Chapter 19 (Earthquakes) QUIZ
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
1. The strain which causes a material to twist is known as ____.
a. stress
c. tension
b. compression
d. shear
7. What keeps the stable part of this seismometer from moving
during an earthquake?
a. inertia
c. its mass
b. gravity
d. its location
8. Which part of the seismometer does not shake during an
earthquake?
a. the frame
c. the rotating drum
b. the spring
d. the pendulum and pen
2. The strain which causes a material to pull apart is known as
____.
a. stress
c. tension
b. compression
d. shear
3. P-waves and S-waves are also known as ____.
a. surface waves
c. body waves
b. ground waves
d. first waves
Use the graph to answer the questions.
Use the diagram to answer the questions.
4. Which point marks the epicenter of the earthquake?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
5. At which point will the most damage as a result of the
earthquake occur?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
6. What is true about the focus?
a. It is the point where the
most surface damage will
occur.
b. It is the point where the
surface waves originate
and spread out.
c. It is the point where the
waves are attracted.
d. It is the point of failure
where the waves originate.
9. A seismogram is located 4500 km away from the epicenter of
an earthquake. What is the difference in time between when
the P-waves reach the seismogram and the S-waves reach the
seismogram?
a. 5 1/2 minutes
c. 10 minutes
b. 6 minutes
d. 22 minutes
10. P-waves reaches a seismogram 4 minutes after an earthquake
occurs and the S-waves arrive 3 and a half minutes later. How
far is the seismogram from the earthquakes epicenter?
a. 1000 km
c. 3000 km
b. 2000 km
d. 4000 km
11. Which type of material would be best to use for construction in
an area prone to earthquakes?
a. Concrete
c. Wood
b. Brick
d. Stone
Location
A
B
C
D
Earthquake History
many earthquakes
few earthquakes
many earthquakes
many earthquakes
Strain Buildup Rate
slow
moderate
fast
moderate
12. Organize the locations from lowest to highest hazard.
a. B, A, D, C
c. A, B, C, D
b. C, D, A, B
d. B, A, C, D
Use the diagram to answer the questions.
13. Location D just experienced an earthquake. Which location
will most likely experience the next earthquake?
a. Location C because it has c. It is impossible to tell
the highest hazard.
because the data just gives
the risks for earthquakes not
a predictable forecast.
b. Location A because it is
d. It is impossible to tell
just below location D in
because the proximity of the
hazard level.
other locations to D is not
known.
14. Seismologists have assessed a particular area and predict that
an earthquake occurs every 17 years in that area. If the last
earthquake occurred in 1998, when will the next earthquake
most likely occur?
a. 2010
c. 2017
b. 2015
d. 2025
Matching
Match each item with the correct description below. You may
use a term more than once.
a. surface wave
b. P-wave
c. S-wave
15. Over the past 250 years a city has experienced 23 earthquakes ____
at rather regular intervals. Approximately how often have
these earthquakes occurred?
____
a. every 50 years
c. every 100 years
b. every 10 years
d. every 5 years
____
24. Does not pass through Earth’s liquid outer core
____
16. A city is located over an active fault, but has not experienced an
earthquake for a long period of time. The city is most likely ____
located where?
a. over a seismic gap
c. over minimal strain
accumulation
b. in an area of low
d. at a location of low seismic
recurrence
risk
27. Is refracted by Earth’s core
17. ____ and the amount of strain released during the last quake are
used in earthquake probability studies.
a. Seismic belts
c. Fault scarps
____
b. Strain accumulation
d. Tsunamis
____
18. On a seismometer, vibrations of the ground do not move the
____.
a. frame
c. recording drum
b. spring
d. suspended mass
19. A ____ fault forms as a result of horizontal compression.
a. blind
c. strike-slip
b. normal
d. reverse
20. The San Andreas Fault, a result of horizontal shear, is a ____
fault.
a. blind
c. strike-slip
b. normal
d. reverse
25. Does not pass through Earth’s interior at all
26. Squeezes and pulls rocks in same direction as the save travels
28. Absence of this kind of waves results in a shadow zone
Match each phrase with the correct description below.
a. Liquefaction of soils
b. Collapse of higher, intact floors onto ground floors
c. Vertical motions of the seafloor during an earthquake
d. Natural sway of intermediate buildings equals the period of
vibration of the earthquake
29. Causes structures to sink into the ground
30. Type of structural failure called “pancaking”
____
31. Type of structural failure related to building height
____
32. Results in a tsunami
Match each item with the correct definition below.
a. modified Mercalli scale
e. tsunami
b. magnitude
f. strain
c. stress
g. seismic gap
d. fault
h. surface wave
33. Section of an active fault that has not experienced a significant
earthquake for a long time
34. Rates earthquake intensity
35. Wave generated by vertical motions of the seafloor
21. The locations of seismic belts are determined by plotting ____.
a. earthquake epicenters
c. earthquake foci
b. seismic gaps
d. epicentral distances
36. Seismic wave that causes the ground to move in two directions
37. Forces per unit area acting on a material
22. A numerical scale of earthquake magnitude that takes into
account the size of the fault rupture is the ____.
a. Richter scale
c. moment magnitude scale
b. modified Mercalli scale
d. epicentral distance scale
38. Measure of the energy released by a quake
39. Deformation of materials in response to stress
40. Fracture in rock along which movement occurs
23. Deaths associated with earthquake deaths in sloping areas can
result from ____.
a. tsunamis
c. formation of fault scarps
b. landslides
d. surface ruptures
Chapter 19 (Earthquakes) QUIZ
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: D
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: B.6
STA:
2. ANS: C
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: B.6
STA:
3. ANS: C
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: B.6
STA:
4. ANS: C
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: B.6
STA:
5. ANS: C
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: B.6
6. ANS: D
S11.D.1.1.2
22. ANS: C
NAT: UCP3 | A1 | A2 | B6 | F5 | F6
23. ANS: B
G1
STA:
NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |
S11.D.1.1.2
MATCHING
24. ANS: C
NAT: UCP1 | B6 | D1 | D3
25. ANS: A
NAT: UCP2 | B6 | D1
STA:
26. ANS: B
NAT: UCP2 | B6 | D1
STA:
27. ANS: B
NAT: UCP1 | B6 | D1 | D3
28. ANS: B
NAT: UCP1 | B6 | D1 | D3
STA:
29. ANS: A
G1
STA:
NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: B.6
STA:
30. ANS: B
G1
STA:
NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |
S11.D.1.1.2
7. ANS: A
S11.A.2.2.2
NAT: B.6
STA:
31. ANS: D
G1
STA:
NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |
S11.D.1.1.2
8. ANS: D
S11.A.2.2.2
NAT: B.6
STA:
32. ANS: C
G1
STA:
NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |
S11.D.1.1.2
9. ANS: B
S11.A.2.2.2
NAT: B.6
STA:
33. ANS: G
NAT: UCP1 | A1 | F5 | F6
34. ANS: A
NAT: UCP3 | A1 | A2 | B6 | F5 | F6
10. ANS: C
S11.A.2.2.2
NAT: B.6
STA:
35. ANS: E
G1
STA:
NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |
S11.D.1.1.2
11. ANS: C
S11.A.2.1.3
NAT: F.5
36. ANS: H
NAT: UCP2 | B6 | D1
STA:
12. ANS: A
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: F.5
STA:
37. ANS: C
NAT: UCP1 | A1 | D1
STA:
38. ANS: B
NAT: UCP3 | A1 | A2 | B6 | F5 | F6
13. ANS: C
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: F.5
STA:
39. ANS: F
NAT: UCP1 | A1 | D1
14. ANS: B
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: F.5
STA:
40. ANS: D
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: UCP1 | D3
15. ANS: B
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: F.5
STA:
16. ANS: A
S11.D.1.1.2
NAT: F.5
STA:
17. ANS: B
F6
STA:
NAT: UCP3 | A1 | A2 | D1 | D3 | F5 |
S11.D.1.1.2
18. ANS: D
NAT: UCP2 | A1 | E1 | E2
19. ANS: D
S11.D.1.1.3
NAT: UCP1 | D3
STA:
20. ANS: C
S11.D.1.1.3
NAT: UCP1 | D3
STA:
21. ANS: A
NAT: UCP1 | A1 | D3 | F5 | F6
STA:
STA:
S11.A.2.2
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
STA:
STA: