Human Biology
Unit: F222: Growth, Development and Disease: Medium banded
candidate style answer.
Introduction
OCR has produced these candidate style answers to support teachers in interpreting the
assessment criteria for the new GCE specifications and to bridge the gap between new
specification release and availability of exemplar candidate work.
This content has been produced by senior OCR examiners, with the input of Chairs of Examiners,
to illustrate how the sample assessment questions might be answered and provide some
commentary on what factors contribute to an overall grading. The candidate style answers are not
written in a way that is intended to replicate student work but to demonstrate what a “good” or
“excellent” response might include, supported by examiner commentary and conclusions.
As these responses have not been through full moderation and do not replicate student work, they
have not been graded and are instead, banded “good” or “excellent” to give an indication of the
level of each response.
Please note that this resource is provided for advice and guidance only and does not in any way
constitute an indication of grade boundaries or endorsed answers.
1 This question is based on the advance notice material ‘MISTLETOE AND MEDICINE’
(Advance Notice 1)
(a) Plants such as the mistletoe plant are valued as a source of medicines.
Give three ways in which the structure and chemical composition of a plant cell,
such as a cell from a mistletoe leaf, differs from an animal cell such as a phagocyte.
[3]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
Plant cells have a cell wall and a
vacuole as well as chloroplasts. Animal
cells do not have any of these structures
inside them.
This candidate has made a fair attempt at
stating three differences between plant and
animal cells but does not score full marks as
they fail to provide sufficient detail: cellulose
cell wall and permanent / large vacuole.
(b) Plant extracts, such as Iscador from mistletoe plants, have been widely used as part
of complementary or alternative medicine in the treatment of cancers.
Give one example of complementary or alternative therapy other than plant extracts
which can be used in cancer treatment.
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
hypnotherapy
Correct answer.
1
(c) You were told in the Advance Notice material that, in a report of the use of
complementary or alternative medicine (CAM) by 453 cancer patients, 69% used at least
one form of CAM treatment.
(i)
Calculate the number of patients in this study who used at least one form of CAM
treatment.
Show your working.
[2]
Candidate style answer
69
. x 453
Examiner’s commentary
This gains basic marks for the correct use of
methodology but fails to gain full mark as they
have not given the answer to an appropriate
level of precision. Only whole numbers are
appropriate here as the number relates to the
number of patients.
= 312.57
100
Answer =.312.57 patients
(ii) Suggest one reason why the results of trials on the success of CAM therapies may
be unreliable.
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
They are relatively new and we do not
know what the long term effect will be.
Whilst this is not a suggested mark point on
the mark scheme it is an appropriate
suggestion to be credited for an AVP
(alternative valid point) mark.
(d) The advance notice material suggests that one possible role of lectins in fighting
cancer is to stimulate the immune system by activating cells such as macrophages and
lymphocytes.
(i)
State precisely where and in what form macrophages originate.
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
They are made in the bone marrow as
immature macrophages
The correct location has been identified but the
candidate has failed to correctly identify the
form in which macrophages originate. Both
aspects of this were required to gain one mark
and hence no marks can be supported for this
question.
(ii) Complete the table which shows differences between macrophages and
lymphocytes.
The first row has been done for you.
[2]
Candidate style answer
macrophage
2
Examiner’s commentary
lymphocyte
phagocytic
yes
no
bean shaped
nucleus
yes
yes
In the first row the candidate has got one
answer wrong, but gets the 2nd row correct due
to the 1st incorrect answer the candidate
should not score full marks.
makes
antibodies
no
yes
(e) Explain how cancer develops and explain the role of lymphocytes in preventing
cancer.
You should make clear in your answer the sequence of events leading to the
development of cancer.
[7]
[Total: 17]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
When the DNA is exposed to carcinogens
then it can make oncogenes by a
mutation. This means the cells will keep
dividing even when they are not meant
to which makes a tumor in the body.
The cells will keep making more of
themselves by mitosis. The lymphocytes
are very important in preventing cancer
as they are part of the immune system
and they help protect us from diseases
and pathogens. Others cells in our
immune system are also important like
phagocytes and platelets. Without all
these cells doing their jobs correctly
cancer can spread in the body and it
can be fatal. Cancer can be stopped
though if the tumor is cut out or
sometimes the person has to go into
hospital and have chemotherapy which
makes them sick and lose their hair.
This is why it is important that the
lymphocytes do their job all the time in
case a person gets cancer as this can
stop it spreading and killing them
This candidate has made a good start at
answering the question. There is good
evidence of the cause of the development of a
tumour so some mark points can be
supported. As the candidate has not indicated
that the proto-oncogenes become oncogenes,
full marks could not be awarded.
As is often seen in long answer questions, this
candidate has failed to appreciate the
requirement of the second aspect of the
question. The question requires the details of
the role of lymphocytes in preventing cancer.
This candidate has incorrectly focussed on the
wrong word in the stem of the question and
given details on blood cells rather than the
function of the lymphocytes. A technique
which can help reduce this is to encourage
candidates to circle the command word(s),
such as ‘Explain… and explain…’ in this case.
They could also then underline the detail of the
question.
E.g.
Explain how cancer develops and explain the
role of lymphocytes in preventing cancer.
Candidates can be encouraged to write in
bullet points and aim to provide at least the
same number of bullet points as there are
marks available.
3
2
This question is based on the article ‘IMMUNISATION IN SCHOOL’ (Advance
Notice 2).
(a) You were told in the article that polio is caused by a virus, and diphtheria and
tetanus by bacteria.
State which micro organism causes the following diseases.
[2]
Candidate style answer
disease
tuberculosis
(TB)
rubella
(b)
(i)
microorganism
Bacteria
Examiner’s commentary
The candidate has not answered the question
properly. The question requires the name of
each organism to be stated not the type of
organism.
Virus
Outline the meaning of the following terms used in the case study.
notifiable disease
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
This is a disease which has to be
reported by the doctor to the WHO
Correct answer.
(ii)
epidemic
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
This means the disease has become a lot
more common recently
No marks can be awarded, as the principle of
a sudden increase has not been implied by the
answer.
(iii)
endemic
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
This type of disease is always present in
the country
Correct answer.
(iv)
live vaccine
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
This is an injection which is made from
the weak form of the virus
Correct answer.
4
(c) Immunity can be active or passive and artificial or natural. In the following examples
taken from the case study, identify the type of immunity achieved.
[1]
Candidate style answer
example
receiving
antibodies
across the
placenta
receiving an
anti-tetanus
anti-toxin
injection
picking up the
polio virus from
contaminated
water
Examiner’s commentary
type of
immunity
achieved
This is a good answer so would therefore
score high marks.
Natural
passive
Artificial
passive
Natural
active
(d) In the article, Sarah explains what she means by herd immunity. In order to prevent
transmission of measles occurring, it has been calculated that a herd immunity of 93 –
95% is required. Table 2.1 shows the percentage of the UK population aged 14 years and
under who had received the measles vaccine by 1998 and 2003
Table 2.1
year
population 14 years and
under / million
number vaccinated /
million
% vaccinated /
million
1998
11.2
10.2
91
2003
10.9
8.7
80
(i)
Calculate how many children aged 14 and under would need to have been
vaccinated by 2003 to achieve a herd immunity of 93%.
Show your working.
[2]
Candidate style answer
0.93 x 10.9 = 10.137
Answer =..10.137
Examiner’s commentary
A error similar to that made in the first question
has been made here, where the candidate has
failed to give the answer to an appropriate
level of precision. In this case, the candidate
should look at the number of decimal places
that are used in the data in the table and follow
the same format. In this case the answer
should be given to 1 decimal place.
5
(ii) Suggest a reason for the decline in the number of children vaccinated against
measles.
[1]
[Total: 13]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
Mums are scared that it may cause
autism
This is a suitable answer.
3
Coronary heart disease (CHD) is one of the most common causes of premature
death in the United Kingdom. Evidence has shown that a high level of saturated fat in the
diet increases the risk of CHD.
(a) Describe the events which occur in coronary arteries which can lead to the
development of CHD.
[5]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
If a person has too much fatty food in their
diet then they may end up with plaques
building up in their blood vessels. Then
atheromas may also form which can lead
to CHD. If this occurs the lumen of the
vessel gets smaller and this means less
blood gets to the cells. They then get less
oxygen and this may mean that they die.
If this happens in the heart then the person
will die as the heart will not be able to
pump the blood around the body.
The candidate would be awarded some
marks for this question. The candidate has
stated the effect of an atheromas rather
than sequencing the events that take place
to lead to CHD.
A useful revision suggestion is to ask
students to make a 10-step flow diagram
describing the stages of the lead up to a
myocardial infarction. This could
alternatively be done through the use of a
card sort sequencing activity based on
either text or images of the development of
an atheromas (such as those found on
websites such as those found on
http://www.resverlogix.com/product_develo
pment/cardiovascular_disease/atherosclero
sis.html
Table 3.1
b(i)
6
country
deaths per 100 000
Ukraine
393.8
Romania
198.6
United Kingdom
150.4
Japan
35.7
Suggest why the figures in table 3.1 are quoted as deaths per 100 000.
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
This means that the numbers can be
compared between different countries if
they have different numbers of people
living there.
This answer is supported.
(ii) Suggest with reasons two other types of data that could be collected in an
epidemiological study on the possible causes of CHD in these countries.
One example has been done for you.
[4]
[Total: 10]
Candidate style answer
Quantity of
Data
dairy produce
eaten in diet
Dairy products
contain high
levels of
Reason
saturated fat
and this
increases the
risk of CHD
Data
Reason
Data
Reason
Examiner’s commentary
The second data that is suggested is
insufficiently detailed enough to gain full marks
(which looks for the quantity of cigarettes
smoked).
Sex
Men are
more likely to
get CHD than
women as
they tend to
smoke more
The number
of smokers
If a person
smokes more
then they are
more likely to
get CHD than
someone who
only does
passive
smoking.
7
4
Fig 4.1 shows the mean weight (mass) in kilograms for boys and girls of different
ages in 1994 and 2002 in the UK.
Fig 4.1
(a)(i) Identify two trends shown by the data for boys in Fig. 4.1.
[2]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
1
Correct trends.
Boys get heavier as they get older
2 Boys are heavier overall in 2002 than
in 1992
(ii)
Suggest why girls tend to weigh more than boys at the age of 12 years.
[3]
Candidate style answer
8
Examiner’s commentary
Girls mature earlier than boys as they
get to puberty first. They store more fat
on their hips whereas boys tend to get
more muscle on their arms and
shoulders. Boys also do more sport
than girls so burn off more fat than the
girls.
Correct answer
(iii) Suggest possible explanations for the changes seen in the mean weights of both
boys and girls between 1994 and 2002.
[3]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
Nowadays people eat more food and eat
more bad food such as MacDonalds and
Pizza. This means they eat more than
what people did a long time ago (1992)
and so they put on more weight and
then end up weighing more.
Some marks are awarded but the candidate
repeats the same points and does not make
three separate statements.
(b)
Weight is also used to monitor infant growth rate.
State one other way in which infant growth rate can be monitored.
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
Biparietal diameter
A common mistake by middle ability
candidates is not appreciating the differences
in techniques used to measure foetal growth
and infant growth. No marks are awarded for
this answer. A summary table identifying the
different techniques and their procedures
would aid revision. E.g.
Stage of
development
Technique
Foetus
Biparetial
diameter
Crownrump
length
Head
circumfere
nce
Height
Infant
Detail
9
(c) Describe how you would use weight measurements to calculate the relative growth
rates of a child.
[3]
[Total: 12]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
A doctor should measure the weight of
the child at the beginning of the week
and then again at the end of the week.
This then means he can work out how
much weight the child has put on in the
week. He can do this for a year to find
out how much the weight the child has
put on in the year. Then he can divide
this by the weight the child had at the
start of the year and this will tell him
how much he has grown in the year
compared to what he was at the start.
Although rather verbose, this answer would
gain high marks. This is an area in which many
candidates get the different types of growth
curve muddled. Clear concise definitions and
descriptions of how to achieve the data should
be learnt, as well as how to interpret such
data. Past exam questions can be found in
unit 2857 papers (available from OCR
publications department or through
www.ocr.org.uk)
5(a) Fig. 5.1 shows a diploid cell with two pairs of chromosomes.
Compete the diagram to show the possible combinations of these chromosomes in the
four gametes produced by meiosis.
[4]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
This would score some marks.
Fig. 5.1
(b)
Explain how the process of meiosis can result in genetic variation.
[4]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
Meiosis is used to make cells divide. It is
important in reproduction as it makes
the gametes These only have 23
chromosomes in each gamete so when
they are fertilised they go back to
having 46 chromosomes.
This is a standard AS question and as such
candidates should be able to list succinctly the
areas in which variation is increased. This
basic answer would gain a mark but there is
insufficient detail to award any higher marks.
Clear reference should be made to individual
stages in meiosis and what occurs at the
stages mentioned.
10
(c)
Four light micrographs of onion cells undergoing mitosis are shown in Fig. 5.2.
Fig. 5.2 © 2007 Manfred Kage/ Science Photo Library
Outline what happens to chromosomes during the mitotic cell cycle.
You will gain credit if you refer to the labelled cells A – E in Fig 5.2.
You should make clear in your answer how the steps are sequenced.
[10]
[Total: 17]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
Cell A shows a cell in metaphase and
this is when the cell lets the
chromosomes line up in the middle of
the cell on the equator. They also have
spindles attached to them. In cell B the
cell is in a different stage of mitosis and
this is a stage that occurs at the end of
mitosis. This stage is called anaphase.
It is when the chromosomes makes
arrows and point to the edges of the
nucleus. The arrows are made by the
spindle fibres getting shorter. This then
makes the chromosomes move to the
edge of the nucleus so they get into 2
This candidate would be awarded middle level
marks in this question: Some marks are not
awarded as the description of the stage is
incorrect (refer to marking guidance in italics at
the top of the mark scheme for this question).
Candidates often find it hard to remember the
order of the stages in mitosis and the use of
acronyms can help such as “I Prefer Marmite
And Toasted Crumpets”.
Candidates can be encouraged to use side
headings to help organise their answer and
then bullet point features of each stage
11
groups rather than 1. Cell C is in
prophase and is preparing to go
through mitosis by making all their
chromosomes fatter and shorter. This
makes it look like a thick tumbled mess
in the nucleus. As they are easier to see.
The cell D is in prophase as well but is
just a bit earlier as the chromosomes are
not as thick yet. Cell E is two cells which
are about to split into two. This is what
mitosis is and helps make new cells for
growth and repair. The cell and the
chromosomes split so that they are
equally split into two and are both the
same at the end.
underneath e.g.
Prophase – as seen in cell C
The chromosomes get shorter and thicker.
This makes them more visible under the light
microscope.
Each chromosome is made up of two
chromatids.
They are joined together by a centromere.
A good revision activity is to provide
candidates with a laminated work sheet of a
diagram of empty cells in each stage of
mitosis. Then using washable OHP pens ask
candidates to work through the stages of
mitosis drawing in nuclear envelope,
chromosomes/chromatids, spindle fibres etc.
A CD-ROM “Mitosis and Meiosis: An
Interactive Approach, Third Edition” available
from Illumination Educational Software which
gives very clear animations on mitosis (and
meiosis) and can be run as a revision exercise
with tests at the end of each unit. Online
activities can also be found on their website:
http://www.illumination-ed.co.uk/
6
MRSA is a bacterium which can cause infections. There has been much publicity
regarding the increased number of infections due to MRSA which occur in hospitals but
data suggests that the number of cases may now be falling
(a)(i) State what the initials MRSA stand for.
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
Multiple resistant Staphylocicos aurus
Although there are spelling errors within the
answer, it is clear that the candidate has
correctly identified the organism (as this is not
a QWC question).
12
(ii) The following table compares some of the features of prokaryotic cells such as
MRSA and eukaryotic cells such as a leucocyte.
Complete the table by placing a tick (9) or a cross (x) in each box. The first one has been
done for you.
[4]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
The candidate has correctly completed the
bottom 3 rows and would gain most marks.
(b)
3
3
3
X
3
X
3
X
Outline three reasons which may explain the fall in the number of MRSA cases.
[3]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
1 Doctors have found a new and better
antibiotic which kills the disease
The first answer is superficial and incorrect but
the other two statements would be credited.
The first statement also implies a
misunderstanding of the relationship between
the terms pathogen/causative agent and
disease.
2 Doctors and nurses are using hand
cleaning gel on wards all the time
3 Infected patients are kept away from
other patients
(c)
The presence of MRSA has been linked to the use of antibiotics.
Explain how the use of antibiotics has led to the development of MRSA.
[4]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
MRSA has been caused by doctors giving
out too many antibiotics to people who
did not need them. Also people start
taking antibiotics and then when they
start to feel better they get lazy and do
not finish all their tablets. Also some
people forget to take them. This means
that the bacteria gets used to the
antibiotic and learns how to survive.
These super bacteria then keep growing
and the person has more of them. If the
person then coughs or sneezes over
another person then they will now also
have the super bacteria which can not
be killed by the antibiotic.
This candidate has made a weak attempt at
this question. Whilst the content is biologically
sound in areas, the candidate has
misinterpreted what the question has asked
and hence scores no marks. Completing past
papers can help candidates develop their
answering technique considerably.
13
(d) The Millennium Seed Bank Project at Kew, near London, seeks to develop a global
seed conservation network, capable of safeguarding wild plant species.
The project has focused its collecting priorities on the arid and semi-arid areas of the
world. This is because nearly a fifth of the world’s human population lives in such dry
lands and is directly dependent upon the plants that grow there.
Explain why the project has concentrated on the arid and semi-arid areas of the world and
discuss the possible advantages for people living in these areas of maintaining such a
seed bank.
[6]
[Total: 18]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
The project is based in areas which have
few plants and are very dry as these are
people who can be helped more. As there
are only a few plants which grow here
the people only have a few crops that
they can use and if these get diseased
and die then there is even less. This will
also get worse as the greenhouse effect
gets worse. We may end up with arid
areas in England as well so it is
important to find plants which can
survive. If we keep some of these seeds
then if they die off in the other countries
we will be able to sell the seeds back to
them and make money to put into more
research. We can also use special
techniques to try and make different.
plants breed with each other and may
make new plants which have more fruits
on them.
This candidate has made a fair attempt at
answering the first part of the question as to
why the project has focussed on arid areas.
However, there is less evidence of the possible
advantages to the people living in this area.
Candidates can be encouraged to
annotate/underline/highlight the question to
identify all aspects such as that shown below:
Explain why the project has concentrated on
the arid and semi-arid areas of the world and
discuss the possible advantages for people
living in these areas of maintaining such a
seed bank.
7(a) State what is meant by the term non-infectious disease.
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
This is a disease that cannot be caught
by another person
This is incorrect. It is a common colloquial
answer which implies a misunderstanding of
the term ‘pathogen’
(b) Type 2 diabetes is also known as non-insulin dependent diabetes. The rise in the
number of cases of Type 2 diabetes could be measured using the incidence of the
disease or the prevalence of the disease.
Explain what is meant by the terms incidence and prevalence.
(i)
incidence
[2]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
This is the number of new people who
have the disease
Basic marks would be awarded. The
candidate should have used the number of
marks available as a guide to the level of detail
14
required in the answer.
(ii)
prevalence
[1]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
This is the total number of people who
have the disease
Basic marks would be awarded. Again the
candidate should have used the number of
marks available as a guide to the level of detail
required in the answer.
(c) Suggest, with reasons, which of the two methods of measuring the number of cases
(incidence or prevalence) would be of most use in planning future health care provision
for people with Type 2 diabetes.
[3]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
The best data would be prevalence. I
think this because it means doctors and
nurses will know exactly how many
people have the disease and so they will
know how many beds they will need and
how much medicine they will need to be
able to treat people. This is very
important with Diabetes as it is a
disease for life and so the people will
need to be treated all of their life and
this will cost the NHS a lot of money and
the government will need to know how
much they will need in the future.
Some marks can be supported for the
reference to cost implications and the
reference to the fact that Diabetes is a long
term condition. The candidate could have
gained 4 higher mark by extending the detail
on the type of condition i.e. potentially
chronic/debilitating etc
(d)
State two differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes,
[2]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
1 Type 1 happens in young children
but type 2 is in adults.
This answer is supported. Further detail
comparing the types of diet and lifestyle could
have been included. Websites such as
http://diabetes.niddk.nih.gov/dm/pubs/type1
and2/index.htm can be used by students for
independent research and revision activities
such as web hunts.
2 Type 1 can be treated with insulin
but with type 2 you can just be careful
with your diet
(e) The health of people with Type 2 diabetes is managed by a team of health
professionals
Suggest the role of the dietician in the management of Type 2 diabetes.
[3]
[Total: 13]
[Paper Total 100]
Candidate style answer
Examiner’s commentary
It is important that people with type 2
diabetes see a nurse regularly so they
can have their weight checked
regularly. The nurse will also be able to
The use of the key term ‘balanced diet’ would
have enabled the candidate to gain a higher
mark.
15
tell them what type of thing to eat such
as less fat and less calories.
Overall Banding: Medium
Overall Comments: This candidate has gained a mark typical of a middle ability candidate. The
main area for improvement is to encourage the correct use of more specific key terms. Whilst in
several questions the candidate has clear ability and understanding it is their expression and use
of colloquial language which has limited the overall mark. The production of glossaries at the end
of each module, which can then be assembled into a unit revision pack, will help identify the key
terms needed in each topic.
16