject to mortality.
Q12. Pelargonic Acid Vanillyl Amide, recently in news for which of the following reason?
a.
A food additive , which was banned by Government of India
b.
A chilli based non-lethal munitions.
c.
Used for making bio-degradable plastic
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d.
Pesticide used by tea cultivaters in North- Eastern states
Answer: b
PAVA, a chilli based non-lethal munition will replace pellet guns in Jammu & Kashmir, decided
an expert panel of the Home Ministry.
• PAVA stands for Pelargonic Acid Vanillyl Amide. It is also called Nonivamide.
• It is an organic compound characteristically found in natural chilli pepper.
• On the Scoville scale (the degree to measure the power of chilli), PAVA is categorised as
“above peak”.
• It has the ability temporarily but severely irritate and paralyse humans.
Q13. Gardasil and Cervarix are ?
a. HPV (Human Papilloma Virus) Vaccine
b. New planets found outside solar system
c. Anti-viral drug for H1N1 disease
d. Satellites launched by NASA
Answer: a
Q14. Global Innovation Index 2016, is published by
a. WTO
b. World Bank
c. UNESCO
d. Cornell University, INSEAD, and the World Intellectual Property Organization
Answer: d
The Global Innovation Index (GII) aims to capture the multi-dimensional facets of innovation
and provide the tools that can assist in tailoring policies to promote long-term output growth,
improved productivity, and job growth. The GII helps to create an environment in which
innovation factors are continually evaluated.
Q15. ‘Niyamgiri’ hills frequently in news are located in
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Odisha
c. Jharkhand
d. Chhattisgarh
Answer: b
March 18 : International conventions and initiatives
Q1. Consider the following statements about ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’
1. It is legally binding.
2. Following the ratification of the CBD, India enacted the Biological Diversity Act
in 2002 and notified the Rules in 2004 to give effect to the provisions of the
CBD.
3. All UN member states have ratified the treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
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d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: d) 1 and 2 only
All UN member states—with the exception of the United States—have ratified the treaty.
Q2. Consider the following statements about Montreux Record,
1. It is a register of wetland sites of international importance wetland sites where changes
of ecological importance have occurred or occurring or likely to occur
2. It is a part of Ramsar Convention.
3. Only Keoladeo National Park and Loktak Lake are included from India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer : a
Q3. Which of the following is/are the goals of the convention on Biological Diversity?
1. Conservation of biological diversity
2. Sustainable use of its components
3. Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: a
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), known informally as the Biodiversity
Convention, is a multilateral treaty. The Convention has three main goals:
1. conservation of biological diversity (or biodiversity);
2. sustainable use of its components; and
3. fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources
In other words, its objective is to develop national strategies for the conservation and
sustainable use of biological diversity. It is often seen as the key document regarding
sustainable development.
The Convention was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro on 5 June
1992 and entered into force on 29 December 1993.
Q4. Which of the following is/are target(s) of Aichi target, which is an outcome of Nagoya
Protocol?
1. Protection of the coral reefs
2. Protection of the marine and coastal areas
3. Reduction in the loss of the natural habitat
4. Conservation of the forest areas
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Aichi targets
Strategic Goal A: Address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss by mainstreaming
biodiversity across government and society
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Strategic Goal B: Reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity and promote sustainable use
Strategic Goal C: To improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, species and
genetic diversity
Strategic Goal D: Enhance the benefits to all from biodiversity and ecosystem services
Strategic Goal E: Enhance implementation through participatory planning, knowledge
management and capacity building
Q5. Consider the following statement regarding
1. Project Elephant (PE), a centrally sponsored scheme, was launched in 1992 to provide
financial and technical support to major elephant bearing states in the country for
protection of elephants, their habitats and corridors.
2. One of the major drawbacks of the project is that it has no provision to address the
issues of human –elephant conflict and welfare of domesticated elephants
3. Kerala, Karnataka and Tamilnadu are home to more than half of the elephant
population in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: d
Project Elephant (PE) was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as a Centrally
Sponsored
Scheme with following objectives :
1. To protect elephants, their habitat & corridors
2. To address issues of man-animal conflict
3. Welfare of domesticated elephants
Financial and Technical support are being provided to major elephant bearing States in the
country. The Project is being mainly implemented in 13 States / UTs , viz. Andhra pradesh ,
Arunachal Pradesh , Assam , Jharkhand , Karnataka , Kerala , Meghalaya , Nagaland , Orissa ,
Tamil Nadu , Uttranchal , Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
Small support is also being given to Maharashtra and Chattisgarh . Main activities under the
Project are as follows:
1. Ecological restoration of existing natural habitats and migratory routes of elephants;
2. Development of scientific and planned management for conservation of elephant
habitats and viable population of Wild Asiatic elephants in India;
3. Promotion of measures for mitigation of man elephant conflict in crucial habitats and
moderating pressures of human and domestic stock activities in crucial elephant
habitats;
4. Strengthening of measures for protection of Wild elephants from poachers and
unnatural causes of death;
5. Research on Elephant management related issues;
6. Public education and awareness programmes;
7. Eco-development
8. Veterinary care
Q6. Which of the following is/are correct about the National Tiger Conservation Authority:
1. It was established in 1973 following a recommendation of the Tiger Task Force
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2.
It Prepares a report to be laid before the Parliament and lays down the standards for
the Tiger Conservation in the National Parks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
The National Tiger Conservation Authority was established in December 2005 following a
recommendation of the Tiger Task Force, constituted by the Prime Minister of India for
reorganized management of Project Tiger and the many Tiger Reserves in India.
The main objective of Project Tiger is to ensure a viable population of tiger in India for
scientific, economic, aesthetic, cultural and ecological values and to preserve for all time, areas
of biological importance as a natural heritage for the benefit, education and enjoyment of the
people. Main objectives under the scheme include wildlife management, protection measures
and site specific ecological development to reduce the dependency of local communities on tiger
reserve resources.
Q7. The “Red Data Books” published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a)
1 and 3
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3
d)
3 only
Answer : b
Q8. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic
resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of
crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources
cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 ,2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: d
statement 2: it is done by Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)
main functions of GEAC
To permit the use of GMOs and products thereof for commercial applications.
To adopt producers for restriction or prohibition, production, sale, import & use of GMOs both
for research and applications under EPA.
To approve for conduct of large scale field trials, evaluation of large scale field trial data and
final approval for release of transgenic crop into the environment.
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To authorize large scale production and release of GMOs and products thereof into the
environment.
To authorize agencies or persons to have powers to take punitive actions under the EPA.
Q9. Consider the following pairs :
1. Stockholm convention :Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous
Chemicals
2. Basel convention : Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes
3. Rotterdam convention: Persistent Organic Pollutants
Which of the pairs given above are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q10. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Project Disha?
1. It is a project aiming at integration of IRNSS enabled navigation in mobile devices.
2. It is implemented by ISRO.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans D
What is Project Disha?
AAI unveiled Project DISHA – Driving Improvement in Service and Hospitality at Airports – last
year to improve customer service. It was aimed at - Improving customer convenience
Improving airport facilities such as toilets, Improving navigation Offering best and affordable
food and beverages. The project is being implemented at 10 airports – Kolkata, Chennai,
Lucknow, Varanasi, Bhubaneswar, Pune, Goa, Guwahati, Coimbatore and
Thiruvananthapuram.
20-March -2017 : Environment Biodiversity, Wildlife, Flora and Fauna
Q1. Biodiversity forms the basis for human Existence in the following ways :
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion.
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Q2. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organism feed upon each other.
2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
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3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statement given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a
Q3 ) Consider the following statement about Olive Ridley Nesting1. Shifting of the river mouth towards north has forced the turtles to change their nesting sites.
2. Turtles can keep the fertilized eggs inside their body for two to three years.
Which one of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:c) both
Shifting of river mouth and erosion have changed the terrain of the nesting beach of Olive
Ridley turtles near the Rushikullya rookery in Ganjam district of Odisha.
Even after mating female Olive Ridley at time do not lay eggs if the environment is not
conducive for nesting and can keep the egg inside for 2-3 years.
Q4. Consider the following statements about sea Cucumber1. Normally, they are found in inter-tidal regions of the coast, along the sea grass and
coral reef colonies.
2. They breed sexually or asexually.
3. Sea Cucumbers particularly eggs and young larvae, and prey for fish and other marine
animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a) 1, 2 and 3
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) has strongly recommended that sea cucumber, a marine
organism found in the coral reef areas, be retained in Schedule I Category of the Wildlife
Protection Act of 1972.
Schedule I contains the list of most endangered species and gives them highest level of
protection. The sea cucumbers are found in inter-tidal regions of the coast, along the sea grass
and coral reef colonies.
Q5. which of the following is/are blind and catch their prey by emitting an ultrasonic sound,
which reaches the prey and register the image in its mind and subsequently catch hold of its
prey?
1. Bats
2. Gangetic Dolphin
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3. Rattlesnake
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: b
Dolphins are amongst one of the oldest creatures in the world along with some species of
turtles,
crocodiles and sharks. The Gangetic Dolphins are generally blind and catch their prey in a
unique
manner. They emit an ultrasonic sound which reaches the prey. The dolphin then registers this
image in its mind and subsequently catches hold of its prey.
Bats are not completely blind, but most bats rely on sounds to find their prey at
night(echolocation)
Rattlesnakes sense infrared thermal radiation to locate prey .
Q6. Consider the following statements about ‘Pygmy Hog’
1. It is the world’s smallest wild pig.
2. Now found only in Manas National Park.
3. Terai grassland is an important habitat of ‘Pygmy Hog’
4. Pygmy hog- sucking Louse is a parasite that feeds only on Pygmy Hogs falls in critically
endangered category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q7 . Consider the following statements about Indian bison1. Indian bison (Gaur) is the largest gregarious wild cattle found in Asia.
2. Gaur is listed in CITES Appendix I
3. Gaur is listed as vulnerable under IUCN Red List.
4. Gaur is the State Animal of the State of Goa
Which one of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 ,2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
The gaur also called Indian bison, is the largest extant bovine, native to South Asia and
Southeast Asia. The species has been listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List since 1986, as
the population decline in parts of the species' range is likely to be well over 70% during the last
three generations. Population trends are stable in well-protected areas, and are rebuilding in a
few areas which had been neglected.
The gaur is the tallest species of wild cattle.
The domesticated form of the gaur is called gayal (Bos frontalis) or mithun
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Q8. Consider the following statements about Mangroves:
1. Mangroves are salt-tolerant halophytic plants growing on tidal swamp.
2. Mangroves act as natural sewage treatment plants and absorb pollutant both from air
and water.
3. Mangroves functions as a wind-breaking barrier and minimize the intensity of
cyclones.
Which one of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a
Q9. Consider the following statements about ‘Hangul’
1. a subspecies of ‘Red Deer’
2. found in the Dachigam National Park
3. state animal of Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: b
The Kashmir stag (Cervus canadensis hanglu), also called hangul, is a subspecies of elk native
to India. It is found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of the Kashmir
Valley and northern Chamba district in Himachal Pradesh. In Kashmir, it's found in the
Dachigam National Park where it receives protection but elsewhere it is more at risk. In the
1940s, the population was between 3000 and 5000 individuals, but since then habitat
destruction, over-grazing by domestic livestock and poaching have greatly reduced that
dramatically. Earlier believed to be a subspecies of red deer (Cervus elaphus), a number of
mitochondrial DNA genetic studies have revealed that the hangul is part of the Asian clade of
the elk (Cervus canadensis) and has not been evaluated by the IUCN.
It was long believed to be a subspecies of the European red deer (Cervus elaphus), but evidence
from a number of mitochondrial DNA genetic studies beginning in 1998 show that the two are
distinct species.
Q10 . Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of
decreasing productivity?
a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Answer: c
Q11. Which of the following mammals comes under the classification of ‘Marsupials’ ?
1. Koala
2. Kangaroos
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3. Wallabies
4. Possums
5. Opossums
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
Answer: a
Marsupials. are any members of the mammalian infraclass Marsupialia. All extant marsupials
are endemic to Australasia and the Americas. A distinctive characteristic common to these
species is that most of the young are carried in a pouch. Well-known marsupials include
kangaroos, wallabies, koalas, possums, opossums, wombats, Tasmanian devils, and the
recently extinct thylacines. Others include the numbat, the bandicoot, the bettong, the bilby,
the quoll, and the quokka.
Q12. Which of the following art forms are inscribed into UNESCO Intangible Cultural
Heritages?
1. Koodiyattam
2. Ramman
3. Nautanki
4. Gaddi Jatar
5. Kalbelia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 2, 3 and 5 only
Answer: b
http://civils360.com/2017/03/17/unesco-intangible-cultural-heritages-india-upsc-prelims/
Q13. Marrakesh Treaty is related to ?
a) establishment the World Trade Organization
b) to facilitate Access to Published works by Visually Impaired Persons
c) African free trade agreement
d) Climate change agreement by UNFCCC
Q14. What is the objective of ‘ Aarambh Initiative’ ?
a) to promote new entrepreneurship.
b) to improve school enrollment
c) to curb sexual abuse of children through the Internet
d) To promote organic farming in North-Eastern states.
Answer: c
It is the country's first-ever hotline to curb sexual abuse of children through the Internet and
to remove child pornographic content online unveiled.
About initiative
Aim: To eliminate the scourge of online child pornography and further the cause of child
protection in online spaces.
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It is a network of organizations and individuals working on child protection in the country, has
collaborated with the U.K.-based Internet Watch Foundation (IWF).
The hotline in India will be hosted on aarambhindia.org and will enable users to report child
sexual abuse images and videos in a safe and anonymous environment.
It is a simple, accessible form (available in Hindi & English) that any informed user who
stumbles across sexually explicit imagery of a child on the public internet can use to report the
content. Latter it will be started in other languages.
21-March
Modern India:
Decline of Mughals
Q1. Who were popularly called the ‘king makers’ during Mughal period?
1. Syed Hassan Ali Khan
2. Syed Hussain Ali Khan
3. Zulfiqar khan
4. Nizam ul Mulk
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1,2 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: a
Syed brothers: known as king makers
Q2. Which the following are the causes of the decline of Mughal Empire?
1. the rule of primogeniture
2. foreign invasions
3. weak successors of Aurangazeb
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: b
The Mughals did not believe in the rule of primogeniture, where the eldest son inherited his
father’s estate. Instead they followed the Mughal and Timurid custom of coparcenary
inheritance, or a division of the inheritance amongst all the sons
http://civils360.com/2017/01/11/decline-mughal-empire/
Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. Nadir-Shah of Persia invaded India during the reign of Farrukhsiyar.
2. Nadir Shah carried with him the Kohinoor diamond and the Peacock throne of
Shah Jahan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
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Nadir Shah, the ruler of Persia, attacked Punjab in 1739 during the reign of Mohammad Shah.
Mohammad Shah was easily defeated and imprisoned.
http://civils360.com/2017/01/11/decline-mughal-empire/
Q4. Consider the following statements about ‘Third battle of Panipat’
1. It was fought between Maratha Empire and invading forces of the King of
Afghanistan, Ahmad Shah Abdali.
2. The result was decisive Afghan victory.
3. Shah Alam II was the Mughal Emperor during the battle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: a
Q5. Consider the following statements about Bahadur Shah Zafar
1. He was the last Mughal ruler
2. He was killed in the 1857 revolt
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
http://civils360.com/2017/01/11/decline-mughal-empire/
Mirza Abu Zafar Sirajuddin Muhammad Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal emperor. He
was the second son of and became the successor to his father, Akbar II, upon his death on 28
September 1837. He used Zafar, (translation: victory) a part of his name, for his nom de plume
(takhallus) as an Urdu poet, and wrote many Urdu ghazals. He was a nominal Emperor, as the
Mughal Empire existed in name only and his authority was limited only to the city of Delhi
(Shahjahanbad). Following his involvement in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the British exiled
him to Rangoon in British-controlled Burma, after convicting him on conspiracy charges in a
kangaroo court.
Q6. The Treaty of Allahabad was signed between
a) Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and Robert Clive of the East India Company
b) Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and Nawab of Bengal Mir Qasim
c) Nawab of Bengal Mir Qasim and the Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula
d) Nawab of Bengal Mir Qasim and Robert Clive of the East India Company
Answer: a
The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on 12 August 1765, between the Mughal Emperor Shah
Alam II, and Robert, Lord Clive, of the East India Company, as a result of the Battle of Buxar of
22 October 1764. The Treaty marks the political and constitutional involvement and the
beginning of British rule in India. Based on the terms of the agreement, Alam granted the East
India Company Diwani rights, or the right to collect taxes on behalf of the Emperor from the
eastern province of Bengal-Bihar-Orissa.
Q7. Who among the following was an ally of Mir Qasim in the Battle of Buxar ?
a) Mohammad Shah
b) Alamgir II
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c) Shah Alam II
d) Ahmad Shah Bahadur
Answer: c
Q8 . With reference to Mughal period of Indian history, the term ‘tajwiz’ refers to
a) It was a form of salutation practiced by the courtiers
b) It was a petition presented by a nobleman to the emperor
c) It was a rob of honor presented by the emperor to his courtier
d) The minister in charge of religious and charitable patronage
Answer: b
Q9. Consider the following statements about ‘ Bundi School of Painting’
1. The Bundi School has a close association with the Mughal style.
2. It is a Rajasthani style of Indian miniature painting
3. It emphasized only on the paintings of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: c
Bundi School of Painting is a Rajasthani style of Indian miniature painting that lasted from
17 the century towards the end of 19th century.
· It basically existed in the princely state of Bundi and the neighbouring principality of Kotah.
· The Bundi School is characterized by a fondness for lush green vegetation, dramatic night
skies and a distinctive way of depicting water with light swirls.
· The Bundi School has a close association with the Mughal style.
· The Bundi Paintings emphasized on hunting, court scenes, procession, life of nobles,
lovers, animals, birds and scenes from Lord Krishna’s life.
Q10. Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding Great Red Spot?
1. It is found in Jupiter the biggest planet.
2. The series of storms near great red spot is known as the ‘string of pearls’.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
NASA has released a new view of a crescent Jupiter which shows the iconic Great Red Spot,
along with a series of storms shaped oval known as the ‘string of pearls’.
What is Great Red Spot?
The Great Red Spot is a giant, spinning and persistent storm in Jupiter’s atmosphere.
It is like a hurricane on Earth, and is more than twice the size of our planet and is observed
since 400 years. These are found in southern hemisphere of Jupiter
22-March
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Modern India:
Entry of Europeans
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Q1. Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal has allocated water to which of the following states/UTs?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Karnataka
3. Kerala
4. Puducherry
5. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: b
Q2. Which of the following are the privileges of National Parties?
1. Unique symbol
2. Free airtime on public broadcasters
3. candidates need only one proposer to file their nomination papers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: a
Privileges of National Parties
· Unique symbol
· Free airtime on public broadcasters AIR and Doordarshan during the Lok Sabha elections.
· Two free copies of electoral rolls while their candidates need only one proposer to file their
nomination papers.
· Deploy 40 star campaigners whose expenditure is not clubbed with the election expenses of
an individual candidate
Q3. With reference to Indus Water Treaty which of the following Indus rivers are to be governed
by India?
1. Beas
2. Ravi
3. Sutlej
4. Chenab
5. Jhelum
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 5
c) 2 ,4 and 5
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
According to the treaty, Beas, Ravi and Sutlej are to be governed by India, while, Indus,
Chenab and Jhelum are to be taken care by Pakistan.
Q4. Global Competitiveness Index was released by?
a) WEF (World Economic Forum)
b) IBRD (World Bank)
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c) UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development)
d) WTO( World Trade Organisation )
Answer: a
Q5. Consider the following statements about Pichwai Paintings
1. is a sub-styles of Nathdwara Paintings
2. Pichwai Paintings are cloth paintings hung behind the image of Hindu God, Shrinathji
3. Pichwai paintings illustrate different moods of Lord Krishna.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a
Q6. The first to start a joint stock company to trade with India were the
a) Portuguese
b) Dutch
c) French
d) Danish
Answer: b
Dutch presence on the Indian subcontinent lasted from 1605 to 1825.
Q7. Consider the following statements:
1) Portuguese were the first Europeans to come to India for trade
2) French were the last Europeans to come to pre-independence India as traders
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q8. Who among the following introduced cashew nut, pineapple and tobacco into India ?
a) Dutch
b) English
c) French
d) Portuguese
Answer: d
Q9. At the battle of Biddera the English crushed the power ofa) French
b) Dutch
c) Portuguese
d) Danes
Answer: b
The Battle of Chinsurah (also known as the Battle of Biderra) took place near Chinsurah, India
on 25 November 1759 during the Seven Years' War between a force of British troops mainly of
the British East India Company and a force of the Dutch East India Company which had been
invited by the Nawab of Bengal Mir Jafar to help him eject the British and establish themselves
as the leading commercial company in Bengal. Despite Britain and the Dutch Republic not
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formally being at war, the Dutch advanced up the Hooghly River. They met a mixed force of
British and local troops at Chinsurah, just outside Calcutta. The British, under Colonel
Francis Forde, defeated the Dutch, forcing them to withdraw. The British engaged and defeated
the ships the Dutch used to deliver the troops in a separate naval battle on November 24.
Q10. With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following
statements is not correct?
a. The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
b. The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam
c. In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
d. Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746
Answer: a
The Portuguese conquest of Goa occurred when the governor of Portuguese India Afonso de
Albuquerque captured the city in 1510
Q11. Hughly was used as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal by
a. Portuguese
b. French
c. Danish
d. British
answer: a
Q12. Who among the following was the first European to initiate the policy of taking part in the
quarrels of Indian princes with a view to acquire territories ?
a. Clive
b. Dupleix
c. Albuquerque
d. Warren Hastings
Answer: b
Q13. Consider the following statements:
1. Dutch opened a factory at Pulicat in 1609.
2. English built a factory at Masulipatam in 1611.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Q14. Consider the following statements about the Portuguese rule in India.
1) Fransisco De almeda was the first Potuguese governor in India
2) Pondicherry was the headquarters of Portuguese settlements
3) The Portuguese were first arrived to India and the last to withdraw from India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only
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c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1 and 3 only
Q15.Consider the following statements about Dutch rule in india
1)
2)
3)
Which
They established their first factory in Masulipattinam
Battle of Colachal marked the decline of power of Dutch in India
They established fort Geldria in Surat
of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 3 only
Fort Geldria or Fort Geldaria, located in Pulicat, was the seat of the Dutch Republic's first
settlement in India, and the capital of Dutch Coromandel.
23-March
Modern India:
Period 1757-1857
Q1. With reference to The Battle of Buxar in 1764 , Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1) British army defeated Mir Jaffar ,the nawab of bengal
2) After winning the British had earned the right to collect land revenue from Bengal only
3) Robert Clive was appointed the governor of Bengal after the war
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. Only 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 1,2 and 3
d. Only 3
Q2. Consider the statements on charter act of 1793
1) The company was allowed to increase its dividend to 10%
2) Expenses , dividends, interests and salaries will be borne by the company
3) The act recognized the company’s political functions
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. Only 3
d. All the above
Q3. Consider the following statements about permanent settlement
1) It was the brainchild of lord Cornwallis
2) The right of collecting revenue was auctioned to the highest bidder
3) The hereditary rights on land was abolished
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
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The Permanent Settlement, also known as the Permanent Settlement of was an agreement
between the East India Company and Bengali landlords to fix revenues to be raised from land,
with far-reaching consequences for both agricultural methods and productivity in the entire
Empire and the political realities of the Indian countryside. It was concluded in 1793 by the
Company administration headed by Charles, Earl Cornwallis, also known as Lord Cornwallis. It
formed one part of a larger body of legislation enacted, known as the Cornwallis Code. The
Cornwallis Code of 1793 divided the East India Company's service personnel into three
branches: revenue, judicial, and commercial. Revenues were collected by Zamindars, native
Indians who were treated as landowners. This division created an Indian landed class that
supported British authority.
Permanent Settlement introduced first in Bengal and Bihar; and then to North district of
Madras and district of Varanasi. The system eventually spread all over Northern India by a
series of regulations dated 1 May 1793. These regulations remained in place until the Charter
Act of 1833.
Q4. Consider the following Princely States of the British rule in India:
1. Jhansi
2. Sambalpur
3. Satara
The correct chronological order in which , they were annexed by the British is:
a. 1-2-3
b. 1-3-2
c. 3-2-1
d. 3-1-2
Answer: c
Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to ‘the Subsidiary Alliance’ which was
introduced by Lord Wellesley .
1. Any Indian ruler who entered into the subsidiary alliance with the British had to
maintain a contingent of British troops in his territory.
2. The protected state should give money or give part of its territory to the British to
support the subsidiary force.
3. The ruler of the protected state should keep a British Resident at his court and disband
his own army.
4. Nizam of Bengal entered into this treaty first
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b
Nizam of Hyderabad entered into this treaty first.
Q6.
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
a. Battle of Buxar
- Mir Jafar vs. Clive
b. Battle of Wandiwash -French vs. East India Company
c. Battle of Chilianwala - Dalhousie vs. Marathas
d. Battle of Kharda
- Nizam vs. East India Company
Answer: a
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Q7. Which of the following statements are terms of ‘Treaty of Srirangapattinam’
1. Tipu had to give up half his dominions
2. He had to pay a war indemnity of three crore rupees and surrender two of his
sons as hostages to the English
3. Both sides agreed to release the prisoners of war
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 2 and 3 only
Answer: c
http://civils360.com/2017/03/22/early-governor-generals-lord-cornwallis-1786-1793/
Q8. Which of the following social reforms are introduced by William Bentinck?
1. Abolition of Sati
2. Suppression of Thugs
3. prevention of female infanticide
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 2 and 3 only
Answer: c
http://civils360.com/2017/03/22/early-governor-generals-lord-william-bentinck-18281835/
Q9. Which of the following are introduced by Lord Dalhousie ?
1. Railways
2. Public Works Department
3. Modern postal system
4. Telegraph
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
http://civils360.com/2017/03/22/early-governor-generals-lord-dalhousie/
Q10. Which of the following are reforms of Warren Hastings?
1. Abolition of the Dual System of Government
2. Reorganisation of the Judicial System.
3. Abolition of the system of dastaks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 2 and 3 only
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Answer: d
Q11.Consider the following statements about Salar Jung Museum.
1. located on banks of Musi river in Hyderabad
2. It is one of the three national museums of the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Salar Jung Museum
●
The Salar Jung Museum is loacated at Darushifa, on the southern bank of Musi
river in Hyderabad. It is one of the three national museums of the country.
●
The museum’s collections are sourced from the property of the Salar Jung
Family.
●
It has a collection of sculptures, paintings, carvings, textiles, manuscripts,
ceramics, metallic artefacts, carpets, clocks and furniture from Japan, China,
Burma, Nepal, India, Persia, Egypt, Europe and North America.
●
Some of the important Indian historical collections are: paintings of Raja Ravi
Verma, Aurangzeb’s sword and a wardrobe of Tipu Sultan.
Q12. Srinagar Hydroelectric Project is located in which state?
a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Uttarakhand
d) Haryana
Answer: c
Q13. World Logistics Performance Index is released by ?
a)
WEF (World Economic Forum)
b)
IBRD (World Bank)
c)
UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development)
d)
WTO( World Trade Organisation )
Answer: b
World Bank’s biennial measure of international supply chain efficiency, called Logistics
Performance Index which measures a country’s logistics performance at its key
international gateways, has ranked India at 35th in 2016, jumping from 54th in 2014.
While Germany tops the 2016 rankings, India is ahead of comparatively advanced
economies like Portugal and New Zealand.
Better performance in logistics not only boosts programs, such as Make in India, by
enabling India to become part of the global supply chain, it can also help increase trade.
The LPI measures performance in terms of six components i.e. Customs, Infrastructure,
International Shipments, Logistics Quality and Competence, Tracking and Tracing, and
Timeliness.
Q14. India’s first major centre for commercial arbitration was launched in which city?
a. Mumbai
b. Bangalore
c. Delhi
d. Kolkata
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Answer: a
Mumbai Centre for International Arbitration (MCIA), India’s first major centre for
commercial arbitration
Significance
● It will make India a hub of international commercial arbitration.
● Help in improving ease of doing business.
● Act as an alternative forum that Indian businesses can approach instead of
Arbitration Centre either at Singapore, London or Hong Kong.
● There are arbitration centres in India but none of them have been approached for
settling major international disputes
● This alternative dispute resolutions mechanism will also help in de-stressing our
overburdened judicial system.
● Joint initiative between the Government of Maharashtra and the domestic and
international business and legal communities.
● Arbitral rules will be based on international arbitration best practices.
Q15. According to the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) aquaculture includes
farming of which of the following?
1. Fish
2. Molluscs
3. Crustaceans
4. Aquatic plants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: c
India International Seafood Show (IISS) in Vishakhapatnam was held on September 2325. The theme was "Safe and Sustainable Indian Aquaculture."
What is Aquaculture?
• According to the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), “aquaculture means the
farming of aquatic organisms including fish, molluscs, crustaceans and aquatic plants”.
• Particular kinds of aquaculture include fish farming, shrimp farming, oyster farming,
mariculture, algaculture (such as seaweed farming), and the cultivation of ornamental
fish.
• Particular methods include aquaponics and integrated multi-trophic aquaculture, both
of which integrate fish farming and plant farming.
24-March
Q1. Which of
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: b
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Geography
Human Geography
the following is the objective of ‘the New Delhi Declaration’ of BRICS?
Disaster risk reduction
Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education
Fight against terrorism
Protection of women and fight against human trafficking
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BRICS nations adopted the 'New Delhi Declaration on Education at 4th meeting of BRICS
Ministers of Education
Key points
· The main aim is to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote life-long
learning opportunities for all.
· Develop an enabling framework to promote research cooperation and knowledge transfer
among BRICS countries.
· Facilitate mobility of students and scholars, and encourage exchange of teaching faculty.
· Share information on higher education systems, approval and recognition processes, quality
assurance and accreditation, and prevalent procedures and practices for evaluation and
recognition of qualifications to facilitate academic mobility.
· Identify a nodal institution within each country and create an institutional network to share
ICT policies, Open Educational Resources and other e-resources, including e-Libraries, among
BRICS member countries.
· Use information and communication technologies (ICTs) for improving access to education,
enhancing the quality of teaching-learning process, teacher development, and strengthening
educational planning and management
· Expand technical and vocational education and skills development programmes, for
facilitating acquisition of skills and competencies by young people and adults for enhancing
their employability and encourage innovation and entrepreneurship
· Initiate actions to formulate country-specific targets within the broader scope of the SDG4
and corresponding targets.
· Share the best practices available in BRICS countries on collaboration in education, research
and innovation through the BRICS Network University.
Q2. ‘Prabal Dostyak-16’ is a military exercise between
a) India and Kazakhstan
b) India and Turkmenistan
c) Pakistan and Russia
d) Pakistan and Kyrgyzstan
Answer: a
PRABAL DOSTYAK-16
· It refers to joint military exercise between the armies of India and Kazakhstan.
· ‘Prabal Dostyk’ meaning ‘Robust Friendship’ is a significant step towards fostering military as
well as diplomatic ties between both countries.
· It was recently conducted in Karaganda region of Kazakhstan.
· The primary aim of this 14 days exercise is to increase interoperability understanding along
with efficiency and effectiveness between the two armies while undertaking counter-terrorism
and counter-insurgency operations under the umbrella of United Nations.
Q3. ‘The Hague Convention’ related to affairs of?
a)
Protection of children
b)
Ballistic missiles
c)
Disaster risk reduction
d)
Cruise missiles
The Hague Convention seeks “to protect to protect children internationally from the harmful
effects of their wrongful removal or retention and to establish procedures to ensure their
prompt return to the State of their habitual residence, as well as to secure protection for the
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rights of access.” Ninety-four states are party to the Hague Convention on Civil Aspects of
International Child Abduction. India is not a signatory to the Hague Convention. A country has
to have a domestic law in place before it can become a signatory.
Union ministry of women and child development (WCD) has drafted the Civil Aspects of
International Child Abduction Bill, 2016, that once approved will facilitate prompt return of
any child under 16 who has been “wrongfully removed to or retained in other state which is not
his/her habitual residence.”
The bill will provide an enabling legislation to implement the provision of the Hague
convention.
Q4. The report titled Uprooted: The growing crisis for refugee and migrant children is released by
?
a)
International Rescue Committee
b)
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
c)
United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund
d)
The Save the Children Fund
Answer: c
The United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF) on 7 September 2016 released the report titled
Uprooted: The growing crisis for refugee and migrant children.
According to the report, nearly 50 million children have been uprooted across the globe and
millions more migrating in the hope of finding a better, safer life.
Traumatized by the conflicts and violence they are fleeing, they face further dangers including
the risk of drowning on sea crossings, malnourishment, trafficking, rape and even murder
In countries they travel through and at their destinations, they often face xenophobia and
discrimination.
1 in 200 children in the world is a child refugee.
Nearly 1 in 3 children living outside their country of birth is a refugee
Child refugees has increased by two times from 2005 to 2015.
Regional perspective: Asia is home to 2 in 5 of the world’s child migrants
Q5. Which of the following organization is involved in preparation of ‘Economic Freedom Index’
a)
World Economic Forum
b)
Heritage Foundation
c)
World Trade Organization
d)
World Bank
Answer: b
The Index of Economic Freedom is an annual index and ranking created by The Heritage
Foundation and The Wall Street Journal in 1995 to measure the degree of economic freedom
in the world's nations.
Q6. Consider the following statements:
1. In India we use the de facto canvasser method for census
2. In this method the person is counted at a place where he is actually found on the
reference date of census
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Q7. Which of the following can be inferred from population pyramid
1) females to males ratio
2) characteristics of population
3) distribution of population in different age groups
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: a
Q8. Consider the statements regarding the 2011 census in india
1)
Information on castes was included in the census for the first time after 1931
2)
Transgender population was not counted separately in population census
3)
A “no religion” category was added
4)
The combined population of Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra is bigger than that of the
US
Which among the above statements are true?
a) 2 , 3 and 4 only
b) 1,2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: d
Q9. Which of the following statements regarding census 2011 are correct?
1. It is the 15th Indian National census, which was conducted in 2 phases.
2. The percentage decadal growth during 2001-2011 has registered the sharpest decline
since Independence
3. For the first time biometric information was collected
4. Census 2011 mascot was a female enumerator
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 2 , 3 and 4 only
b) 1,2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: c
The 15th Indian National census was conducted in two phases, house listing and population
enumeration. House listing phase began on 1 April 2010 and involved collection of information
about all buildings. Information for National Population Register was also collected in the first
phase. The second population enumeration phase was conducted between 9 to 28 February
2011. Census has been conducted in India since 1872 and 2011 marks the first time biometric
information was collected.
Q10. Which of the following statements about Age-Sex Pyramid is/are correct?
1. Pyramid of less developed countries usually has a narrow base.
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2. Japan's Pyramid would have a tapered top.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Pyramid of less developed countries have broad base as birth rate is high.
Q11. Which of the following statements regarding Gender Inequality Index (GII) is/are correct?
1. MMR is the only indicator used to measure Reproductive Health.
2.
The empowerment dimension is measured by the share of parliamentary seats held by
each sex only.
3. The labor market dimension is measured by participation of women in paid work,
unpaid work, and actively looking for work .
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) All are wrong
Answer: d
AFR and MMR are used as indicators to measure Reproductive Health. Higher Education is
also an indicator to measure Empowerment Dimension. The labor market dimension is
measured by women's participation .This dimension accounts for paid work, unpaid work, and
actively looking for work
Q12. Which of the following is not included in Human Development Index ?
(a) Life Expectancy (b) Real per Capita Income
(c) Social Inequality (d) Adult Literacy
Answer: C
Q13. Which of the following is a sufficient condition of identification of a district as ‘gender
critical’ district according to Census of India?
1. Women participation in work is less than 20 percent.
2. Female literacy is less than 30 percent
3. Sex ratio is less than 900
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d)3 and 1 only
Answer: d
Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. With respect to a dispersed settlement, a cultural feature, such as a place of worship or
a market binds the settlement together.
2. A 'Double Village' is a rural settlement pattern wherein settlements extend on both
sides of a river where there is a bridge or ferry.
3. The common basis of classification of urban settlements is population size,
occupational structure and administrative set-up.
4. Conurbation is a type of urban settlement which applies to a large area that has
resulted from merging of originally separate towns or cities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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(a) 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: d
Q15. Match the List I with the List II & select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List I (Tribes)
List II (Region)
A. Pygmies
1. Polar Regions
B. Aborigines
2. Australia
C. Semang
3. Malaysia
D. Lapps
4. Africa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
(b) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
(c) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
(d) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
Answer: b
25-March
Geography:
Economic Geography
Q1. Consider the following statements:
1. The Port is an extensive stretch of deep water where vessels can anchor securely
whereas a harbour is the commercial part of port for loading and unloading of cargo.
2. The Paradip port situated in Mahanadi Delta, has the deepest harbour specially suited
to handle very large vessels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer: B
1. The Harbour is an extensive stretch of deep water where vessels can anchor securely
whereas a port is the commercial part of harbour for loading and unloading of cargo.
Q2. Consider the following statements :
1. Vegetable Farming is called Truck Farming because the distance of these farms is
governed by the distance a truck can cover overnight.
2. Factory Farming refers to scientific rearing of poultry and cattle in the industrial
regions of Western Europe and North America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer: c
Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. Pipelines are used to transport liquids and gases like petroleum, natural gas, liquefied
coal, water and milk.
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2.
Air transport is overall cheaper than the water transport as the latter entails the
construction of shipping canals for navigation whereas the former needs no routeconstruction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Air transport is overall costlier than the water transport - by energy cost, haulage
Q4. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Quaternary and Quinary activities are resource-bound and affected by environment.
2. Quinary services are often referred to as Gold Collared professions which are related to
private entities only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
1) Quaternary and Quinary activities are not resource-bound and are not affected by
environment.
2) Quinary services are often referred to as Gold Collared professions which are related to both
public and private.
Q5. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Access to agglomeration economies is one of the factors which influence industrial
locations.
2. Capital and transportation are of significant importance to house-hold industries for
effective marketing and growth.
3. Metal smelting, heavy engineering, chemical manufacture, textile production are
examples of Smoke-stack industries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: d
2) Capital and transportation has no much significance to house-hold industries as this type of
manufacturing has low commercial significance and most of the tools are devised locally.
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Indian roads:
1. The length of the national highways is greater than the state highways.
2. The length of the panchayati raj roads is greater than the municipal roads.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
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the length of highways or roads follow the order : Panchayti roads>PWD road>urban roads>
state highway> national highway
Q7. There has been gradual decline in the jute industry of India due to the following reason:
1. Decline in demand for jute products
2. Old and outdated machinery
3. High cost of production and stiff international competition from Bangladesh and Brazil
4.
Partition of India
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above
Answer: d
Partition of the country in 1947 affected the jute industry as the jute growing areas were in
East Pakistan (now in Bangladesh) and jute mills were in India. India has to import raw jute
from Bangladesh to run the jute mills.
There has been gradual decline in the jute industry due to the following reason:
i) Decline in demand for jute products.
ii) Old and outdated machinery.
iii) High cost of production and stiff international competition from Bangladesh and Brazil.
iv) Emergence of synthetic substitutes.
v) Non-availability of labour.
Q8. Which of the following statements is/are correct about 'Intensive Subsistence Farming' ?
1. It is practised on areas of high population pressure on land.
2. High doses of biochemical inputs are required.
3. Irrigation requirements are minimal.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: c
Intensive Subsistence Farming is practised in areas of high population pressure on land. It is
labour intensive farming, where high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for
obtaining higher production
Q9. Which of the following industries can be considered as agro-based Industries?
1. Food processing
2. vegetable oil
3. cotton textile
4. dairy products
5. leather industries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
Answer: c
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Agro based industries use plant and animal based products as their raw materials.
Q10. Which of the following industries location is driven mainly by the factor of nearness to
market rather than other factors?
1. Synthetic nitrogen manufacturing
2. Petroleum refineries.
3. Aluminium industry
4. Cotton Textiles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: b
Aluminium and Nitrogen industry are power intensive industries.
Cotton textile industry uses non - weight losing raw material and is located near markets.
Transport of crude oil is easier , therefore , Petroleum refineries are located near markets
Q11. With reference to Permanent Residency Status (PRS) to foreign investors. Consider the
following statements
1. It will serve as a multiple entry visa without any stay stipulation
2. The foreign investor will have to invest a minimum of Rs. 10 crores to be brought
within 18 months to be eligible for this scheme
3. Permanent Residency Status will be granted for a period of 10 years initially with
multiple entry facility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: a
The Union Cabinet under the Chairmanship of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has
approved the scheme for grant of Permanent Residency Status (PRS) to foreign investors
subject to the relevant conditions as specified in the FDI Policy notified by the Government
from time to time.
The scheme is expected to encourage foreign investment in India and facilitate Make in India
Programme. Under the Scheme, suitable provisions will be incorporated in the Visa Manual to
provide for the grant of PRS to foreign investors.
The PRS will be granted for a period of 10 years with multiple entry. This can be reviewed for
another 10 years if the PRS holder has not come to adverse notice. The scheme will be
applicable only to foreign investors fulfilling the prescribed eligibility conditions, his/her
spouse and dependents. In order to avail this scheme, the foreign investor will have to invest a
minimum of Rs. 10 crores to be brought within 18 months or Rs.25 crores to be brought within
36 months. Further, the foreign investment should result in generating employment to at least
20 resident Indians every financial year.
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Permanent Residency Status will be granted for a period of 10 years initially with multiple
entry facility, which can be renewed for another 10 years. PRS will serve as a multiple entry
visa without any stay stipulation and PRS holders will be exempted from the registration
requirements. PRS holders will be allowed to purchase one residential property for dwelling
purpose. The spouse/ dependents of the PRS holder will be allowed to take up employment in
private sector (in relaxation to salary stipulations for Employment Visa) and undertake studies
in India.
Q12. Consider the following statemnts with reference to ‘International Literacy Day (ILD) 2016’
1. The theme for ILD-2016 is ‘Reading the Past, Writing the Future‘.
2. It was established by UNESCO in 1966.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
answer: c
The International Literacy Day is being observed 08 September every year to emphasize the
importance of literacy to individuals, society and communities.
The day was established in 1966 by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural
Organization (UNESCO). 2016 marks the 50th anniversary of International Literacy Day (ILD)
2016 Theme: ‘Reading the Past, Writing the Future‘.
Q13. Which of the following state have been selected as the cleanest state in NSSO’s
Cleanliness Survey?
a) Himachal Pradesh
b) Mizoram
c) Kerala
d) Sikkim
answer: d
Q14. Consider the following statements with respect to Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee (GEAC)
1. It is under the Ministry of Environment and Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
2. It is the apex body for approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous
microorganisms and recombinants
3. It is responsible for approval of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered
organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), the apex body under the “Rules for the
Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically
Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989”, has the mandate to approve large scale trials and
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environmental release of Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) and ensure that research,
development and testing of GMOs prior to environment release are conducted in a safe and
scientific manner through appropriate implementation of Rule 1989 and biosafety guidelines.
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) established under Ministry of
Environment and Forests and Climate Change ( MoEFCC ) is the apex body to accord
notified under Rules 1989. For approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous
microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle The GEAC is also responsible for approval of proposals relating to release of
genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment including experimental
field trials (Biosafety Research Level trial-I and II known as BRL-I and BRL-II)
27-March
Geography : India Location and Geographical Features
Q1. Which of the following have coral reefs?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a
Q2. Consider the following statements
1. Tista river flows through Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Tista river falls into the Brahmaputra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
The Teesta River is a 309 km (192 mi) long river flowing through the Indian state of Sikkim. It
carves out from the verdant Himalayas in temperate and tropical river valleys and forms the
border between Sikkim and West Bengal. It flows through the cities of Rangpo, Jalpaiguri and
Kalimpong and joins the Jamuna (Brahmaputra) in Bangladesh.
Q3. Which of
a)
b)
c)
d)
BIMSTEC
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· The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
(BIMSTEC) is a regional organization.
· It came into being on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
· It comprises of seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of
Bengal.
· Five deriving from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and
Two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
Q4. Which of the countries never joined Non-Proliferation Treaty ( NPT )
1. India
2. Pakistan
3. South Sudan
4. North Korea
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b
Four UN member states have never joined NPT: India, Israel, Pakistan and South Sudan.
N. Korea once joined but later withdrawn
Q5. Consider the following statements about International Criminal Court (ICC) :
1. It is the world’s first legal body with permanent international jurisdiction to
prosecute genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes.
2. It was established by the treaty ‘ Rome Statute’
3. ICC does not have jurisdiction over US, Russia, China and Israel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer : a
Q6. What is ‘ Bad Bank’ , which is recently in news?
a) A bank about to shut down due to financial issues
b) A bank which is financing terrorist activities
c) A separate entity that would buy the NPAs from other banks
d) A bank which supports black economy
Answer: c
Bad Bank would be set up as a separate entity that would buy the NPAs from other banks
to free up their books for fresh lending. In the meanwhile, it would work towards suitably
disposing off the toxic assets.
· The concept was pioneered at the Pittsburgh-headquartered Mellon Bank in 1988 and has
been successfully implemented in many western European countries post the 2007
financial crisis like Ireland, Sweden, France etc.
Q7. Consider the following statements about archean rock system
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1. They are the oldest rock formations in the earth crust
2. They are devoid of any form of remnants of life in them
3. They are devoid of any minerals
Choose the correct statements
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only
Answer: d
Q8 . Consider the following statements about Himachal
1. They are located to the south of Himadri
2. Kashmir valley is located in this range
3. They have an average width of 50km
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: d
Q9. The river narmada originates from ?
a. Satpura
b. Amarkantak
c. Brahmagiri hills
d. Western Ghats
Answer: b
Q10. Which among the following are the tributaries of Mahanadi ?
1. Seonath
2. Parbati
3. Tel
4. Mand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1 and 2 only
Answer: c
Tributaries
- left : Seonath, Mand, Ib, Hasdeo
- right : Ong, parry river ,Jonk , Tel
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Q11. Consider the following statements about cardamom hills
1. they are part of Eastern Ghats
2. they lies in Kerala and Tamilnadu
3. Anaimudi the highest peak in south India is in this range
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
Part of W.Ghats
Q12. match the following
1. Vishnu prayag- A. alaknanda and bagirathi
2. Rudraprayag- B. pindar and alaknanda
3. DevprayagC. dhauli and Vishnu ganga
4. Karna prayag- D.alaknanda and mandakini
Select the correct match
a. 1-C,2- D,3-A,4- B
b. 1-C,2- B,3-D,4- A
c. 1-B,2- D,3-A,4- C
d. 1-C,2- A,3-D,4- B
Answer: a
Q13. Consider the following :
1. Keoladeo Ghana National Park
2. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
3. Sultanpur National Park
Which of the above is/are wetlands ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Answer : c
28-March
Geography
India: Infrastructure ; Rail , Road etc
Q1. Which of the following is the objective of recently launched ‘ Project Insight ‘ ?
a) To improve school enrollment rate in north eastern states
b) To help new entrepreneurs to start business
c) An initiative to widen the tax base
d) An programme to increase internet penetration in India
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Answer: c
PROJECT INSIGHT
· Project Insight is an initiative of the finance ministry to widen the tax base by detecting tax
evaders using technology.
· Various pilot projects have come up in recent years. The full programme will be implemented
next year.
Q2. Consider the following statements about ‘Agro Irradiation Centre’
1. India and Russia have agreed to collaborate in setting up integrated irradiation centres
in India
2. An agro irradiation center is one where food products are subjected to a low dosage of
radiation to treat them for germs and insects, thereby increasing their longevity and
shelf life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer: c
AGRO IRRADIATION CENTERS
· India and Russia have agreed to collaborate in setting up integrated irradiation centres in
India.
· In the first phase, seven centres will be set up in Maharashtra, which will begin with the
upgradation of the current centre at Rahuri in Ahmednagar district.
· An agro irradiation center is one where food products are subjected to a low dosage of
radiation to treat them for germs and insects, thereby increasing their longevity and shelf life.
Q3. Consider the following statements about ‘ Agricultural Marketing and Farm Friendly
Reforms Index’ :
1. It is launched by ‘ Ministry of Agriculture’
2. The indicators used to assess represent competitiveness, efficiency and transparency in
agricultural markets
3. Gujarat ranked first in the Index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: c
AGRICULTURAL MARKETING AND FARM FRIENDLY REFORMS INDEX
·The NITI Aayog launched the first ever “Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly
Reforms Index” to rank States and Union Territories.
·The indicators used to assess represent competitiveness, efficiency and transparency in
agri markets.
·The rankings are based on implementation of seven provisions proposed under model APMC
Act, joining eNAM initiative, special treatment to fruits and vegetables for marketing and level
of taxes in mandis.
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·The other parameters included in the index are relaxation in restrictions related to lease of
farm land to tenant farmers, and the freedom farmers have to fell and transport trees on their
own land, which allows them to diversify their incomes.
·The index has a score, ranging from “0” implying no reforms to value “100” implying complete
reforms in the selected areas and states and Union Territories have been ranked in terms of the
score on the index.
·Maharashtra achieved first rank in implementation of various reforms as it implemented
most of the marketing reforms and offered best environment for doing agribusiness.
·Gujarat ranked second closely followed by Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
·Puducherry got the lowest rank followed by Delhi and Jammu & Kashmir.
·Almost two third states including U.P., Punjab, West Bengal, Assam, Jharkhand, Tamil Nadu
and J&K could not reach halfway mark of reforms score.
·Some states and UTs either did not adopt APMC Act or revoked it. They include Bihar, Kerala,
Manipur, Daman and Diu, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar. They are not
included in the ranking.
Proposed agricultural reforms
·NITI Aayog has also identified three key areas for agricultural reform, which reveal ease of
doing agribusiness as well as opportunities for farmers to benefit from modern trade and
commerce and have wider option for sale of her/his produce.
·The reforms are:
Agricultural market reforms: So that the benefits that can be accrued from agriculture are
tapped by embracing marketing principles that ensure best possible reforms.
Land lease reforms: Relaxation in restrictions related to lease in and lease out agricultural
land and change in law to recognise tenant and safeguard land owners’ liberalisation.
Reforms related to forestry on private land – felling and transit of trees: The reforms lay
stress on the untapped scope of agro forestry in supplementing farmers’ income. Reforms also
represent freedom
given to farmers for felling and transit of trees grown on private land to diversify farm business.
Q4. Consider the following statements about the scheme “Ude Desh Ka Aam Naagrik”
( UDAN ) :
1. It aims to develop the regional aviation market
2. UDAN will be applicable on flights which cover between 200 km and 800 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
REGIONAL CONNECTIVITY SCHEME ‘UDAN’
·UDAN is an innovative scheme to develop the regional aviation market.
·The objective of the scheme was “Ude Desh Ka Aam Naagrik”.
Key Features
·UDAN will be applicable on flights which cover between 200 km and 800 km with no lower
limit set for hilly, remote, island and security sensitive regions.
·The scheme seeks to reserve a minimum number of UDAN seats i.e. seats at subsidized rates
and also cap the fare for short distance flights.
·This would be achieved through two means:
o A financial stimulus in the form of concessions from Central and State governments and
airport operators like tax concessions, exemptions from parking and landing charges etc.
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o A Viability Gap Funding to the interested airlines to kick-off operations from such airports
so that the passenger fares are kept affordable.
The VGF would be provided by a market based model. The operators would submit their
proposals to the implementing agencies would then be offered for competitive bidding through
a reverse bidding mechanism and the route would be awarded to the participant quoting the
lowest VGF per Seat.
Such support would be withdrawn after a three year period, as by that time, the route is
expected to become self-sustainable.
·A Regional Connectivity Fund would be created to meet the VGF requirements under the
scheme. The RCF levy per departure will be applied to certain domestic flights along with 20%
contribution from states.
· For balanced regional growth, the allocations under the scheme would be equitably spread
across the five geographical regions of the country viz. North, West, South, East and Northeast.
· The selection of airports where UDAN operations would start would be done in consultation
with State
Government and after confirmation of their concessions.
· The scheme UDAN envisages providing connectivity to un-served and under-served airports of
the country through revival of existing air-strips and airports.
· The scheme would be in operation for a period of 10 years.
Q5. Consider the following statements about ‘Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor’ :
1. It is being constructed by Indian railways connecting Indian states from Punjab to
West Bengal.
2. World Bank is involved in financing the project
3. It will directly benefit the power and heavy manufacturing industries located in the
Northern and Eastern parts of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
answer: a
EASTERN DEDICATED FREIGHT CORRIDOR
·It is an under construction freight corridor by Indian railways connecting Indian states from
Punjab to west Bengal.
·It is 1,840 km long and extends from Ludhiana in Punjab to Kolkata in West Bengal as a
series of projects with three sections.
·Recently, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IRBD), part of the
World Bank Group, signed an agreement with the Union government to lend $650 million to
DFCCIL for the third phase of Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor.
·The first two phases of the EDFC are already being implemented by the DFCCIL with the help
of financial assistance provided by the World Bank in the form of loans worth $975 million and
$1,100 million respectively.
Significance of the Project
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·It will enhance rail transport capacity, improve service quality and boost freight carriage on the
corridor.
· It will directly benefit the power and heavy manufacturing industries located in the Northern
and Eastern parts of India as these industries depend heavily on a smooth railway network for
the efficient transportation of their raw materials along with the distribution of bulk and
consumer goods.
·In addition to this, railway passengers would also be benefitted as the existing passengers
lines would get decongested.
·It will help in developing institutional capacity of DFCCIL to build, maintain and operate the
entire Dedicated Freight Corridor network.
Even though the Railways are the most pervasive mode of transport in India, it is the road
transport which received the maximum impetus in most of the post-independence period.
Q6. Even though the Railways are the most pervasive mode of transport in India, it is the road
transport which received the maximum impetus in most of the post-independence
period.Which of the following are the reasons for this ?
1. Railways are cheap to operate but the associated capital costs are very high.
2. Given the geographic spread of the human settlements, it is unrealistic that the
railways alone can serve the needs of transport.
3. The per unit (tonne/km) cost of transport is cheaper in road compared to rail
transport.
4. Given the indivisible nature of the Railways, it is not always convenient for the
population to avail of it with the same ease as private cars, buses or two-wheelers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b
Q7. Container Corporation of India Limited is an under-taking under which one of the following
ministries ?
a. Ministry of Shipping
b. Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
c. Ministry of Railways
d. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
Answer: c
Q8. Which one of the following sets of states stands to benefit the most from the Konkan
Railway ?
a) Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala
b) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra
d) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu
Answer: a
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Q9. The ‘Golden Quadrilateral' which connects Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata passes
through
a)
b)
c)
d)
Amritsar—Ahmedabad— Pune—Patna
Jaipur—Porbandar—Hyderabad—Varanasi
Vadodara—Pune—Visakhapatnam—Varanasi
Nagpur—Bhopal—Surat—Amritsar
Answer: c
Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. Damodar Valley Corporation is the first multipurpose river valley project of
independent India.
2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power stations.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
The corporation operates both thermal power stations and hydel power stations
Q11. . Consider the following statements about national energy efficient agriculture pumps
programme
1. Farmers can replace their inefficient agriculture pump sets with a minimal amount
2. The programme has been proposed by ministry of agriculture
3. Pump sets will have smart control panes that has a sim card and smart meters
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation: The pump sets can replace free of cost. It has been proposed by ministry of power
for efficient utilization and energy saving
Q12. Consider the statements about National solar mission
1. It aims at generating 100 GW of solar power by 2021-22
2. Ministry of power is the nodal agency for the programme
3. India has an estimated solar power potential of 748 GW
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 ,2 and 3
d. 1 and 3 only
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Answer: d
Explanation: Ministry of new and renewable energy is the parenting agency.
Q13. Consider the following statements regarding ports in india
1. Ports comes under the union list
2. FDI of upto 100% under the automatic route has been approved for port construction
and management
3. Enayam is the newest major port in india
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation: ports comes under the concurrent list. Major ports are administered by central
government and minor and intermediate ports by respective state governments. Enayam near
colachel has got in principle approval for construction of a major port and it will be the 13 th
major port in India.
Q14. Consider the following statements about Integrated power development scheme
1. It aims at ensuring 24x7 power for all
2. Only state power departments will be eligible for financial assistance under the scheme
3. IT enabled energy accounting and auditing system will be established
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 2 and 3 only
Answer: a
Explanation: Both private discoms as well as state power departments are eligible for financial
assistance under this scheme
Q15. Which of the following statements are true about National investment and infrastructure
fund?
1. It is envisaged as a fund of funds with the ability to make direct investments as
required
2. It has been registered under SEBI
3. It aims at infrastructure development in commercially viable projects even in
manufacturing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
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Answer: a
Explanation: It is registered under SEBI as a category II “Alternate investment fund”.
Commercially viable projects mainly included in this are green field and brown field projects
including stalled projects. But manufacturing could also be included if it is found to be
commercially viable.
29-March:
Art and Culture:
Architecture
Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Gupta architecture
1. It widely used red sand stone
2. The background was made more refined and decorative
3. Naked figures was mostly absent
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 2 only
Answer: b
Explanation: it used cream color sand stone. The figures constructed were more sober also.
Q2. Which of the following is/are correct about town planning during Harappa civilization
1. The streets were laid from east to west in a grid pattern
2. Buildings were made of standardized baked bricks and stones
3. Each part of the city was made up of walled sections
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 only (answer)
c. 2 only
d. 3 only
Answer: b
Explanation: stone was not used for construction in the Indus valley civilization
Q3. With reference to Indian rock cut architecture, consider the following statements
1. The caves at Badami are the oldest rock cut caves in India
2. The Kanheri caves marks the beginning of a long tradition of colossal Buddha
3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation: the caves at Barabar are the oldest rock cut caves in India
Q4 . With reference to the cultural history of India, the term sarvatobhadra refers to:
a. A religious sect
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b. A style of temple construction
c. An assembly of Brahmins
d. An administrative functionary
Answer: b
Explanation: it is a style of temple construction in which it could be accessed from all sides
Q5. Consider the following pairs
FAMOUS WORK OF
ARCHITECTURE
REIGN
1. Virupaksha temple
Chalukyas of badami
2. kailasnath temple of ellora
Mauryas
3. brihadeeshwar temple
Pallavas
Which of the pairs given above are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 1 and 2 only
Answer: c
Explanation: 2 was built by rashtrakutas and 3 by cholas
Q6 . With reference to the Indo-Islamic architecture, choose the correct statements
1. The dome architecture was one of the important characteristics of Indo-Islamic
architecture
2. They introduced the art of inlay decoration and calligraphy in India
3. Bricks were never used in the Indo-Islamic architecture
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 and 2 only(answer)
b. 1 only
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 2 and 3 only
Answer: a
Explanation: from seventeenth century onwards bricks were also used for construction.
Q7. Which of the following are not part of Qutub complex in Delhi
1. Alai Darwaza
2. Qutb Minar
3. Mehrauli Pillar
4. Alauddin Khilji’s tomb
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 3 and 4 only
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d. none of the above
Answer : d
Explanation: all are part of Qutub complex. In addition to these Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque and
Alai Minar are also part of Qutub complex.
Q8 . With reference to the Ajanta caves, consider the following statements
1. At Ajanta , caves were made for different faiths
2. It has both Chaityas and Viharas
3. Seated Buddha in Dharmachakrapravartana is a notable sculpture here
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 and 3 only
b. only 2
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only
Answer: c
Explanation: Ajanta caves has Buddhist sculptures and paintings only.
Q9. Consider the following statements with reference to the Pallava architecture in India
1. It shows the transition from rock cut architecture to stone built ones
2. The sculptures of Dwarapalas at entrance of the mandapa was started by
Pallavas
3. The tradition of direct patronization of temples began with Pallavas
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
exp: all are correct about pallava architecture
30-Mar
Art and Culture
Religions and Culture
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding sankhya school
1. It strongly proponents dualism
2. Sankhya philosophy does not believe in the existence of god
3. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth and transmigration of soul
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
The Samkhya philosophy holds that reality is constituted of two principles one female and the
other male i.e. Prakriti, Purusha respectively. Prakriti and Purusha are completely independent
and absolute. According to this system, Purusha is mere consciousness, hence it cannot be
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modified or changed. Prakriti on the other hand is constituted of three attributes, thought,
movement and the change or transformation of these attributes brings about the change in all
objects. The Samkhya philosophy tries to establish some relationship between Purusha and
Prakriti for explaining the creation of the universe. The propounder of this philosophy was
Kapila, who wrote the Samkhya sutra.
Q2. Which of the following is/are true regarding rigvedic society?
1.
Polygamy and polyandry were practiced
2.
Widow remarriages was also present during rigvedic times
3.
Women are allowed to study Vedas during early rigvedic period
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. only 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer : d
institution of marriage was well established during rigvedic period. There are evidences of
widow remarriages in rigveda. Women were given equal status as men during early vedic times
but later it deteriorated
Q3. With reference to Buddhism in ancient India, consider the following statements
1.
According to Buddhist philosophy, the world is transient and soulless
2.
Buddhists does not believe in the concept of moksha but preached to attain nirvana
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Q4. With reference to jatra, a performing art form, consider the following statements
1.
It is an art form popular in Gujarat
2.
It is performed in religious ceremonies in honor of gods
3.
Earlier form of jatra has been musical but dialogues were added at a later stage
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2 only
Answer: c
explanation: it is an artform of Bengal
Q5. With reference to the famous Odissi dance, consider the following statements
1.
It is a combination of music, dance and drama
2.
Almost all leg movements are spiral or circular
3.
The technique of movements are built around two basic postures
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
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b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 1 and 2 only
Answer: c
1 is the characteristic of sattriya. The two basic postures are chowk and tribhanga.
Q6. With reference to Virashaiva tradition in India, consider the following statements
1. They were also known as lingayats
2.
They did not practiced funeral rites such as cremation
3.
They challenged the caste system and “pollution” attributed to certain castes
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: a
explanation: all are true about virashaiva tradition
Q7. Which among the following is /are not part of the eight fold path teached by Buddha
1.
Right view
2.
Right thought
3.
Right memory
4.
Right livelihood
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3 only
d. All are part of Buddhism
Answer: d
Q8. Santhara is related to
a)
Buddhism
b)
Jainism
c)
Vaishnavism
d)
Shaivism
answer: B
Through santhara, a person is expected to cause minimum disturbance to others. He or she is
presumed to be voluntarily shunning all of life’s temptations — food, water, emotions, bonds —
after instinctively knowing death was imminent.
Q9. Which of the following is the objective of ‘Urja Ganga Project’ ?
a) To provide piped cooking (PNG) gas to residents of the eastern region of the country and
CNG gas for the vehicles.
b) To produce energy from the municipal wastes of the riparian areas
c) To produce energy from river Ganga by setting up floating solar panels
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d) To replace the incandescent and CFL lamps from the riparian areas with LEDs
Answer: a
It aims to provide piped cooking (PNG) gas to residents of the eastern region of the country and
CNG gas for the vehicles.
Key Features
· The project envisages laying a 2,050-km pipeline connecting Jagdishpur (UP) to Haldia (West
Bengal) by 2018. It will include five states including UP, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and
Odisha.
· The project is being implemented by state-run gas utility GAIL.
· The project augments existing GAIL’s network of trunk pipelines covering the length of around
11,000 km by 2540 km.
· Seven East India cities Varanasi, Jamshedpur, Patna, Ranchi, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar,
Cuttack – will be the major beneficiary of this network development.
Q10. Which of the following is the first state to implement Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) in
Kerosene
a) Bihar
b) Jharkhand
c) Maharashtra
d) Rajasthan
Answer: b
Q11. Consider the following statements about ‘BrahMos’ :
1. It is world’s first supersonic missile.
2. The range of the missile was limited to 290km, following India’s accession to MTCR, the
range of the missile will be increased to 600 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Q12. Which philosophy is also known as ‘Lokayata Philosophy’
a)
Nyaya
b) Vysheshika
c) Sankya
d) Charvaka
Answer: d
Charvaka philosophy deals with the materialistic philosophy. It is also known as the Lokayata
Philosophy – the philosophy of the masses.
Q13. Consider the following statements about ‘ Charvaka Philosophy’
1. According to Charvaka there is no other world
2. death is the end of humans and pleasure the ultimate object in life
3. The whole universe consisted of four elements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and
2 and 3
1 and 2
1 and 3
3
only
only
only
Answer: a
Brihaspati is supposed to be the founder of the Charvaka School of philosophy. It finds
mention in the Vedas and Brihadaranyka Upanishad. Thus it is supposed to be the earliest in
the growth of the philosophical knowledge. It holds that knowledge is the product of the
combination of four elements which leaves no trace after death. Charvaka philosophy deals
with the materialistic philosophy. It is also known as the Lokayata Philosophy – the
philosophy of the masses.
According to Charvaka there is no other world. Hence, death is the end of humans and
pleasure the ultimate object in life. Charvaka recognises no existence other than this material
world. Since God, soul, and heaven, cannot be perceived, they are not recognised by
Charvakas. Out of the five elements earth, water, fire, air and ether, the Charvakas do not
recognise ether as it is not known through perception. The whole universe according to them is
thus consisted of four elements.
31-March
Art and Culture
Sculpture and Paintings
Q1. With reference to the sculpture in Indus valley civilization, consider the following
statements
1. Bronze casting technique was widely used in Indus valley civilization
2. Other than stone and bronze, no other material were used to form artefacts
3. The sculpture of bearded priest is made of stone
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation: other than stone and bronze, steatite, terracotta , sandstone and copper were also
used. The sculpture of the bearded priest is made of steatite stone.
Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to Mauryan era
1. The concept of religious sculpture was predominant during Mauryan empire
2. The elephant sculpture in Dhauli was made during the mauryan empire
3. There is uniformity of style in all the pillar capitals.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 only
b.
2 and 3 only
c. 1 ,2 and 3
d. 1 and 3 only
Answer: c
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Q3. With reference to the Mathura school of art, consider the following statements
1. It is a purely indigenous style
2. Buddha in human form was first represented by Mathura art
3. The halo around the head of Buddha was profusely decorated
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.
2 only
b.
2 and 3 only
c.
1 and 2 only
d.
1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Q4.
With reference to the Warli painting tradition in India, consider the following statements
1. They are mural paintings with resemblance to those in Bimbetka
2. Scenes portraying hunting, fishing and farming were generally the central theme of
painting
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Q5. Consider the following statements about the miniature painting tradition in india
1. Pala miniature paintings are the earliest evidences of miniature paintings in India
2. The Mughal miniature tradition suffered a setback during the reign of Aurangzeb
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Q6. With reference to the pre-historic paintings, consider the following statements
1. They only depicted limited and special subjects
2. Most drawings are impressionistic
3. Human figures has been drawn only by four lines
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.
Only 3
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2 only
Answer: d
Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to the paintings in bimbetka rock
shelters
1. Most of the paintings in bimbetka belongs to Mesolithic era
2. There are evidences of a very long cultural continuity in the paintings
3. The paintings are mostly in red and black
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 and 3 only
Only 3
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
Answer: b
Explanation: most of the paintings were made of red and white color
Q8. With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs
Famous work
Site
1. Seated Buddha in
dharmachakrapravartana mudra
Ellora
2. Queen maya’s dream
Badami
3. Arjuna’s penance
Mamallapuram
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a.
1 and 3 0nly
b.
Only 2
c.
Only 3
d.
2 and 3 only
Answer: c
1 is in Ajanta caves, queen maya’s dream in barhut stupa
Q9. With reference to the art and sculptures in India, which one among the following was made
earliest?
a.
Didarganj yakshini
b.
Virupaksha temple
c.
Kailasnatha temple, ellora
d.
Jogimara cave paintings(answer)
Answer: d
Q10. Consider the following statements about marwar school of painting
1. Executed in a primitive and vigorous folk style
2. Highly influenced by mughal school of painting
3. A large number of miniatures including portraits, court scenes etc were executed
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. Only 2
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: c
MARWAR
executed in a primitive and vigorous folk style completely uninfluenced by the Mughal style.
A large number of miniatures comprising portraits, court scenes, series of the Ragamala and
the Baramasa, etc. were executed from the 17th to 19th centuries at several centres of painting
like Pali, Jodhpur and Nagour etc. in Marwar.
Q11. With reference to the sculptures in barhut stupa, consider the following statements
1. The railings contains sculptures based on jataka tales
2. Buddha in human form has been represented
3. It is an example of mauryan popular art
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
In this interpretation of the scene on the pillar from Bharhut, the Buddha appears not in
human form—but rather symbolically, represented by the altar. What we are seeing here is a
representation of the Buddha’s formless state upon reaching spiritual enlightenment. In fact,
some believe the inscription translates as “enlightenment of the Holy One Shakyamuni
Q12. Strait of Johor is located between:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Indonesia and Singapore
Singapore and Malaysia
Yemen and Djibouti
Saudi Arabia and Yemen
Answer: b
http://civils360.com/2017/03/31/important-straits-world/
Q13. Assumption Island was in news recently. It is concerned with which of the following?
a.
China’s new naval base near Horn of Africa
b. US’s new naval base near Madagascar
c. India’s naval base in Seychelles
d. it was occupied by ISIS .
Answer: c
Seychelles government allowed India to build its first Naval Base on the Assumption Island in
the Indian Ocean region (IOR) as a joint project between both countries. In this regard,
Seychelles government has allocated a plot of land on in its Assumption Island In News –
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/india-seychellesworking-to-ensuresecurity-in-indian-ocean/article8707047.ece
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April Month’s Steeplechase Schedule
Date
01-Apr
Subject
Polity
02-Apr
Topics
Local Government73rd And 74th CAA
Sunday Revision Test 1
03-Apr
Polity
Constitutional Bodies
04-Apr
Polity
Non-Constitutional Bodies
05-Apr
Modern India
1857-1885
06-Apr
Modern India
1885-1905
07-Apr
Modern India
1905-1917
08-Apr
International
Relations
International Organistations
09-Apr
Sunday Revision Test 1
10-Apr
Indian Geography
Energy Resources
11-Apr
Indian Geography
Mineral And Manufacturing Industries
12-Apr
Geography
13-Apr
Polity
Transportation , Telecommunication, Foreign
Trade
Special Status For States Article 270 And 271
14-Apr
Polity
UTs And Special Areas
15-Apr
Modern India
16-Apr
INC Sessions
Sunday Revision Test 1
17-Apr
Modern India
18-Apr
Economics
Economic Survey And Budget
19-Apr
Economics
Social Security Schemes
20-Apr
Ecology
Concepts Of Ecology And Environment
21-Apr
Ecology
Conventions And Government Initiatives
22-Apr
Ancient India
23-Apr
1917-47
Full Topic
Sunday Revision Test 1
24-Apr
Ancient India
Full Topic
25-Apr
Medieval India
Full Topic
26-Apr
Medieval India
Full Topic
27-Apr
Art And Culture
Architecture
28-Apr
Art And Culture
Visual Arts
29-Apr
Art And Culture
Performing Arts
30-Apr
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